Compre CC

Question 1

Interfere with metabolic processes, when ingested, inhaled or absorbed through the skin. (Example: cyanide, sulfides)

Answer 1

Toxic substances

Question 2

Capable of causing of cancer. (Example: benzidine, formaldehyde)

Answer 2

Carcinogens

Question 3

Induce genetic mutations

Answer 3

Mutagens

Question 4

Cause defect in embryo.

Answer 4

Teratogens

Question 5

Causes fire.
Example: (acetone, xylene, alcohols, ether)

Answer 5

Ignitables

Question 6

May cause explosion. Mixture of oxidizing agents and reducing agents generate heat and explode.
(Ex. Ether, perchloric acid, picric acid, sodium azide)

Answer 6

Reactives

Question 7

Have ground, polarity an leakage checks and other periodic preventive maintenance performed on outlets and equipments.

Answer 7

Electrical

Question 8

Danger of fire, explosion, asphyxiation, or mechanical injuries.

Answer 8

Compressed gases

Question 9

Danger of fire, explosion, asphyxiation, pressure build-up, embrittlement of materials and tissue damage like thermal burns.

Answer 9

Cryogenic material

Question 10

Refers to equipments such as centrifuge, autoclaves and homogenizers, laboratory glasswares, glass pipes.

Answer 10

Mechanicals

Question 11

Refers to the effect of repeated manipulation of instruments, containers, equipments for repetitive stains such as tenpsynovitis, bursitis, and ganglion cyst

Answer 11

Ergonomic

Question 12

Sterilizing only the air to be exhausted.
They have negative pressure.
Air is ventilated to the outside and operated with an open front.

Answer 12

Class I

Question 13

Sterilizes air the flows over the infectious material as well as air to be exhausted.
Also known as vertical laminar flow type.

Answer 13

Class II

Question 14

It is self contained and it has 70% air recirculated.

Answer 14

Class IIA

Question 15

Exhaust the air is discharged outside the building.
It is selected if radioisotopes, toxic chemicals, or carcinogens will be used.

Answer 15

Class II B

Question 16

Completely enclosed and have negative pressure.
It affords the most protection to the worker.
The air is coming in and out of the cabinet is filter sterilized.
Infectious material within is handled with rubber gloves that are attached and sealed to the cabinet.

Answer 16

Class III

Question 17

Visible destruction of human tissue on contact.
Can cause injury on inhalation or contact.
Example: GAA, HCL, H2SO4, HNO3, NAOH

Answer 17

Corrosives

Question 18

NFPA?

Answer 18

National Fire Protection Association

Question 19

Ordinary combustibles: paper, cloth, wood, plastic, rubbish.
Fire extinguisher: Pressurize water, Dry chem basically, steam

Answer 19

Class A

Question 20

Flammable liquids (inorganic chemicals), gasolines, paints
Fire extinguisher: dry chemicals, carbon dioxide, foam, halon

Answer 20

Class B

Question 21

Electrical equipment and motor switches
Fire extinguisher: dry chemicals, carbon dioxide, halon - preferred

Answer 21

Class C

Question 22

Combustible metals: mercury, magnesium, sodium, lithium
Fire extinguisher: metal x, sand or dry powder, dry chemical

Answer 22

Class D

Question 23

Detonation (Arsenal fire)
Fire extinguisher: allowed to burn out, protecting surrounding area

Answer 23

Class E

Question 24

Grease, oil, fats
Fire Extinguisher: liquid designed to prevent splashing and cool the fire.

Answer 24

Class K

Question 25

Best type of all-purpose fire extinguisher

Answer 25

CO2 foam

Question 26

Blue diamond

Answer 26

Health

Question 27

Red diamond

Answer 27

Flammability

Question 28

Yellow diamond

Answer 28

Instability

Question 29

White diamond

Answer 29

Special hazards

Question 30

All laboratory processes, policies, procedures, and resources needed to achieve quality testing.

Answer 30

Quality system

Question 31

Process by which laboratory ensures the quality results by monitoring pre analytical, analytical, post analytical stages of testing.

Answer 31

Quality assessment/assurance

Question 32

Part of analytical phase of QA Process of monitoring results from samples to verify accuracy of patient results.

Answer 32

Quality control

Question 33

Concerned with total quality management (TQM), quality assessment, or continuous quality improvement each of which is designed to monitor and improve the quality.

Answer 33

Internal Monitoring Programs

Question 34

Are structured frameworks for ensuring the consistency in the quality of products and services to meet user or costumer needs.

Answer 34

Quality management system (QMS)

Question 35

Characteristics of good quality control: CRILNN

Answer 35

Concentration of analytes reflects to the clinical range Resembles to the human sample Inexpensive and stable for long period of time Long-term stability No communicable diseases No matrix effects

Question 36

What are the possible solutions for QC problems? 4RPC

Answer 36

Retest the control again after mixing Repeat the control using a new vial or lot number Recalibrate the assay Replace the reagents Perform the necessary maintenance Consult the troubleshooting guide, supervisor or service representative

Question 37

The most commonly used Often called as average

Answer 37

Mean

Question 38

The middle point of the data Often used with skewed data

Answer 38

Median

Question 39

This is rarely used and more often used to describe data that seem to have two centers (bimodal)

Answer 39

Mode

Question 40

Largest value in the data minus the smallest value

Answer 40

Range

Question 41

Average distance of values away from the mean

Answer 41

Standard of Deviation

Question 42

Standard deviation of the data set is divided by the mean

Answer 42

Coefficient of variance

Question 43

Average distance of squared values away from the mean

Answer 43

Variance

Question 44

Shows the distribution of values by plotting the assay values obtained in the x-axis and the number of times each value was seen in the y-axis. Spread of data in which elements are distributed symmetrically around the mean with most values close to the center.

Answer 44

Gaussian distribution

Question 45

Refers to the sharp rise to the cluster of values at peak of the curve and then the gradual tailing off to the higher values in the population.

Answer 45

Non-Gaussian distribution

Question 46

Statistical test that makes no assumption about the distribution of data. Non-parametric methods rank the reference data in order of increasing size. This is also the recommended analysis for the most reference range intervals. Ex: Mann-Whitney test, Wilcoxon-Signed rank test, Krystal-Wallis test, Friedman test, Chi-square test, Spearman Rank of order correlation

Answer 46

Non parametric method

Question 47

Statistical test that assumes the observed values, or some mathematical transformation of those values, follow (normal) Gaussian distribution. Ex: T-test, F-test, ANOVA, Correlation, Linear Regression

Answer 47

Parametric methods

Question 48

This most widely used chart in the clinical laboratory. A graphic presentation of all acceptable limits of variation in the results of an analytical method

Answer 48

Shewhart/Levey-Jennings chart

Question 49

Easily identifies random and systematic errors. A graph that can be done without using a computer.

Answer 49

Shewhart/Levey-Jennings chart

Question 50

Control the values that either increase or decrease for six consecutive days.

Answer 50

Trend

Question 51

Control the values that distribute themselves on one side of the mean for six consecutive days.

Answer 51

Shift

Question 52

Control the values that are far from the main set of values.

Answer 52

Outliers

Question 53

Lines that drawn from the means of both levels across the graph dividing it into four equal quadrants. Graphical method to analyze inter-laboratory data, where all laboratories have analyzed two samples. The plot visualizes within the laboratory variability as well as between laboratory variability

Answer 53

Tonks-Youden/Twin plot

Question 54

Calculates the algebraic difference between the QC and the target means Common method is V-mask Very sensitive to small persistent errors that commonly occur in the modern, low calibration-frequency analyzer

Answer 54

Cumulative Sum (CUSUM) graph

Question 55

1 control value outside/exceeds +-2SD from the mean

Answer 55

12s

Question 56

1 control value the outside/exceeds +-3SD from the mean.

Answer 56

13s

Question 57

2 consecutive control values outside/exceed the same limit or +-2SD from the mean on the same side.

Answer 57

22s

Question 58

2 consecutive control values differ by >4SD or the numerical difference between 2 control values within the same run exceeds 4SD

Answer 58

R4s

Question 59

4 consecutive control values outside/exceed the same limit or +-1SD from the mean on the same side

Answer 59

41s

Question 60

10 consecutive control on the same side of the mean

Answer 60

10x

Question 61

Test that are very simple or pose no reasonable risk of harm to the patient if the test is performed incorrectly Performed indicators: accuracy, precision, and portable range

Answer 61

Waived tests

Question 62

Complex tests that require skill to perform and interpret and are therefore regulated. Performance indicators: accuracy, precision, analytical sensitivity and specificity, reportable range

Answer 62

Non-waived tests