Comprehensive Exam Flashcards by Ashelynn Birch

Peristalsis is:

progressive, involuntary movements
inflammation of mucosa
the act of swallowing
a tortuous dilatation

progressive, involuntary movements

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Reflux esophagitis is:

progressive, involuntary movements
inflammation of mucosa
the act of swallowing
a tortuous dilatation

inflammation of mucosa

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Deglutition is:

progressive, involuntary movements
inflammation of mucosa
the act of swallowing
a tortuous dilatation

the act of swallowing

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Varix is:

progressive, involuntary movements
inflammation of mucosa
the act of swallowing
a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects

a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects

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Which of the following is/are correct concerning the Parotid gland:
1. it is the smallest of the salivary glands
2. it is located under and in front of the ears
3. it is associated with Wharton’s duct

2 only
2 and 3
1 and 3
1 only

2 only

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Wharton’s duct is:

the main sublingual duct
associated with the submandibular gland
associated with parotid gland
sublingual ducts that open around tongue

associated with the submandibular gland

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Ducts of Rivinus is:

submandibular ducts that drain into the mouth
associated with the submandibular gland
associated with parotid gland
sublingual ducts that open around tongue

sublingual ducts that open around tongue

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Stenson’s duct is:

the main sublingual duct
associated with the submandibular gland
associated with parotid gland
sublingual ducts that open around tongue

associated with parotid gland

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In the tomographic study of the pharynx and larynx, you would ask the patient to make which sound during the exposure:

h-h-h
o-o-o
e-e-e
z-z-z

e-e-e

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Cleft palate studies are done to:

demonstrate the vocal cords and their size and shape
visualize foreign bodies
visualize the range of motion of the soft palate and the position of the tongue during different phonations
visualize the movement of the epiglottis

visualize the range of motion of the soft palate and the position of the tongue during different phonations

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Which of the following is a function of the pharynx:

for deglutition
for passage of food
for passage of air
for sound resonance

all of the above

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The entrance to the larynx is guarded by the:

glottis
epiglottis
glossoepiglottic fold
piriform recess

epiglottis

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Dysphagia is:

a pouch or sac of lining membrane
a narrowing or a body passageway or opening
difficultly in swallowing
failure of peristalsis and relaxation of cardia

difficultly in swallowing

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Stenosis is the:

pouch or sac of lining membrane
narrowing of a body passageway or opening
inability to swallow
failure of peristalsis and relaxation of cardia

narrowing of a body passageway or opening

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Achalasia is the:

pouch or sac of lining membrane
narrowing or a body passageway or opening
inability to swallow
failure of peristalsis and relaxation of the sphincter

inability to swallow

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Diverticulum is the:

pouch or sac of lining membrane
narrowing or a body passageway or opening
inability to swallow
failure of peristalsis and relaxation of the sphincter

pouch or sac of lining membrane

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The parathyroid glands control what?

Thyroid hormones
Heart rate
Calcium levels
Thyroxine (T3)

Calcium levels

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What is the normal state of the cricopharyngeus muscle?

Contracted
Relaxed
Spasm
None of the above

Relaxed

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What is the primary distal attachment point of the pharynx?

Larynx
Epiglottis
Lower esophageal sphincter
Esophagus

Esophagus

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What is the reason for taking “control” images before the start of the sialography exam?

Look for radio-opaque calculi.
To visualize Stensen’s duct.
To find the salivary glands.
Look for sialadentis.

Look for radio-opaque calculi.

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What is the term for an infected pharyngeal tonsil?

Von Ebner’s gland.
Sublingualitis.
Calcitonin.
Adenoid.

Adenoid.

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What are the main spot film views used in sialography?

Tangential and Lateral.
AP and SMV.
Lateral oblique and Townes.
No spot films, only fluoroscopy.

Tangential and Lateral.

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Another name for the gastric folds is:

Cardia
Rugae
Pylora
Angula

Rugae

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If the kidneys are not a primary concern.What is the reason for performing an upright abdomen as a PA projection as opposed to an AP projection

Easier to assess the gastroesophageal junction.
Its easier for the patient to hang on to the wall bucky.
Better view of the fundus.
Less dose to the gonads

Less dose to the gonads

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The superior portion of the stomach is: - cardia - pyloric portion - body - fundus

fundus

Continuous with the duodenum is: - cardia - pyloric portion - body - fundus

pyloric portion

The largest portion of the stomach is: - cardia - pyloric portion - body - fundus

body

Continuous with the esophagus is: - cardia - pyloric portion - body - fundus

cardia

When obtaining projections of the stomach on a hypersthenic patient, which of the following may be necessary to assure inclusion of all pertinent anatomy: 1. Adjusting CR to enter at a higher level than for the sthenic patient 2. Adjusting CR to enter at a lower level than for the sthenic patient 3. Adjusting the image receptor to a crosswise orientation - 2 only - 2 and 3 - 1 and 3 - 1 only

1 and 3

In the stomach, the narrowing of the lumen is called: - gastritis - pyloric stenosis - pylorospasm - Antrumitis

pyloric stenosis

Inflammation of the stomach is called: - gastritis - pyloric stenosis - pylorospasm

gastritis

You are positioning an average sized patient for oblique projections of the stomach. The CR should enter at the level of: - L3/L4 - L4/L5 - T12/L1 - L1/L2

L1/L2

To avoid retention of food in the stomach, and upper gastrointestinal contrast study should not be performed for at least: - 10 to 12 hours after last food and water - there is no preparation required - 8 to 9 hours after last food and water - 4 to 5 hours after last food and water

8 to 9 hours after last food and water

Compression projections of the stomach are useful for: - demonstration of small mucosal lesions - preventing contrast from leaving stomach - creating a double contrast effect - moving obstructions

all of the above

During an upper gastrointestinal procedure the radiologist adjusts the table into a slight Trendelenburg position. What is the purpose of this adjustment in patient and table position: - to smooth out the gastric serosa - to evaluate for a hiatal hernia - to best demonstrate the cardiac sphincter - to demonstrate esophageal varices

to evaluate for a hiatal hernia

What is the principle advantage of the double-contrast method over the single-contrast method in upper gastrointestinal procedures: - the contrast will pass easier - no patient preparation is necessary for double-contrast studies - the double-contrast is more comfortable - smaller lesions are more obvious

smaller lesions are more obvious

The right border of the stomach is called the: - angular notch - sulcus intermedius - greater curvature - lesser curvature

lesser curvature

The hand-held compression paddle is often placed under which anatomical part during an upper gastrointestinal procedure: - body - pylorus - duodenal bulb - distal esophagus

duodenal bulb

In which of the following positions does the stomach move superiorly and to the left, and in most cases, the pyloric end raising to spill barium into the fundic and cardiac portions: - Upright - Lateral - Supine - Prone

Supine & Prone

When performing a double-contrast study of the stomach, what is the best way to assure that the barium is coating the mucosal lining: - take all upright projections - roll the patient from side to side - ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver - place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

roll the patient from side to side

Reflux esophagitis is: - progressive, involuntary movements - inflammation of mucosa - the act of swallowing - a tortuous dilatation

inflammation of mucosa

Varix is: - progressive, involuntary movements - inflammation of mucosa - the act of swallowing - a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects

a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects

According to Merrill's, for the RAO or LPO projections of the esophagus, what is the degree of angle needed for the patient? - 45 to 60 degrees from Ap - 60 to 75 degrees from Ap - 35 to 40 degrees from Ap - 15 to 20 degrees from Ap

35 to 40 degrees from Ap

The mucosal lining in the lower esophagus changes to a mucosal lining similar to that found in the stomach. What condition causes this? - a Presbyesophagus - reflux esophagitis - a Barrett's esophagus - an esophageal web

a Barrett's esophagus

Diverticulum is the: - pouch or sac of lining membrane - narrowing or a body passageway or opening - inability to swallow - failure of peristalsis and relaxation of the sphincter

pouch or sac of lining membrane

Which projection allows a wider space for an unobstructed image of the esophagus between the vertebrae and the heart: - AP - Lateral - RAO - LAO

RAO

When positioning a patient for the lateral projection of the esophagus, you would direct the CR to: - the level of T10-T11 - the level of T5 -T6 - the level of T3-T4 - the level of T8-T9

the level of T5 -T6

After positioning the patient for a RAO projection of the esophagus, how do you adjust the CR: - it should enter approximately 2 inches lateral to the midsagittal plane - it should enter along the coronal plane - it should enter approximately 2 inches medial to the midsagittal plane - it should enter at the midsagittal plane

it should enter approximately 2 inches lateral to the midsagittal plane

Which of the following is NOT general evaluation criteria for all projections of the esophagus: - there will be adequate penetration of the contrast - the ribs posterior to the vertebrae will be superimposed - the esophagus will be filled or partially filled with contrast - the esophagus will be visualized from the lower part of the neck to its entrance into the stomach

the ribs posterior to the vertebrae will be superimposed

According to Merrill's, the PA oblique for hiatal hernia is called the ___________ method. - Compression - Valsalva - Wolf - Bi phasic

Wolf

The small bowel starts at the junction of what 2 structures? - Duodenum and jejunum. - Stomach antrum and duodenum. - Body of the stomach and duodenum. - Pyloric sphincter and duodenum.

Pyloric sphincter and duodenum.

Which of the following conditions benefits the most by using a water soluable contrast agent? - Varices - Hernias - Diverticulum - Perforation

Perforation

The patient position that best demonstrates the rectum and distal sigmoid portion of the colon is: - Lateral - AP Upright - LPO - RPO

Lateral

The small bowel attaches to the large intestine at what point? - Appendix - Ascending colon - Ileocecal valve - Jejunum

Ileocecal valve

The duodenojejunal flexure is supported by what structure? - Small bowel mesentary. - Right colic flexure. - Hepatic flexure. - Ligament of Treitz.

Ligament of Treitz.

Intussusception of the bowel is: - A sac or pouch on the walls of the colon - The slipping of one part of the intestine into another - A form of colitis - A twisting of the bowel upon itself

The slipping of one part of the intestine into another

Which of the following is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen: - Jejunum - Cecum - Splenic flexure - Transverse duodenum

Splenic flexure

The loops within the ileum are called? - Kerckring folds - Ampulla - Sulci - Gyri

Gyri

The segmented appearance of the colon on a radiograph is know as: - Haustra - Phylospasms - Lumen - Rugal folds

Haustra

The radiographic projection which best demonstrates the transverse colon is: - A right anterior oblique - An AP/PA projection - A 350 cephalad tube tilt - A lateral view

An AP/PA projection

When performing enteroclysis, the catheter is places in what part of the small bowel? - Distal ileum - Distal duodenum - Distal jejunum - Proximal cecum

Distal duodenum

When inserting an enema tip into the rectum what direction does the tip take? - Anterior for 3-4 inches, then upward - Straight in toward the hypogastric region - Along the rectal canal - Toward the umbilicus for 4-5 inches

Along the rectal canal

A complete obstruction of the G.I. tract may be ruled out: - When the pain is centered on the right side - If reflux into the ileum is apparent - If gas appears in the rectum - When the patient is not nauseated

If gas appears in the rectum

Which is the most superior: - Anus - Transverse colon - Ascending colon - Cecum

Transverse colon

Gas within the small bowel is normal for which type of patient(s)? - Patients with appendicitis - Hyposthenic patients - Asthenic patients - Infant and small children

Infant and small children

When performing an air-contrast large intestine exam, the radiographic position/projection which best demonstrates the "up" or medial side of the ascending colon and the lateral side of the descending colon is: - A right anterior oblique - An anteroposterior projection - A 35 degree cephalic tube angle - A right lateral decubitus

A right lateral decubitus

In a normal patient, the portion of the colon located most superiorly is the: - Splenic flexure - Rectum - Cecum - Hepatic flexure

Splenic flexure

If untreated, Celiac disease eventually causes malabsorbtion of nutrients because of what mechanism? - Wheat husks are not digested by the stomach - Inflammation causes atrophy of intestinal villi. - Lack of bile from the gallbladder - Reflux of gastic juices

Inflammation causes atrophy of intestinal villi.

When performing a small bowel series, transit time images are performed periodically until the oral contrast reaches the ____________, at which time the exam is completed. - Ileum - Jejunum - Cecum - Sigmoid colon

Cecum

When examining the colon, which of the following will be demonstrated with the patient in a Lateral position? - Cecum - Splenic flexure - Hepatic flexure - Rectum and rectosigmoid

Rectum and rectosigmoid

When examining the colon, which of the following will be demonstrated with the patient in a Chassard-Lapine position? - Rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid - Splenic flexure - Hepatic flexure - Cecum

Rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid

When performing an UGI or colon study an initial KUB is performed. Which item is not assessed on the initial film? - Aortic aneurysm - Dialated bowel - Lithiasis - Ulcerative colitis - Foreign bodies

Ulcerative colitis

Which one of these is NOT an advantage of using a water soluble media for the examination of the G.I. tract? - Good delineation of the colon - In adults, it acts as a lubricant to reduce intussusception - Not subject to drying or flaking - The transit time from injection to colonic filling is fast, 3-4 hours

In adults, it acts as a lubricant to reduce intussusception

An inflammation of the bowel is known as: - Diverticulitis - Intussusception - Colitis - Appendicitis

Colitis

KUB stands for what? - Keep Upright Bowel - Keckring Upper Bowel - Kidneys, Ureter, Bowel - Kidneys, Ureter, Bladder

Kidneys, Ureter, Bladder

The Chassard-Lapine Method (Axial Projection) is used to visualize what 3 parts of the large intestine? - Rectum, rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid. - Cecum, jejunum and ileum. - Descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum - Ascending colon, transverse colon and descending colon

Rectum, rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid.

The definition of lithiasis is: - Formation in consecretions of calculi in the body - Absence of bilirubin in the blood - An abnormal discoloration of urine due to an obstruction in the gallbladder - Rhythmic contractions of the cystic duct

Formation in consecretions of calculi in the body

A function of the gallbladder is: - Formation of bile - To secrete enzymes that digest food in the small intestine - To evacuate bile during digestion - To secrete cholecystokinin to induce liver action

To evacuate bile during digestion

On a hypersthenic patient, the gallbladder will be located: - away from the spine and low in the abdomen - away from the spine and high in the abdomen - near the spine and high in the abdomen - near the spine and low in the abdomen

away from the spine and high in the abdomen

The lateral decubitus position for the gallbladder is used to: - Demonstrate the cystic duct more clearly - Demonstrate the mobility of the gallbladder - Identify the concentration of contrast media - Demonstrate stratification of calculi

Demonstrate stratification of calculi

The head of the pancreas extends to the: - Hilum of spleen - Inferior pole of right kidney - Antrum of the stomach - "C" loop of the duodenum

"C" loop of the duodenum

The sphincter of Oddi controls which of the following: - Collum - Infundibulum - Common bile duct - Hepatic duct

Common bile duct & Hepatic duct

T-tube cholangiography is done: - After surgery - For diagnosis of jaundice - For diagnosis for calcification within the pancreas - Before surgery

After surgery

Which of the following allows for the stratification of stones within the gallbladder? - Upright and lateral decubitus - Lateral and A.P. supine - R.P.O. and lateral decubitus - Supine A.P. erect

Upright and lateral decubitus

The ampulla of Vater is formed by the union of the pancreatic duct and the: - Common bile duct - Duodenum - Cystic duct - Common hepatic duct

Common bile duct

Which of the ducts allows fluid to travel in both directions? - Right Hepatic Duct. - Cystic Duct. - Common Hepatic Duct. - Common Bile Duct.

Cystic Duct.

Bile produced by the liver has what purpose in the digestive tract? - Controls the contraction of the sphincter of oddi. - Reduces cholesterol in the duodenum. - Increases pH levels to neutralize acid from the stomach. - Digestion of lipids.

Digestion of lipids.

A cholangiogram is used primarily to visualize the: - The gallbladder - Spiral valves of Heister - Duodenum - Bile ducts

Bile ducts

The hormone which activates the muscular contractions of the gallbladder is: - Insulin - Cholecibum - Cholecystokinin - Chyme

Cholecystokinin

Which contrast agent is normally used for upper GI series? - High Osmolality iodine contrast - Low Osmolality iodine contrast - Thin barium sulfate - Gastrografin

Thin barium sulfate

What is the Porta Hepatis? - Portion of the liver in which only the hepatic ducts enter and leave the liver. - Portion of the liver in which the ducts and vascular structures enter and leave the liver. - Portion of the liver in which only the nerves and blood supply enter and leave the liver. - Curvature of the liver in which the gallbladder and head of pancreas reside.

Portion of the liver in which the ducts and vascular structures enter and leave the liver.

Which of the following does a moderate reaction of iodine NOT include: - Tachycardia, - Hypertension - Dyspnea - Anaphylaxis

Anaphylaxis

Acute Acalculous Cholecystitis describes what pathology? - Acute inflammation of the gallbladder without calculi or "stone" involvement. - Acute infection of the gallbladder because of a calculi or "stone". - Common Hepatic Duct occlusion by calculi or "stone". - Acute inflammation of the gallbladder caused by a calculi or "stone" in cystic duct.

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder without calculi or "stone" involvement.

What is the purpose of Glucagon excreted from the pancreas? - Elevates the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream. - Elevates the acidity in the duodenum.. - Converts glucose into fat. - Aids in the digestion of lipids.

Elevates the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.

When performing an ERCP, the radiologist utilizing an endoscope tries to insert a catheter into what anatomy? - Common Hepatic Duct - Ampulla of Vader - Cystic duct - Gallbladder - Pancreas

Ampulla of Vader

Anuria describes which condition? - Loss of bladder control. - Urea in the blood. - Kidneys fail to produce urine. - Kidneys produce abnormally large amounts of urine.

Kidneys produce abnormally large amounts of urine.

Before giving IV contrast, the technologist needs to; I) have the patient sign an informed consent, II) check Creatinine lab values (if over 65 years of age), III) check identifiers for the correct patient, and IV) start an IV. - II only - II & III only - all of the above - I, III & IV only

all of the above

Which structure is not a part of the urinary system? - Adrenal glands - Ureter - Urethra - Renal pelvis

Adrenal glands

Which of the following describes "antegrade" filling? - contrast medium is introduced directly into the kidney - voiding of contrast medium - contrast medium enters the kidney in the opposite direction of blood flow - contrast medium enters the kidney in the normal direction of blood/urine flow

contrast medium enters the kidney in the normal direction of blood/urine flow

What is the "function" of the kidneys? (Mark all that apply) - Maintains fluid balance. - Maintains the bodies electrolyte balance. - Maintains the bodies calcium balance. - Maintains blood pressure. - Maintains the number of erythrocytes in the blood.

- Maintains fluid balance. - Maintains the bodies electrolyte balance. - Maintains the bodies calcium balance. - Maintains blood pressure.

All of the following are functions of the kidneys except: - urine excretion - urine suppression - urine production - remove waste products from the body

urine suppression

Horseshoe kidneys are connected at the ____________ 90% of the time. - Renal hilum - Upper poles - Renal veins - Lower poles

Lower poles

An examination which investigates the bladder, lower ureters and the urethra is called a: - cystourethrography - pyelography - intravenous urogram - excretory urogram

cystourethrography

Some of the contraindications for giving intravenous contrast media include: I) diabetes, II) elevated BUN, III) micturition, IV) pregnancy - I & IV only - I, II and IV - II & III - all of the above

I, II and IV

A calculus may cause all of the following except: - uremia - polyuria - hematuria - dysuria

polyuria

Retrograde pyelography does not demonstrate: - kidney function - kidney stones - kidney disease - kidney structures

kidney function

The upper expanded portion of the ureter is called the: - cortex - hilum - medulla - renal pelvis

renal pelvis

A patient who may be experiencing a moderate reaction to the contrast may exhibit signs and symptoms such as; hypertension, __________, __________, dyspnea and laryngospasms. - convulsions, tachycardia - wheezing, dehydration - cardiopulmonary arrest, - convulsions - itching, wheezing

itching, wheezing

Which of the following might be demonstrated radiographically when there is an obstruction of the ureter?: - hydronephrosis - pyelonephritis - hematuria - uremia

hydronephrosis

According to Merrill's, approximately how many degrees should the patient be rotated, from the supine position, to an oblique position to demonstrate renal and urinary structures? - 30 degrees - 40 degrees - 20 degrees - 10 degrees

30 degrees

Which of the following words identify a toxic condition produced by urinary constituents in the blood? - uremia - polyuria - anuria - hematuria

uremia

The ureters enter the superior portion of the bladder at what point? - Posterior and lateral. - Posterior and medial. - Anterior and lateral - Anterior and medial.

Posterior and lateral.

The functional unit of the kidney is the: - cortex - capsule - calyx - nephron

nephron

The type of catheter normally inserted into the bladder for radiographic examinations is known as a: - extension - butterfly - French - Foley

Foley

Retrograde pyelography is accomplished by: - filling the bladder with contrast material - inserting a catheter into the femoral artery - I. V. injection of contrast material - insertion of a catheter into the ureter

insertion of a catheter into the ureter

A method to investigate renal cysts and tumor masses via a needle insertion into the lesion is known as a: - antegrade urogram - percutaneous renal puncture - cystourethrogram - voiding cystogram

percutaneous renal puncture

Which part of the urinary system is most prone to collecting system duplication? - Kidney - Urethra - Ureter - Bladder

Ureter

A patient who presents with a Wilm's Tumor is usually within which age group? - Teenager - Child - Elderly - Middle age

Child

Urinary tract infections caused by infections of the blood stream are called? - Hematogenous dissemination - Enterobacter - Polynephritis - Chlamydia trachomatis

Hematogenous dissemination

Which of the following is not present in each renal hilum? - adrenal gland - ureter - renal vein - renal artery

adrenal gland

Which of the following could cause bilateral hydronephrosis? - space occupying pelvic tumor - cancer tumor of the hepatic flexure - right adrenal gland tumor - right renal calculi

space occupying pelvic tumor

A lower urinary tract infection is usually called a? - Urinary tract infection - Pyelonephritis - Fungal infection - Cystitis

Cystitis

When assessing a needle for venipuncture, the larger the "gauge" the ___________ the needle bore. - Larger - Gauge does not pertain to the size of the bore, just length. - Smaller - All needles have the same bore size.

Smaller

Which iodinated contrast type has a stronger molecular bond and is less likely to cause an adverse reaction in a patient? - Non-ionic - Ionic

Non-ionic

When performing venipuncture, what PPE's should be used routinely? (Mark all that apply) - Gloves - Mask - Safety glasses - Respirator - Lead apron

- Gloves - Mask - Safety glasses

When disposing of a used needle after venipuncture, the best method to use is? - Cap and discard. - Hold with both hands and discard. - Have the patient discard the needle. - One hand technique.

One hand technique.

Comprehensive Exam Flashcards

(126 cards)