COMPANY OPERATIONS MANUAL PART B Flashcards
(196 cards)
1
Q
1.1.1.3 TYPES OF OPERATIONS THAT ARE APPROVED
The approved Operations Specifications in accordance with the Air Operator’s Permit in annexure 1 of OM A
A
- IFR and VFR
- Extended over water flight
- Flight in icing conditions
- EDTO (With DGCA approval)
- RVSM (With DGCA approval)
- Low Visibility Operation (With DGCA approval)
- PBN (RNAV/ RNP) (RNP AR With DGCA approval)
2
Q
The inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane is the responsibility of
A
the PIC who may depute the Co-pilot to carry out the inspection. The airplane must be visually inspected as per checklist before every flight.
3
Q
Whenever maintenance is in progress on the aircraft and crew/ maintenance
personnel are likely to be in the cockpit, a ‘Maintenance in progress’ placard will
be placed on the central pedestal.
This is to ensure safety of personnel working on the aircraft, and guard against
A
any inadvertent operations of cockpit controls/ switches/ CBs till the maintenance is completed.
‘Maintenance in progress’ is placed on the reverse of ‘Briefing in progress’ placard.
4
Q
The PIC shall sign the airplane acceptance certificate after he is satisfied that the following conditions have been complied with, before the commencement of any flight:
6 Points
A
a) Valid Flight Release in respect of the airplane signed by the Engineer.
b) The airplane is equipped with the prescribed instruments and equipment.
c) Sufficient quantity of fuel and oil of correct grade is available on board for the proposed flight.
d) The view of the Pilot is not obscured and the Pilot’s windscreen is clean.
e) Any deferred maintenance must be ascertained and maintenance/ operational action on items under MEL must be complied with.
f) Must ensure that all inoperative systems are placarded as stated in MEL.
5
Q
The PIC shall sign the Load & Trim sheet after ensuring that the airplane is satisfactorily loaded with respect to total load, distribution of the load (CG location) is within approved limits and that load is properly fastened and secured. This shall be certified by the
A
commercial Staff on the Load and Trim sheet.
6
Q
Push back clearance shall only be requested after
A
all the doors are closed.
7
Q
Re-Opening of Doors after closure procedure:
A
All the aircraft main cabin doors shall be disarmed prior to opening of any cabin door(s).
Note: Lead Cabin Crew to remind the Cockpit Crew to make a PA to disarm all doors, if not done.
8
Q
Use of headsets: It is mandatory that harness and headsets shall be worn from
A
engine start to FL100/ TA and from FL 100/ TL (whichever is higher) till engine shut down.
It is recommended that PF calls out “Speakers-Headsets” when headset is intended to be taken off.
9
Q
VHF 2 within terminal area should be used for communication with
A
Company / ATIS, en-route for secondary ATC communication and to monitor 121.5 MHz to the extent possible.
10
Q
When OAT is below ___ , it is preferable to use single pack operation for fuel saving. If weather conditions are hot and humid, PIC may decide on both pack operation, keeping passenger and pilot comfort in view.
A
30°C / To prevent excessive wear of one pack, the flight crew should switch between the packs on each flight. For ease,
i) Departure: Pack 1 OFF
ii) Arrival: Pack 2 OFF
Note: During SET-OUT, single pack operation is not permitted on NEO aircraft. The two procedures may be done independently.
11
Q
The HF VOICE MODE is not inhibited on ground. Its use on ground must be limited to operational needs. Use of HF is prohibited when
A
refuelling is in progress. Post modification, HF Data link is not available on any aircraft. GND HF DATALNK override pushbutton located on the overhead panel should be left in the NORMAL position and not selected to OVERRIDE.
12
Q
Crew may select higher value of THR RED/ACC ALT, if required:
A
- by airfield specific procedures (Terrain clearance/ Noise abatement procedure etc)
- any other operational requirement (adverse weather, bird activity etc)
13
Q
Windshear Detection is a function of Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) and is not used by FMGC for SRS engagement. Thus, on reaching acceleration altitude, SRS will change to CLB/ OPN CLB, regardless of windshear detection by FAC. If such conditions are expected, it is recommended to
A
increase the AEO Acceleration Altitude to 1500ft above aerodrome threshold elevation.
14
Q
The flight crew will then enter wind profile using the WIND pages in flight to obtain
A
realistic OPT FL, fuel and time prediction.
15
Q
Climb Speed Pre-Selection
The conditions under which this would be appropriate are:
A
i) ATC specifies an initial climb speed
ii) Close in turns greater than 120°
iii) High climb angle requirement/Obstacles
iv) Reported Bird Activity
16
Q
Due any unplanned restrictions/ reduction of runway length by NOTAMs/ notifications, operations below ___ (TORA/ LDA) for A320/ 321, will only be permitted post approval from Senior Vice President (Flight Operations).
A
5500 ft/ 1677m
17
Q
If there is an option of selecting different take off flap settings, ___ is recommended.
A
the lower flap setting / This is to achieve better climb performance and fuel / component conservation. PIC may select a higher flap setting if so warranted.
18
Q
Intersection take-off is recommended subject to the following:
A
i) Performance limits being met
ii) Not requiring TOGA power
iii) PIC has a compelling reason to use full length of runway.
19
Q
In case of no SID, insert a ‘PD’ waypoint at ___ on outbound track from station VOR and retain the discontinuity.
A
10 NM
20
Q
FCU Altitude is to be set in accordance with the following guidelines:
A
i) When ATC clearance not received:
- Set higher of Transition Altitude or MSA
ii) When ATC clearance is received:
- NO SID Set ATC cleared altitude or FL.
- With SID Set lower of ATC cleared initial attitude or lowest SID Alt Constraint.
21
Q
Time entry in the load & trim sheet should be in
A
UTC and not Local Time.
22
Q
PIC shall ___ and handover aircraft copy to CM2
A
sign the trim sheet, annotate name, ATPL number, time in UTC
23
Q
If the briefing has not commenced, the PIC should ___ and start the briefing.
A
sign the papers, post verification of data, close doors
24
Q
Once the doors are closed; ensure that the boarding ramp/ aerobridge is clear of L1 cabin door before
A
requesting the cabin crew to arm all slides.
25
In case of short taxi, the flight control checks maybe conducted at any convenient stage, including before commencing taxi, but after
receiving the "Pin, Thumbs Up"/ "Thumbs Up" callout.
26
During Low Visibility taxi operations when RVR is below 400m, it is mandatory to do the flight control check with
the aircraft stationary.
27
PF will LOOK at all 3 places and after positively checking, verbally respond 'CONF X-X-X'.
For conf 1+F: response will be
1 - 1 - 1+F
28
When two airplanes are taxiing, the following airplane should maintain a minimum distance of ___
200 ft (60 m)
29
Minimum required power shall be used to break away from the parking stand so that the resultant jet blast does not cause any damage. However, during single engine taxi, significantly higher thrust may be required to commence taxi and turns especially in case of up slope to prevent damage due to jet blast, maximum of ___ N1 is recommended.
40%
30
On receiving landing clearance, PM is to select the desired position of 'NOSE' sw and call
"Landing clearance obtained for R/W __, Nose light T.O./ TAXI"
31
If an arc is displayed above any wheel brake temperature on the ECAM wheel page, (indicating a brake temp of above 100°C) PM shall
call out and select 'Brake Fans' to 'ON'
32
Single Engine Taxi (SET) Taxi speed limit is
30 Kt
33
SET is not to be carried out in the event of:
a. APU Inop,
b. Y ELEC PUMP LO PR/ OVHT,
c. Y RSVR LO AIRPR/ OVHT/ LO LVL or
d. Visibility < 400m.
34
On ___ aircraft, SET-IN is permitted with APU inoperative.
A320 NEO
35
SET is not recommended for
uphill slopes, bays which have uphill slope, slippery/ Taxiways.
36
SET In case of strong winds & a turn of 180 Degrees or more is required, the turn should be executed in
the direction of the shutdown engine.
37
Pilots undergoing PIC Training may perform SET-OUT under
the supervision of a Trainer.
38
PM will carry out Engine Start during SET-OUT. While starting the engine, it is recommended that
PM maintains RT communication and monitors aircraft position.
39
Do not wait till second engine start or line up to check serviceability of
Weather RADAR. This should be done at the earliest after switching ON the RADAR. In case of no weather/ NIL return, check brightness control and carry out a test to confirm serviceability of weather RADAR (Refer PRO-NOR-SOP-10). TERR on ND may then be selected.
40
PIC is to ensure that cabin is secure before entering Runway, except where in his judgement
significant backtrack is required and immediate take-off clearance is not expected.
41
Turns / Speed on ground
- On apron, max taxi speed 15 Kt
- All turns of ≥ 90 degrees 10 Kt
- Straight taxiways/ backtracking on Runway 30 Kt
- Back tracking on runway and requested by ATC 50 Kt (Dry)/ 30 Kt (Wet) to expedite
- High speed exits (RET) shall be no faster than 50 Kt (Dry)/ 30Kt (Wet)
- SET max speed limit on taxi track 30 Kt.
42
During Low Visibility Operations, when RVR is less than 400 m, taxi speed should be restricted to ___ to ensure adequate safety and separation.
10 Kt
43
2.1.4.2.6 Departure Change Checklist
The flight crew should perform the Departure Change checklist when
a new clearance is received that changes the runway, the line-up option, the performance or the trajectory. This is to be done after completing the required actions & briefing for departure change.
44
2.1.4.2.6 Departure Change Checklist
The checklist should not be performed for short term changes (e.g.
modification of the clearance altitude leading the FCU altitude change).
45
To avoid Runway Incursions, PF is to call out ___. PM shall reply "AFFIRM/ NEGATIVE", as applicable.
"Entering runway XX, confirm cleared"
46
Runway occupancy time (ROT)
Line-up checklist should be completed after
'line-up clearance' has been obtained and when the line-up flow has been accomplished.
47
Runway occupancy time (ROT)
To minimize ROT, rolling take-offs are preferred. Do not hold brakes against thrust (set approximate value of thrust as per the EPR/ N1 gauge. Need not aim for exact figure of
1.05 EPR/ 50% N1).
48
Reject Take off / PIC SLF/ RC/ ALRC crew configuration (When the PIC is CM2):
As the 'decision' of STOP or GO rests with the PIC, hence the call of "STOP" or "GO" must come from PIC even if s/he, as a trainer, is seated on the right seat. However, for realistic training, the Thrust Levers may be with the Trainee on the LHS (CM1). Thus, on the Call of "STOP" by Trainer the execution of RTO would be by the Trainee on LHS (CM1). A call of "STOP" from the right seat in this case, therefore, does NOT imply a take-over of controls. The responsibility of safe execution of RTO, however, continues to be with the PIC. For which, if necessary, s/he may take over controls at any time during the process of RTO. The above should be part of the departure briefing.
49
Aerodromes for which departure procedures have not been promulgated ATC issues the required departure instructions. In these circumstances it is company policy that no turn will be initiated below ___ if an immediate turn is required.
500' AAL
50
In case the acceleration altitude is >1500 ft above runway threshold or in hot conditions Pack 2 may be selected 'ON' ___ after Pack 1.
10 s
51
Selecting pack 'ON' before reducing takeoff thrust would result in
an EGT increase.
52
To give flying practice to CM2, the PIC may hand over controls to the CM2. Such handing over of controls is to take place
not earlier than crossing Transition Altitude and PIC must take over controls for approach and landing not later than crossing Transition Level.
53
CO-ORDINATION OF ECAM ACTIONS AFTER TAKE-OFF AND STRATEGY IN CASE OF ENGINE FAILURE/ FIRE
The flight crew should delay the level off for acceleration to secure the engine. An engine is considered as secured when the ECAM actions of the procedures are performed until:
- "ENG MASTER OFF" for an engine failure without damage
- "AGENT 1 DISCH" for an engine failure with damage
- Fire extinguished or "AGENT 2 DISCH" for an engine fire.
- When engine is secured, crew must stop ECAM actions until the configuration change is completed as it requires cross check by both pilots.
54
The engine out maximum acceleration altitude corresponds to
the maximum altitude that can be achieved with one engine out and the other engine(s) operating at take-off thrust for a maximum of 10 min.) Minimum engine out acceleration altitude is 1500' above runway threshold unless otherwise specified.
55
The flight crew must stop the ECAM actions before reading the STATUS page for the following actions (as applicable):
- perform any Normal Checklist
- crosscheck completion of Acceleration flow pattern
- any system reset
- application of any additional procedures
- Flight Crew to consider application of the Engine re-light procedure after an engine failure with no damage.
56
ENGINE FAIL DURING TAKE-OFF AFTER THRUST REDUCTION ALTITUDE
In case of engine failure above Thrust Reduction Altitude, crew to disregard 'LVR MCT' flashing in amber on FMA and
set thrust levers to TOGA to ensure obstacle clearance/ performance requirement.
57
In case of GA below DA/ MDA on single engine, follow
special procedure (EOSID) if published for that runway, otherwise follow missed approach procedure.
58
Passing FL200 or later, before reaching FL290 (entering RVSM airspace), flight crew must carry out
altimeter cross check of primary and standby altimeters. A verbal cross check is to be carried out between PF & PM to ensure that the difference between altitude indications is less than the tolerance specified in FCOM.
59
TOP OF CLIMB CHECKS
After 'ALT CRZ', PF will:
i) Set TA/RA below
ii) Modify cruise level SAT
iii) Carry out RVSM & RNP checks as applicable
60
Winds should be entered during Climb phase based on workload or at the earliest opportunity in Cruise. This will ensure
accurate time/fuel predictions and correct Optimum Altitude on FMS (Optimum altitude maybe different on FMS and OFP due to variation in ZFWT).
61
During departure/ arrival/ below 10000ft: avoid red areas by approximately
5 nm from the red contour edge.
62
Between 10000 & 25000ft avoid red areas by approximately ___ from the red contour edge. Above 25000 ft avoid red contoured areas by approximately ___ from the red contour edge. Areas of steep gradient, scallops, U-shape, hooks and fingers should be avoided by approximately ___ at all altitudes.
10 nm / 20 nm / 20 nm
63
Below ___ , other than tactical changes, all changes on the MCDU shall be made by the PM on PF request.
FL100
64
Position reports are to be sent at TOC/ETP/TOD via ACARS for
aircraft not equipped with ADS-B and international flights.
65
If starting of APU for EDTO verification is required, then ensure that the cold soak period corresponds to at least a 02 Hr operation at cruise level. ___ is not required to be carried out before APU start in this scenario.
APU Fire Test
66
2.1.6.3 Descent Preparation
Like all phases, ___ is recommended for descent.
ECON Mach/ Speed
67
It is recommended that the arrival briefing commence at least ___ before TOD.
10 minutes
68
The priority for obtaining weather on any domestic sector is as under, and use
i) VHF for ATIS
ii) ACARS for AOC Weather Request
iii) ACARS for ATS D-ATIS request which should only be requested:
- When Airfield ATIS is not available on VHF (arrival planning can be done by using METAR/ TAF provided at departure)
- Unfavourable weather conditions for decision making
69
The Landing Distance (LD) and Factored Landing Distance (FLD) should always be lesser than the LDA as shown in schematic below. The recommended combination is
CONF 3, autobrake LO with Rev IDLE. At the end of calculated LD aircraft would come to a full STOP;
70
The landing distance is determined from a point ___ to the aircraft coming to a full STOP using the required deceleration devices.
50 ft above the threshold
71
If a need to reduce landing distance arises, the change is recommended in the following order:
i) CONF FULL
ii) Autobrake MED
iii) REV MAX
72
Combination of 'CONF 3 with Autobrake MED and Rev IDLE' is not recommended because this combination is
a heavy contributor to thermal oxidation leading to brake wear.
73
CONF 3 should be the preferred landing configuration (with GPWS LDG CONF 3 pushbutton ON). However, CONF FULL and REV MAX shall be used when
tail wind component > 10 Kt
74
For wet / contaminated runway, ___ is preferred landing configuration.
CONF FULL and MAX REV
75
During arrival follow STAR constraints if any,
220 kts or minimum clean whichever is higher
76
During arrival follow STAR constraints if any, <10000ft AMSL
May be reduced to 210 kts by ATC subject to concurrence of pilot.
77
In Radar environment, AIP mandated speeds must be followed even if
ATC cancels speed restriction.
78
The Flight crew are to comply with AIP/ local speed restrictions at stipulated airfields.
i) < 20 nm from touchdown:
ii) on intercept leg or 12 nm from touch down (straight in approach):
iii) 10 to 5 track miles:
iv) < 5 NM:
- 180 Kt (ATC may request for 170 Kt)
- 180 to 160 kt
- 160 kt unless instructed otherwise by ATC
- No restriction
At airfields, other than Indian Metro Airports (VABB, VOMM, VIDP, VOBL, VOHS, VAAH, VECC) or in case of abnormal conditions (failure cases) follow Airbus recommended speed profile.
79
If terrain is a major threat/potential threat, call out any 'Red or Amber' terrain display on ND within
5 nm of aircraft position.
80
DECELERATED APPROACH: This is the preferred technique for an approach using vertical managed guidance. The deceleration pseudo waypoint assumes a decelerated approach technique. This technique refers to an approach where
the aircraft reaches 1000ft in landing configuration, at Vapp. In most cases, this equates to the aircraft being in minimum CONF 1 and S speed at the FDP.
81
2.1.7 Approach, Landing Preparation and Briefing
Recommended Speed, Altitude, Distance from Runway
4 Gates / Mandatory
A320
- Gate 1 Maximum Green Dot/ 210 kt below 3000ft AAL and or 15 NM
- Gate 2 Glide slope alive, maximum speed 180 kt, Minimum CONF 1.
- Gate 3 Established on glide slope, Maximum speed 160kts, Minimum CONF 2.
- Gate 4 1500ft AAL, Maximum speed 160 kt, Landing CONF and decelerating towards Vapp.
- Mandatory 1000ft AAL, Stabilized.
82
2.1.7 Approach, Landing Preparation and Briefing
Recommended Speed, Altitude, Distance from Runway
4 Gates / Mandatory
A321
- Gate 1 Maximum 210 kt below 3000ft AAL and or 15 NM
Recommended CONF 1.
- Gate 2 Glide slope alive, maximum speed 180 kt, Recommended CONF 2.
- Gate 3 Established on glide slope, Maximum speed 160kts, Minimum CONF 2.
- Gate 4 1500ft AAL, Maximum speed 160 kt, Landing CONF and decelerating towards Vapp.
- Mandatory 1000ft AAL, Stabilized.
83
EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH: The a/c leaves the Final Descent Point in a stabilized state i.e. speed down to Vapp and in landing configuration. This could be due to
low intermediate approach altitude,
vertical descent angle more than 3.5 degrees,
tail wind greater than 10 Kt or
aircraft abnormal procedure etc.
84
The benefit of a lower stabilization threshold shall not be availed by calling
'visual' while on an Instrument Approach Procedure.
85
Aircraft should be in landing configuration not later than 1500ft AAL to meet the stabilized criteria by 1000ft AAL for an instrument approach. These AAL altitudes are referenced on Baro (Landing configuration by 1500 ft is a ___ and stabilization by 1000 ft is ___).
recommendation / mandatory
86
If RADAR environment ATC requests a speed constraint that is not compatible with speed and thrust stabilization at 1000 ft AAL, a later speed and thrust stabilization is acceptable, provided that:
- The aircraft is in deceleration toward the target approach speed
- The flight crew stabilizes speed and thrust as soon as possible and not later than 500 ft AAL
87
Stabilization Parameters Requirements for Approach are:
5 Points
- Aircraft is on correct lateral and vertical flight path
- Aircraft is in the desired landing configuration
- Thrust is stabilized, usually above idle, in order to maintain target Vapp
- There is no excessive flight parameter deviation
- Landing check list completed
88
At 1000ft AAL (500ft for visual approach) PM will check above parameters and callout "Stabilized". If the approach is not stabilized, he shall call out
"1000 ft/ 500 ft unstable, Go Around"
89
SPEED BRAKES POLICY ALL APPROACHES
Speed brakes shall not be used below ___ on any approach.
1000 ft AAL
90
A320: Half speed brakes can be selected with AP engaged. The speed brakes auto retracts when
CONF FULL is selected.
91
A321: Full speed brakes can be selected with AP engaged and speed brakes auto retract when
CONF 3 or FULL is selected.
92
PF shall review the missed approach procedure at approximately ___ from touchdown, only if there is any change from the procedure discussed during the arrival briefing.
15 NM
93
The FMGS is designed to switch automatically from approach to Go Around phase when the following conditions are met.
- Aircraft in flight.
- Flap lever position 1 or higher.
- Thrust levers set to TOGA detent.
94
SRS provides managed speed guidance
to existing IAS at go around initiation (or VAPP if existing IAS is less than VAPP) until acceleration altitude, then green dot speed or as selected on FCU.
95
GO AROUND becomes active FPLN, changing from blue to
dashed green on ND. The FPLN on the MCDU changes from blue to green. Predictions are not provided in the Go around phase. NAV can be engaged by pushing the HDG knob provided the flight plan is in sequence.
96
At GA acceleration altitude:
- SRS mode switches to OP CLB
- Speed increases to GD.
97
___ climb cannot be engaged in the GA phase.
___ are not provided in the Go around phase.
Managed / Predictions
98
If the go around procedure has ALT constraints coded in the MCDU flight plan by the service provider or inserted manually, Passing the FAF, the ___ of the missed approach procedure must be set.
Initial constraint (lower)
E.g. In the event of a Go-Around from VIDP RWY 29, select 2600 ft on the FCU and not FL65.
99
Go around from an Intermediate Approach Altitude:
Below FCU selected altitude, Pilots must follow ___ , as above.
At or above FCU selected altitude, pilots may apply ___.
- 'Go-Around' procedure
- either GA procedure or Discontinue Approach Procedure
100
Rejected landing (aborted landing) or base training touch and go:
The FMGC switches from APP to DONE phase, ___ after landing.
30 secs
Therefore, in the event of a rejected landing where the wheels touch the runway and the aircraft gets airborne, the FMGC does not switch to DONE phase.
101
If the active FPLN is in sequence with the aircraft position, the approach routing including the landing routing is erased after
passing the landing threshold, leaving the missed approach procedure as the active flight plan.
102
If the active FPLN is not sequenced due to a waypoint being bypassed by more than 5NM, the waypoint and subsequent legs are
retained in the flight plan. For base training, a waypoint at a sufficient distance may be inserted so that the final course and runway are not erased.
103
When a diversion is executed for any reason, ___ as soon as possible. This enables the OCC to coordinate operational and administrative arrangements.
the PIC must use the ACARS DIVERSION page (accessible from the ENROUTE page) to down link a Diversion Report Message to OCC about the details of the diversion
104
At least ___ before landing, PA announcement shall be made as follows, "Cabin crew to your seats for landing". The confirmation of the 'Cabin Secure' is conveyed to the cockpit by the Lead Cabin crew, who shall press the hash "#" button on the CDLS keyboard.
5 min
105
The flight crew must select REV MAX, if any of the following occurs at any time during the landing:
- An emergency
- The deceleration is not as expected
- A failure affects the landing performance
- A long flare or a long touchdown
- An unexpected tailwind
106
Use of nose wheel tiller is not recommended at speeds higher than ___. Use rudder pedals for steering.
30 kt
107
After landing
During a back track on the runway, spoiler, flaps and slats may be retracted. In the event of a short taxi time to parking bay, APU may also be started during back track. However, other items of After Landing Flow shall be accomplished only after
vacating the active runway.
108
PM shall obtain Taxi instructions on Ground frequency. These will be verbalized and confirmed by PF. Both heads shall remain up to ensure taxi path clear. Only thereafter, shall PF
disarm spoilers for PM to commence after landing flow.
109
During ___, NO PED will not be turned OFF/ NO SMOKING Sign will not be recycled after landing and will remain on. The latter may also be applicable at some international airports.
LVO
110
The flight crew should operate the engines at or near idle thrust for a cooling period of
2:40 min / 3 min before engine shutdown, in order to thermally stabilize the engines.
111
2.1.13 Post Landing Procedures
SET-IN is recommended when conditions permit and is to be initiated only on completion of
'After Landing' Checklist.
112
On long, straight taxiways, and with no ATC or other ground traffic constraints, allow the aircraft to accelerate to a maximum speed of 30 kt, and then
use one smooth brake application to decelerate to 10 kt. Do not 'ride' the brakes.
113
In the event of a short turnaround (≤ 25 min) Brake fans may be switched 'ON' at least
05 min after landing or when turning into the parking bay, whichever is earlier. The delay is to allow for thermal equalization and stabilization to prevent oxidation of brake surface hot spots.
114
If brake temperatures are likely to exceed ___, brake fans must be switched on. Do not wait for a period of 05 min after landing.
500°C
115
Under normal conditions, approximately ___ prior to take-off is sufficient to bring brake temperature below 100° C with the help of brake fans, from a value of around 350° C. Hence, even for a short turnaround use of brake fans can be delayed. Minimize use of Brake Fans and use them judiciously. If Brake fans are in use at the gate and the brake temperature drops below ___, select brake fans 'off. Do not keep brake fans running when not needed as this increases the rate of oxidation.
20-25 minutes / 80° C
116
The A320 airplane is a square airplane and the geometry is such that in a locked wheel turn, the ___ travels almost the same radius as the wing tip in a locked wheel turn. However, for A321, the ___ determines the highest turning radius for the aircraft by virtue of longer fuselage.
horizontal stab
117
Disarming slides
On completion of the turn into the gate, on a straight leg, PM shall announce "Passengers please remain seated; Cabin crew disarm all slides".
Note: At this stage aircraft could still be in motion at appropriately slow speed but aligned
with the parking stand guide in line.
118
After selecting APU BLEED ON, Engine 1(2) MASTER sw is to be set to OFF after a minimum time interval of ___.
5 seconds
119
Should there be a need to evacuate, post the Disarming procedure, the Cockpit Crew should be aware that slides will have to be
'Armed" before opening of the Doors
120
In order to capture the landing record, the procedure on ACARS will be performed by the PF.
In case SEND* still does not appear, it will get automatically transmitted
10 min after IN TIME.
121
The cool-down time after high thrust operation, prior to shut down has a significant effect on engine life. In case the engine(s) have operated at high thrust setting an engine cooling time of at least ___ is to be provided before the engine is shut down for SET.
2:40 min / 3 min
122
SET is not permitted:
- Until landing runway has been vacated.
- 'After landing checklist completed
- While back tracking on the runway after landing
- During low visibility conditions (When visibility is below 400 m)
- On aprons which are small and difficult to manoeuvre; (Refer OMC for airfield specific restrictions)
123
When SET IN is not being executed OR On NEO aircraft; delay starting APU until
approaching gate
124
RECOMMENDATIONS FOR STARTING APU:
ALL BASE & TRANSIT FLIGHTS
(External Electrical Power & Air Conditioning available)
Estimated DCT-10 mins* Or If ACU/BME Conditioned-Air performance Unsatisfactory
125
RECOMMENDATIONS FOR STARTING APU:
ALL BASE & TRANSIT HALTS ≥ 60 MINS (External Electrical Power available & External Air-Conditioning NOT available)
- OAT < 25°C / STD-25
(Engineering/Pilots)
- OAT ≥ 25°C / STD-35
(Engineering)
- APU may be started earlier if passenger boarding starts and/or weather conditions so warrant.
126
ACU/BME Conditioned-Air must be disconnected before door close. However, if there is unexpected extended delay after door close, the PIC may ask for
reconnection of ACU/ BME Conditioned-Air.
127
2.1.14.6 Placement of 'Wheel Chocks ON' with APU inoperative on arrival
Signals for GPU Connection and Disconnection:
GPU CONNECTED
Hold arms fully extended above head; open left hand horizontally and move finger tips of right hand into and touch open palm of left hand (forming a "T"). At night, illuminated wands can also be used to form the "T" above head.
GPU DISCONNECTED
Hold arms fully extended above head with finger tips of right hand touching open horizontal palm of left hand (forming a "T"); then move right hand away from the left. Do not disconnect power until authorized by flight crew. At night, illuminated wands can also be used to form the "T" above head.
128
Fires are the most urgent emergencies and require immediate action. Whenever fire or smoke is reported or suspected, a thorough investigation must be made. In all cases of fire warning, it must be assumed that
a fire exists until proved otherwise.
129
A take-off is considered to have been rejected if
the thrust levers were advanced with the intention of commencing take-off and were subsequently brought to idle or reverse.
The extent to which the thrust levers were advanced is not to be considered as a factor.
130
After a reject take-off, it is mandatory that the aircraft shall
return to the bay for inspection by engineering personnel and the appropriate form(s) filled, except when the take-off was rejected due to ATC instructions before reaching speed of 100 kts (IAS).
131
The flight crew may not return to bay and consider another take-off only in the scenario when the take-off was rejected due to ATC instructions before reaching speed of 100 kts (IAS). (CVR download is not required). In case, the flight crew decides not to return to bay, after a reject take-off, and continues for another take-off it must be ensured that:
i) All aircraft parameters, including brake temperatures are within
limits.
ii) There is sufficient fuel for the flight.
iii) Reset both FDs and set FCU.
iv) Restart Standard Operating Procedures from the 'AFTER START'
checklist.
132
Experience has shown that rejected takeoffs can be hazardous even if correct
procedures are followed. Factors can be:
- Delay in performing the stopping procedure.
- Damaged tires.
- Brakes worn, brakes not working correctly, or higher than normal initial brakes temperature.
- The brakes not being fully applied.
- A runway friction coefficient lower than assumed in computations.
- An error in gross weight calculation.
- Runway line up not considered.
133
Reject Take-Off:
Importance of V1
V1 is the take-off decision speed. It is the highest speed, during takeoff, at which the flight crew has a choice between continuing the takeoff or stopping the aircraft.. If the airplane is loaded as per the performance limitations, it is only at this point that the airplane has the capability of doing either.
134
Reject Take-Off: Importance of Below V1
Below V1: the airplane may not have the capability of accelerating to the required take off speed with live engine at the take-off power and clearing screen height at 35 ft.
135
Reject Take-Off: Importance of Above V1
Above V1: The V1 call has precedence over any other call. Above V1, takeoff must be continued irrespective of any failure, because it may not be possible to stop the aircraft on the remaining runway.
136
DECISION MANAGEMENT REJECT TAKE-OFF
It is not possible to list all the factors that could lead to the decision to reject the takeoff. However, to help the PIC to decide, the ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential from
80 knots to 1500 ft, as applicable.
137
When the aircraft speed is at or above 100 knots, it may become hazardous to reject a takeoff. Therefore, when the aircraft speed approaches V1, the PIC should be
"Go-minded" if none of the main failures quoted below ("Above 100 knots and below V1") have occurred.
138
2.2.5.3 In-Flight Engine Shutdown
If a PIC selects an airport other than the nearest suitable airport in point of time, he shall on completion of the flight, submit a
'Use of Emergency Authority' report giving his reasons for determining that the selection of an airport other than the nearest in point of time was the safe course of action.
139
The Index reflects the applicability of the Technical Notice as "BEFORE or AFTER ECAM". The Index and the title use the same colour coding
- RED to indicate applicability before the ECAM actions.
- BLUE to indicate applicability after the ECAM actions.
140
Technical Notices with procedure flow only may be carried out without reference to the notice
if crew are aware of its content.
141
In case of serious emergencies warranting a diversion, the Flight Crew must consider diverting to
the nearest suitable airport.
142
"EMERGENCY DESCENT"
Note: when the seat belt sign is Switched ON; 'Return to Seat' sign will not come on in the Lavatory. The occupant must
stay inside as oxygen is available in lavatories.
143
SLOW DECOMPRESSION OR WHEN REQUESTED BY THE COCKPIT CREW
On reaching Safe Altitude (Cabin altitude 10,000 ft or below) Announce on the P.A.:
"SAFE TO REMOVE OXYGEN MASKS"
(If masks in use)
"AFTER CABIN INSPECTION, LEAD TO COCKPIT"
144
A Use of Emergency Authority report shall also be submitted to describe the following incidents which entail the use of emergency authority:
a) Landing over maximum allowable weight,
b) use of unauthorised altitude, unauthorised approach and landing,
deviation from route,
c) landing below minima
d) Any other use of emergency authority.
145
Situations that are not normally regarded as so serious as to justify the
declaring of an emergency may require a precautionary non-scheduled
landing. This includes:
i) A malfunction indication when all other items are verified as normal and the airplane is not judged to be in danger.
ii) Any malfunction that does not affect the safety of the airplane and which, in the PIC's opinion, requires a return for maintenance action/ inspection before the flight is continued to destination.
iii) In case of in-flight medical emergency, the cabin and cockpit crew must immediately determine if a diversion be made to preserve the life of the passenger. If a qualified doctor is available on board, his advice must be sought.
146
As soon as the PIC has declared an Emergency, the following actions shall be implemented.
a) ATC should be given, as soon as possible, a full description of the situation, including: flight number, position, nature of emergency, Pilot's intentions, assistance required, fuel on board, number of persons on board and type and location of dangerous goods on board. In case of fire which is not under control, the speed and track of the airplane should be given to ATC by the PIC.
b) Request crash, fire & rescue vehicles to be positioned beside the landing runway.
147
When it is determined that a precautionary landing is desirable, an airplane in such a situation has
no normal ATC priority or special right of way over the other airplane. The Airport Authority will not position the crash, fire and rescue vehicles by the runway.
148
In a calm sea the touch down should be
made into wind. A ditching into the face of a big swell will bring with it violent deceleration and must never be attempted.
149
TECHNIQUE FOR ALIGHTING IN WATER
DO NOT stall or drop the airplane into the water from a height.
DO NOT hold the nose too high.
DO NOT attempt a ditching at high speed.
DO NOT allow a wing to go down at the moment of ditching.
DO NOT keep the wing down when correcting for drift.
DO NOT fly into the face of a large wave or rising swell.
150
Airplane tyres should not remain in contact with flush-set runway lights for long periods when the airplane is stationary. Damage can occur after a period of
one minute
151
The effectiveness of a runway foam carpet is reduced because this foam, the best available agent, does not retain its bulk and the water quickly subsides and drains away. In view of the above
the foaming of a runway during emergencies, abnormal operation is not recommended by the Airline. (RFFS category for A320 is 6, A321 is 7)
152
The PIC/ Trainer shall ensure that when passengers and/ or Cargo are carried, in flight simulation of emergency or abnormal situation is ___.
prohibited
153
In the event of malfunctioning or failure of equipment considered necessary for completion of a planned flight, PIC are ___ to land in excess of the maximum permitted landing weight (Refer FCOM-LIM-AG-WGHT).
authorized / In these exceptional cases (involving in flight turn back or diversion), the pilot should follow the overweight landing procedure.
The PIC should also record overweight landing in the PDR.
154
An overweight landing must not be done for
purely commercial reasons. If predictions show a possible landing above MLW, fuel must be burnt off to ensure compliance.
155
The design of many airplanes is such that the path of the wing tips, engines and other extremities
cannot always be monitored visually from the flight deck while the airplane is on the ground.
156
ANNOUNCEMENT FROM COCKPIT
In turbulence when cabin Crew are required to be seated. Cabin Crew return to your seats, seat belts required.
Passengers and cabin crew to your seats immediately. Seat belts Required.
157
ANNOUNCEMENT FROM COCKPIT
- Decompression scenario
- At 10000 ft
- Post Decompression scenario
- Emergency Descent
- Safe to remove oxygen mask.
- After cabin inspection Lead to cockpit.
158
If time is short, for NITES Briefing on intercom
Press-EMER call PB
159
ANNOUNCEMENT FROM COCKPIT
Lithium Battery Fire in the Flight Deck
Safety unit to cockpit
160
In case of Ditching, the command ___ will not be given by Cockpit Crew as evacuation is inevitable.
"Attention Crew at Stations"
161
The maximum demonstrated crosswind published in the AFM and FCOM is the crosswind component that was encountered and documented during certification or test flights. The maximum demonstrated crosswind:
a) Is not the operating limit
b) Is not the maximum aircraft crosswind capability
162
The maximum crosswind value that the flight crew should retain is the one corresponding to the worse Braking Performance Level. This means
that if the flight crew downgrades the braking performance assessment after considering additional information, they should also downgrade maximum crosswind value.
163
5.2.1 A320/ 321
Maximum recommended crosswind Limitations for take-off and landing are given FCOM LIM AG OPS. However, the Company limitations are as under:
DRY/6
- PIC, U/T PIC : 25 kts (Gusting to 35)
- PIC with restricted Minima (Conditional release) : 25 kts (Gusting to 35)
- First Officers with STL Clearance : 10 kts
164
5.2.1 A320/ 321
Maximum recommended crosswind Limitations for take-off and landing are given FCOM LIM AG OPS. However, the Company limitations are as under:
GOOD/5
- PIC, U/T PIC : 25 kts (Gusting to 35)
- PIC with restricted Minima (Conditional release) : 15 kts (Gusting to 25)
165
5.2.1 A320/ 321
Maximum recommended crosswind Limitations for take-off and landing are given FCOM LIM AG OPS. However, the Company limitations are as under:
GOOD TO MEDIUM/4
- PIC, U/T PIC : 25 kts (Gust Included)
- PIC with restricted Minima (Conditional release) : 15 kts (Gust Included)
166
5.2.1 A320/ 321
Maximum recommended crosswind Limitations for take-off and landing are given FCOM LIM AG OPS. However, the Company limitations are as under:
MEDIUM/3
- PIC, U/T PIC : 20 kts (Gust Included)
- PIC with restricted Minima (Conditional release) : 15 kts (Gust Included)
167
5.2.1 A320/ 321
Maximum recommended crosswind Limitations for take-off and landing are given FCOM LIM AG OPS. However, the Company limitations are as under:
Medium to Poor/2
- PIC, U/T PIC : 15 kts (Gust Included)
- PIC with restricted Minima (Conditional release) : Not permitted
168
The following shall be used as tailwind Limitations for take-off and landing:
FCOM LIM-AG-OPS
- First Officers with STL Clearance, U/T First Officers : 10 kts
169
5.3 MAXIMUM WIND CONDITIONS FOR CAT II OR CAT III AUTOMATIC APPROACH, LANDING AND ROLL OUT
Wind limitation is based on the surface wind reported by the tower. If the wind displayed on the ND exceeds the above-noted Auto Land limitations, but the tower reports surface wind within the limitations, then the Autoland can be
continued. If the tower reports a surface wind beyond the limitations, only a CAT I automatic approach without Auto Land can be performed.
170
8.2 AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE-BROADCAST (ADS-B)
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) involves the transmission of specific data messages from aircraft systems. These data messages are broadcasted at approximately ___ intervals and received at compatible ground stations that relay these messages to Air Traffic Services Units).
0.5 second
171
8.2.5 Operations of Mode S Transponder and ADS-B
When the Air Traffic Controller requests to stop transmitting ADS-B OUT surveillance data or altitude (e.g., when she/he requests "STOP ADS-B TRANSMISSION" or "STOP ADS-B ALTITUDE TRANSMISSION"), flight crew should not switch off the ATC transponder or the altitude reporting, in order to maintain
TCAS operations or Air Traffic Controller radar surveillance.
172
Aircraft Address (24 Bit Code)
ICAO 24-bit aircraft address is a ___, alphanumeric identification code which is programmed into each specific aircraft's Mode S transponder during installation.
six-character
173
Since IndiGo fleet does not have an independent Flight Deck Control selection between the ADS-B function (ADS-B on/off) and the ATC transponder function, the crew must be fully aware that disabling the ADS B function will also lead to
disable the ACAS function.
174
As a part of ECAM handling procedure, System Resets form an important feature. After TAXI OUT Only the systems listed in ___ are permitted to be reset.
QRH SYSTEM RESET TABLE
175
In case of (O): Apply (O) procedure. If conditions are met continue with flight.
In case of (M):
PIC has the discretion to apply FCOM abnormal procedures and continue with the flight. Alternately return to Bay.
176
Limitations due to MEL condition that the pilots must consider for the route selection and flight preparation:
a) Landing Capabilities (CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT 3 DUAL)
b) Required Navigation Performance (RNP)
c) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)
177
Emergency evacuations can be classified into two different types:
a) Unplanned Emergency = No time to prepare [Fire on the ground, rejected take off, skidding off the runway, bomb on board.]
b) Planned Emergency = More or less time to prepare [Fire, structural damage, bomb.]
178
Many factors contribute to the successful evacuation of the aircraft:
- Procedural knowledge of the cabin crew
- Environment inside and outside of the aircraft
- Passengers' behavior, age, level of fitness and motivation
- Aircraft configuration and the layout of the cabin
- Time available for preparation if planned emergency.
179
Life Threatening Situation is:
Situation like Uncontrollable Fire, Severe structural Damage, Dense smoke and Ditching that warrants an immediate evacuation.
180
An EMER call from the cabin crew on ground implies that
there is a perceived life threatening situation in the cabin and the PIC must respond immediately. Else an EVAC command from the cabin will be initiated by the Cabin crew. Failing which an EVAC command from the cabin is a signal of Evacuation being initiated by the Cabin crew.
181
Automation Levels and their Management
Automation Level '0'
Auto Pilot FDs FPV Auto Thrust OFF OFF OFF OFF
[Practice Prohibited / Practiced only in Simulator (Raw data, Pitch & N1), e.g. Unreliable ASI/ BUSS]
182
Automation Levels and their Management Automation Level '1'
Auto Pilot FDs FPV Auto Thrust OFF OFF ON OFF
Permitted during:
All flights where PIC is a Trainer:
> except for JFO SLF training
> Minimum experience of second pilot to be 300 hours on type (after release).
183
Automation Levels and their Management Automation Level '2A'
Auto Pilot FDs FPV Auto Thrust
OFF OFF ON ON
Permitted during:
- Permitted on all flights where PIC is a Trainer.
- Permitted on all line flights with minimum experience:
PIC as PF / PIC not with restricted minima
PIC as PM / First Officer: 1000 hours & STL cleared
184
Automation Levels and their
Management Automation Level '2B'
Auto Pilot FDs FPV Auto Thrust
ON ON N/A OFF
Permitted during:
Permitted on all flights where PIC is a Trainer.
185
Automation Levels and their
Management Automation Level '3'
Auto Pilot FDs FPV Auto Thrust
OFF ON N/A ON
Permitted on all flights.
186
Automation Levels and their
Management Automation Level '4'
Auto Pilot FDs FPV Auto Thrust
ON ON N/A ON
Default Level. Permitted on all flights.
187
Manual flying using lower levels of automation must not be exercised if the following threats are identified during the briefing:
- Weather (Adverse weather or Low visibility)
- Fatigue
- Unfamiliarity (Knowledge and experience of the operating environment airport, air traffic control etc.)
- Traffic congestion
188
Lower levels of automation to exercise manual flying must only be performed if
discussed during the Departure/Arrival Briefing.
189
Lower Automation Levels are only to be practiced below
10,000 ft. except in case of failures/ MEL dispatch requiring such levels.
For approaches; Selection of these levels is to be accomplished during low work load conditions and preferably well before intercepting LOC/ Final Approach track.
190
Levels 1, 2A and 2B are NOT permitted for departure/ arrival/ approach at
VIDN, VIJU, VISR, VEBD, VEPT, VOCL, VOPB, VOVZ, VEGT, VOCB and all International Airports irrespective of prevailing traffic/ weather conditions.
191
FDs shall not be selected OFF to practice
'No FDs Take-Off' (MEL dispatch with no FDs is permitted)
192
Standard visual Circuit patterns and radar vectored visual circuit could be practiced under the following conditions:
- Traffic density/ ATC permission
- Visibility minima as laid down by SOP (not below that for a
NPA for that runway or 3200m, whichever is higher)
- Cloud ceiling not below MSA and no significant cloud at or
below standard circuit height of 1500ft AAL.
- Pilot familiar with the airfield.
- As per SOP, Auto Pilot and FDs would be switched OFF and
FPV (Bird) selected ON
- Wind limitation as per SOP.
- Flight crew are advised to back up the visual approach with
ILS approach indications, if available, for that runway. This is
to ensure that aircraft is aligned to the active runway and
correct profile is being flown.
- A thorough briefing must be carried out on planned
execution, including how and where the visual circuit pattern
is planned to be intercepted.
193
For SET-OUT & SET-IN: either ___ can Taxi the aircraft.
CM1 or CM2
194
No restriction of minimum ___ requirement by PIC for SET-OUT.
100hrs
195
The DUAL COOLING function becomes available when
the required cooling times of both engines is displayed.
196
In case of ___ , the engine might need cooling again and the same must be catered for in the engine start time.
extended Taxi time (>20min)
