Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Operative Dentistry I > Comprehensive Exam Material > Flashcards

Comprehensive Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

When do we use an S curve?

A

In a class two preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Purpose of an S curve:

A
  1. Keeps narrow isthmus away from axiopulpal line angle
  2. Allows preparation to break buccal contact
  3. Creates a smooth & rounded outline
  4. Allows the buccal wall to be 90 degrees to cavosurface margin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Exposes the ends of enamel rods for a stronger bond & gives a better seal:

A

Gingival bevel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why do we place a gingival bevel

A

Exposes ends of enamel rods for stronger bond & better seal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do we place a gingival bevel?

A

At axiopulpal line angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When we place the gingival bevel at the axiopulpal line angle, this allows for:

A

Increased resistance to fracture of isthmus of restoration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of fracture of the isthmus of a class II?

A

Lack of gingival bevel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When and why would we extend margins of the box portion of a preparation?

A

Sharp axiopulpal line angle - (this is why we bevel it_

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the appropriate exit angles of buccal, lingual & gingival walls in an amalgam:

A

90 degrees on all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the appropriate exit angles of buccal, lingual & gingival walls in a composite:

A

Buccal & Lingual- flare, greater than 90 degrees
Gingival- 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When would not need to place a gingival bevel?

A

Once you get into deeper preparations when enamel is extremely thin or you’re into dentin or cementum (because no enamel rods are present here)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do you place retention grooves in a box?

A
  • Buccal-axial line angle & lingual-axial line angle
  • Just inside the DEJ, entirely in dentin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When placing a retention groove in a box, the groove does not go into:

A

Gingival floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Label the following image:

A

A) gingival-axial line angle
B) buccal-gingival line angle
C) buccal-gingival axial point angle
D) buccal-axial line angle (with optional retention groove)
E) axiopulpal line angle
F) lingual-axial line angle (with optional retention groove)
G) Iingual-gingival axial point angle
H) lingual-gingival line angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the advantages of composite resin: (6)

A
  1. Esthetics
  2. Conservation of tooth structure
  3. Bonding
  4. No metal
  5. Can be economical (compared to crowns inlays/onlays)
  6. Prep more forging (restoration is not)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is it advantageous that composite resin incorporates bonding: (2)

A
  1. Reduced microleakage and recurrent decay
  2. Increased retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is it advantageous that composite resin does NOT incorporate metal: (3)

A
  1. No mercury arguments from patients
  2. No corrosion
  3. No galvanic shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List order of expensive from to least to greatest:

-Crowns & inlays/onlays
-Amalgam restorations
-Composite restoration

A
  1. Amalgam
  2. Composite
  3. Crowns/inlays/onlays
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the disadvantages of composite resin: (9)

A
  1. Low modulus of elasticity
  2. Porous
  3. More technique sensitive placement
  4. More time-consuming placement
  5. Microleakage
  6. Pull back, can create voids
  7. Expensive compared to amalgam
  8. Cannot place in bulk
  9. Cannot support occlusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do we mean by “composite cannot support occlusion”

A

Must have tooth supported occlusion on marginal ridges & cusp tips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of using a wedge in a class II preparation?

A

Closed the margin in the gingival of the box & prevents overhang

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When using a tofflemire retainer band the narrower opening faces:

A

Gingivally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What way should the opening slits of the tofflemire face?

A

Gingivally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why should the opening slits of the tofflemire face ginivally?

A

So when you release the Tofflemire it comes off the tooth toward the occlusal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How to troubleshoot errors in proximal box restorations: (2)

A
  1. Choose correct wedge (size/shape) & properly seat it
  2. Properly condense amalgam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Properly condensing amalgam prevents:

A

Voids into point angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Choosing the correct size & shape of wedge as well as correctly placing the wedge ensures:

A

Good contour of gingival margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This instrument should be used in a proximal box restoration to press and wiggle into internal line angles (BG & LG), against margin areas, and contact areas of the band:

A

Hollenback condensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What instrument should be used for the pre-carve burnishing in the proximal box of an amalgam restoration?

A

Side of Hollenback condensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What instrument should be used in a proximal box restoration for defining occlusal embrasure by using at a 45 degree angle?

A

Explorer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An explorer can be used to define the occlusal embrasure of a proximal box restoration by holding it at:

A

45 degree angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What instrument is used for forming grooves and carving the marginal ridge in the proximal box of an amalgam restoration:

A

Hollenback carver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What instrument should be used to redefine the occlusal embrasure?

A

Explorer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In a class II restoration what instruments should be used to:

a) Carve excess off buccal & lingual walls of box
b) Break corner off marginal ridge
c) Carve embrasures

A

Hollenback carver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In a class II restoration what instruments should be used to:

a) carve away gingival margin excess
b) instruments drawn laterally or occlusally

A

Hollenback carvers held obliquely OR Wiland carver OR 34-35 Jaquette scaler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In a class II restoration what instruments should be used when amalgam is partially set and you need to adjust occlusion:

A

Discoid carver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In a class II restoration what instruments should be used to redefine groove anatomy after doing final occlusal adjustment:

A

Hollenback carver or Cleoid carver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In a class II restoration what instruments should be used to smooth surfaces in bottoms of grooves:

A

Beavertail burnisher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bond agent that does NOT require a separate etch step:

A

Self etch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Requires etch, rinse & then bond agent:

A

Total etch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When you only etch the enamel, avoiding dentin (20-30 sec)

A

Selective etch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A selective etch as opposed to a complete etch may:

A

Reduce sensitivty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What should be avoided when doing a selective etch?

A

Dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How long should the etch stay on in a selective etch?

A

20-30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When you place etch all over the enamel & dentin:

A

Complete etch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the process of a complete etch:

A
  1. Etch is placed over the enamel first for 20-30 sec
  2. Etch is placed on the dentin for 15-20 sec
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How should composite resin be placed?

A

Incrementally not exceeding 2 mm at a time (no bulk fill)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

An uncured layer of composite in which oxygen interferes with the polymerization:

A

Oxygen inhibited layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is the oxygen inhibited layer removed?

A

Removed with finishing & polishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The oxygen inhibited layer is a _____ thick layer which on the outside allows addition & wetting of subsequent layers of _____

A

15 microns
Composite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The oxygen inhibited layer is ______ % ______ to co-polymerize with the new material

A

50%; unreacted methacrylate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In an older restoration (no unreacted methacrylate groups), the repair strength=

A

50% original restoration (roughen with diamond)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Excavators & chisels are considered _____ instruments:

A

Cutting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amalgam condenser, mirrors, probes & explores are considered _____ instruments:

A

Non-cutting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

On the end of a non-cutting instrument, what is present?

A

Face & nib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

On the end of a cutting instrument, what is present?

A

Blade with cutting edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which instruments are best for different stages for carving anatomty?

A
  1. Plastic instrument
  2. Hollenback carver
  3. Optrasculpt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Instrument used to place & smooth composite on occlusal surface:

A

Plastic instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Instrument used to carve anatomy, primarily for amalgam:

A

Hollenback carver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Instrument used to develop anatomy in composite resin prior to light curing:

A

Optrasculp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

After light curing, what should be used to develop anatomy in composite resin:

A

Carbide burs for finishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a “swivel”?

A

Allows ergonomic manipulation of the handpiece between the dental unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where is the motor located in a handpiece?

A

Motor located in actual handpiece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the purpose of water when drilling with a handpiece?

A
  1. Cools area of contact between bur & tooth structure to prevent pulpal irritation
  2. Avoids heat build up & destruction of odontoblastic processes in the dentin (dead tract)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Heat buildup causing destruction of the odotontoblastic processes in the dentin leads to:

A

Dead tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

-uses steam under pressure
- 250 degrees, 15 PSI, 20 minutes
-Shelves for cassettes

A

Autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

-Oven-type sterilizer
- 320 degrees F, 60 to 120 minutes

A

Dry heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

-Chemical vapor pressure
-Uses chemical solution in a pressurized chamber
- 270 degrees F, 20-40 PSI, 20 minutes
-Proper ventilation must be installed

A

Chemiclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

-Several hours BELOW 100 degrees C
-Proper ventilation must be installed

A

Ethylene oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Temp, pressure & time requirements for sterilization via autoclave:

A

250 degrees F
15 PSI
20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Temp & time requirement for dry heat sterilization:

A

320 degrees F
60-120 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Temp, pressure & time requirements for chemiclave sterilization:

A

270 degrees F
20-40 PSI
20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Temp & sterilization requirement for ethylene oxide sterilization:

A

Several hours below 100 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The STATIC relationship between incising & masticating surfaces between the maxillary teeth or tooth analogues:

A

Occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The STATIC & DYNAMIC contact relationship between occlusal surfaces of teeth during function:

A

Articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Occlusion can be described as a ______ relationship:

A

Static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Articulation can be described as a ______ relationship:

A

Static & dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Forces are directed over the long axes of teeth:

A

Axial loading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In axial loading, forces are directed:

A

Over the long axes of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Type of contact:

When each functional cusp occludes in a fossa of the opposing tooth

A

Cusp-fossa contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Type of contact:

Commonly used for single restorations

A

Cusp-marginal ridge contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Type of contact:

Majority of natural dentition have this

A

Cusp-marginal ridge contacts

83
Q

Type of contact:

Not seen alot in nature

A

Cusp-fossa contacts

84
Q

Type of contact:

Used when restoring both opposing quadrants

A

Cusp-fossa contacts

85
Q

Type of contact:

Tooth-to-tooth arrangment

A

Cusp-fossa contacts

86
Q

Type of contact:

Each functional cusp contacts the MR of opposing pair of teeth or fossae of opposing teeth

A

Cusp-marginal ridge contacts

87
Q

Type of contact:

A one tooth to two teeth arrangement

A

Cusp-marginal ridge contacts

88
Q

-Each functional cusp occludes in a fossa of the opposing tooth
-Tooth-to-tooth arrangement
-Used when restoring both opposing quadrants
-Not seen alot in nature

A

Cusp-fossa contacts

89
Q

-Each functional cusp contacts the MR of opposing pair of teeth or fossae of opposing teeth
-A one tooth to two teeth arrangement
- Majority of natural dentitions have this
-Commonly used for single restorations

A

Cusp-marginal ridge contacts

90
Q

When cusp-fossa contacts to cusp-marginal ridge contacts which one is superior?

A

One is not proven better than the other

91
Q

This occlusal relationship allows for some cusps to occlude onto MRs and others to occlude into fossae:

A

Cusp-marginal ridge occlusal relationship

92
Q

This occlusal relationship allows ONLY for each cusp to occlude into one fossae:

A

Cusp-fossa relationship

93
Q

Key aspects of nutritional counseling for patients with HIGH caries rates:

A
  1. Identify sources
  2. Reduce frequency & ingestion
94
Q

Describe Silver Diamine Fluoride

A

-Silver in color and used to arrest caries
-Primarily used on children who will lose the primary teeth
-Used on occlusal caries in the mouth that may be hard to get to
- Very dark color
-NOT esthetically pleasing

95
Q

Fluoride toothpaste should be given to patients with:

A

Root caries

96
Q

Enamel with fluoride pH=

A

4.5

97
Q

-No clinically detectable lesion
-Dental hard tissue appears normal in color, translucency & gloss

Clinical presentation:

A

Sound

98
Q

Sound tooth structure radiographically will be labeled as:

A

E0 or R0 (no radiolucency)

99
Q

-Earliest clinical detectable lesion compatible with mild demineralization
-Lesion limited to enamel or shallow demineralization of cementum/dentin
-Mildest forms are detectable only after drying
-When established or active, lesions may be white or brown
-Enamel has lost its normal gloss

Clinical presentation:

A

Initial

100
Q

If caries are classified as initial, they are visually:

A

Noncavitated

101
Q

Initial caries radiographically will be labeled as:

A

E1, E2 OR D1 (Radiolucency may extend into the DEJ or outer 1/3 of the dentin)

102
Q

-Visible signs of enamel breakdown
-Signs the dentin in moderately demineralized

Clinical presentation:

A

Moderate

103
Q

Moderate caries may also be classified as:

A

Established, early cavitated, shallow cavitation, or microcavitation

104
Q

Radiographically, moderate caries will be labeled as:

A

D2 (Radiolucency extends into middle 1/3 of dentin)

105
Q

-Enamel is fully cavitated
-Dentin is exposed
-Dentin lesion is deeply/severely demineralized

Clinical presentation:

A

Advanced

106
Q

Advanced caries may also be classified as:

A

Spread/disseminated, late cavitated, deep cavitation

107
Q

Radiographically advanced caries will be labeled:

A

D3 (Radiolucency extends into the inner 1/3 of the dentin)

108
Q

No radiolucency:

A

E0 or R0

109
Q

Radiolucency may extend to the DEJ or outter 1/3 of the dentin

A

E1, E2 or D1

110
Q

Radiographs are not reliable for:

A

Mild occlusal lesions

111
Q

Radiolucency extends into the middle 1/3 of the dentin:

A

D2

112
Q

Radiolucency extends into the inner 1/3 of dentin:

A

D3

113
Q

What is the brand name for resin infiltration?

A

ICON

114
Q

Resin infiltration is treatment for:

A
  1. Initial (incipient) caries
  2. Mild fluorosis
  3. White & brown spot lesions
  4. Class II
115
Q

Resin infiltration (ICON) can penetrate into:

A

Outer 1/3 of dentin (D1)

116
Q

Resin infiltration (ICON) can be described as:

A

Micro-invasive

117
Q

What resin infiltration is used in our clinic?

A

ICON

118
Q

List steps to prior to applying resin infiltration (ICON):

A
  1. Clean tooth well (pumice)
  2. Dry working field (rubber damn)
  3. Etch for atleast 30 sec 1-3 time; rinse & dry well
119
Q

ICON etch is:

A

15% hydrochloric acid gel

120
Q

ICON etch acts as a:

A

“Chemical drill”

121
Q

Finishing & polishing a composite restoration:

The occlusal surface is shaped with a _____ or _____ finishing bur or similarly shaped finishing _____

A

Round or oval carbide; finishing diamond

122
Q

What instrument in needed to attach a finishing disc to the handpiece?

A

SOFLEX mandrel

123
Q

Cause of dentinal sensitivity:

A

Hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission

124
Q

Hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission:

Dentinal tubules are filled with _____ and wrapped in _____ & ____

A

Odontoblastic processes; afferent nerves; dentinal fluid

125
Q

Hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission:

When enamel or cementum is removed during cavity preparation, the _____ of dentin is lost which allow _____ in the tubules. This movement causes distortions in the afferent nerve hence pain

A

External seal; small fluid movements

126
Q

Hydrodynamic theory of pain transmission:

_____ changes within the tubules caused by _____ can cause pain to the pulp through fluid movement within the tubules

A

Hydrostatic pressure; external stimuli

127
Q

What are example of external stimuli that changes in hydrostatic pressure leading to pain:

A

Temperature change, high speed handpiece, air drying, osmotic changes from various chemicals, caries

128
Q

Used when a deep carious lesion occurs and their no clinical or radiographic evidence of irreversible pulp damage:

A

Indirect pulp cap

129
Q

Evidence of pulp damage, that is likely irreversible:

A

-History of spontaneous pain
-Heat sensitivity relieved by cold
-P.A. lesion

130
Q

For an indirect pulp cap, the tooth should be:

A
  1. Completely asymptomatic
  2. Show signs of reversible pulpitis
131
Q

If a patient is experiencing moderate cold sensitivity with pain subsiding within about 15 seconds this is evidence of _____ & we would use _____

A

reversible pulpitis; INDIRECT pulp cap

132
Q

Caries are usually _____ than they appear to be on a radiograph

A

Deeper

133
Q

What is the objective of an INDIRECT pulp cap:

A

To avoid a direct pulp exposure

134
Q

What are the two approaches that might be termed indirect pulp cap?

A
  1. The two-appointment approach
  2. The single-appointment approach
135
Q

Describe the sequence of steps at the first appointment in the two-appointment approach of an indirect pulp cap:

A
  1. All caries removed from all areas except the deepest, nearest pulp
  2. Leave the last bit of infected dentin to avoid pulp exposure
  3. Cover remaining infected dentin with Calcium hydroxide (Life or Dycal) and then glass ionomer (Vitrebond)
  4. Place a temporary restoration (IRM)
  5. It may be acceptable to leave some undermined enamel (temporarily) to help hold in the temporary restoration
136
Q

Describe the sequence of steps at the second appointment in the two-appointment approach of an indirect pulp cap:

A
  1. Remove temporary restoration, glass ionomer & Calcium Hydroxide
  2. Carefully remove infected dentin (soft, leathery caries)
  3. Leave the affected dentin (dry, powdery caries)
137
Q

How long should allow in between the first & second appointment in the two-appointment approach to indirect pulp capping?

A

Allow 6-12 weeks

138
Q

Why should you allow 6-12 weeks between first & second appointments in the two-appointment approach to indirect pulp capping?

A

Allows the body to form reparative dentin in site near exposure

139
Q

The desired result in the 6-12 week period between appointments in the two-appointment approach=

A

Dentin bridge formation

140
Q

In the two-appointment approach to indirect pulp capping, at the end of the 12 weeks confirm that the patient is _____ & that the tooth is ____

A

Asymptomatic; vital

141
Q

In the two-appointment approach to indirect pulp cavity, research has suggested that if the cavity has been well-sealed in the twelve week interval and if the patient is asymptomatic and the tooth tests vital, the tooth may:

A

Not need to be re-entered

142
Q

What is the benefit of not re-entering the tooth if the criteria is met?

A

Avoids risking the pulp exposure

143
Q

What is the theory behind to two-appointment approach to indirect pulp capping?

A

Food supply to bacteria is cut off by the well sealed restoration so they die or become dormant

144
Q

Where does confusion arise with the two-appointment approach to indirect pulp capping?

A

Its clinically impossible to determine infected from affected dentin

145
Q

When are direct pulp caps used?

A

When small pulpal exposure occurs during cavity prep

146
Q

For a direct pulp cap, a thin layer of ______ (_____) is floated over the exposed pulp

A

Calcium hydroxide (Dycal)

147
Q

For a direct pulp cap, a thin layer of calcium hydroxide (dycal) is floated over the exposure pulp and then a layer a _____ is placed over the calcium hydroxide. This may help stimulate the pulp to form ______ which can produce a ______ across the exposure site

A

Glass ionomer (Vitrebond)
Secondary odontoblast
Dentin-bridge

148
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful when the exposure is _____ rather than _____

A

Mechanical; carious

149
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful when the patient is _____ & the exposure site is less than _____

A

Young; 0.5mm

150
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful if bleeding at the site is _____ and there is no ____ or _____

A

Controlled; Pus or serous exudate

151
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful if the area has not been:

A

Contaminated by saliva

152
Q

A direct pulp cap is most successful if there ha been little or no _____ to the ____

A

Mechanical damage to the pulp tissue

153
Q

In a direct pulp cap _____ may cause canals to calcify over time

A

Calcium hydroxide (CaOH)

154
Q

When should you NOT rely on a direct pulp cap?

A

If tooth requires crown to adequately restore

155
Q

Direct pulp caps occur better at the _____ than they do on an exposure on the _____ (as from a Class V lesion)

A

Tips of pulp horns; side of a pulp chamber

156
Q

Direct pulp caps are more effective on ______ patients with _____ pulp chambers & ______ root canals that provide better ____ to the area where we are trying to induce dentin bridge formation

A

Young; large; open; circulation

157
Q

If the tooth will require a crown to adequately restore it than you should:

A

NOT RELY ON A DIRECT PULP

158
Q

A pulp tissue’s reaction to stimuli is related to its response to irritation by:

A
  1. Mechanical stimuli
  2. Thermal stimuli
  3. Chemical stimuli
  4. Bacterial stimuli
159
Q

The deposition of reparative dentin by secondary odontoblasts lining the pulp cavity acts as a ____ against ______ and various other irritating factors

A

Protective barrier; caries

160
Q

Describe the formation of reparative dentin:

A

Continuous & slow process

161
Q

Describe the timeline of formation of reparative dentin:

A

Takes 100 days to form reparative dentin layer that is 0.12mm thick

162
Q

In cases of severe irritation, the pulp responds by an _____ similar to any other soft tissue injury. However, the inflammation may become _____ & can result in ____

A

Inflammatory reaction; irreversible
Death of the pulp

163
Q

Death of the pulp due to an inflammatory reaction can occur because of the _____, _____ structure of the dentin limiting the inflammatory response & the ability of the pulp to _____

A

Confined, rigid structure; recover

164
Q

Many teeth have pulpal sensitivity due to caries or following cavity preparation or restoration

This would be an example of:

A

Reversible pulpitis

165
Q

A twinge of pain may be due to sugar, cold or acid from caries first contacting dentin. Pain lasting a few seconds may be due to the irritant continuously present or applied repeatedly.

This would be an example of:

A

Reversible pulpitis

166
Q

Reversible pulpitis causes an increased _____ & ____ (_____) and inflammation of the pulp

A

Blood flow & volume (hyperemia)

167
Q

As long as an irritant, such as touching an ice stick to the tooth causes pain that lingers no more than 10 to 15 seconds after removal, it’s called _______ and can be treated with a _____

A

Reversible pulpitis
Restoration

168
Q

When pain is either spontaneous, or–if elicited by an irritant– lingers more than 15 seconds, _____ has occurred and resolution by operative dentistry treatment is _____

A

Infection of the pulp; usually not possible

169
Q

Treatment that is advised for irreversible pulpitis:

A

Root canal

170
Q

Results when irreversible pulpitis is left untreated:

A

Pulpal necrosis

171
Q

Characterized by spontaneous, continuous, or throbbing pain or pain elicited by heat that can be relieved by cold & then, later, with no response to any stimulus:

A

Pulpal necrosis

172
Q

As inflammation & infection move beyond the _____ the tooth may become __________

A

Root apex; sensitive to percussion

173
Q

Alternative causes of dental pain that are NOT pulpal in origin: (3)

A
  1. Maxillary sinusitis
  2. Cracked tooth
  3. Occlusal trauma
174
Q

Usually manifests as cold sensitivity, and sometimes spontaneous pain in the maxillary posterior teeth. Often hard to isolate to a single tooth:

A

Maxillary sinusitis

175
Q

Usually manifests as cold sensitivity, or a sudden–usually unreproducible– pain when chewing:

A

Cracked tooth

176
Q

Instrument that can often elicit pain when placed between the teeth in the central groove areas or at the tips of individual cusps

A

Tooth sleuth

177
Q

Cracks in a tooth can sometimes progress into the pulp chamber and cause:

A

Pulp necrosis

178
Q

Tooth cracks can sometimes be seen externally with a ______ or it may be necessary to remove restorations to see them

A

Fiber optic light

179
Q

Treatment for cracked tooth:

A

Crowning

180
Q

Usually manifests as cold sensitivity or pain with chewing. Slight tooth movements when the teeth are clenched and them moved from side to side may be seen, but not always:

A

Occlusal trauma/fremitis

181
Q

Occlusal trauma pain/fremitis can often be relieved by:

A

Occlusal adjustments

182
Q

Neutral position for dentist include:

Describe head position:

A

Head at 0-20 degree tilt; ears over shoulders

183
Q

Neutral position for dentist include:

Shoulder over _____ & _____ relaxed at sides

A

Hips; elbows

184
Q

Neutral position for dentist include:

Forearms should be _____ or slightly ____

A

Parallel to floor; upward

185
Q

Neutral position for dentist include:

Describe back position:

A

Slight curve in lower back: lordosis

186
Q

Neutral position for dentist include:

Hip angle _____, ideally ______ (Hips higher than ____)

A

Greater than 90 degrees; ideally 105-125 degrees; knees

187
Q

Neutral position for dentist include:

Describe foot position:

A

Feet flat on floor in tripod position

188
Q

CTD:

A

Cumulative trauma disorders

189
Q

What is the main cause of musculoskeletal disorders (MSD) in dentistry:

A

Cumulative trauma

190
Q

The primary cause of disability among dentist:

A

Cumulative trauma disorders

191
Q

In CTD, microtrauma occurs on the _____ level with damage that ____

A

Cellular level; accumulates

192
Q

The greatest strength of dental materials is usually _____ while the weakest strength is _______

A

Compressive strength; tensile strength

193
Q

To resist masticatory (chewing) stresses without fracture:

A

Resistance

194
Q

-Walls parallel or perpendicular to forces
-Rounded line and point angles
-Flat and smooth walls
-Giving bulk to restoration

These are all:

A

Factors contributing to resistance

195
Q

To retain the restoration securely during function:

A

Retenion

196
Q

-Wall convergence (undercut)
-Taller wall
-Dovetail

These are all:

A

Factors contributing to retention

197
Q

Converging walls is especially important in:

A

Amalgam

198
Q

Taller walls will increase _____ (resists the pull of sticky food)

A

Frictional retention

199
Q

What is the purpose of a dovetail?

A

Prevents tipping and proximal displacement

200
Q

Form that allows you to access the defect:

A

Convenience form

201
Q

Allows you to see what you are doing, ideally with perfect ergonomics:

A

Convenience form

202
Q

The cavosurface is the junction of the _____ cavity wall & the _____ surface of the tooth

A

Prepared; external

203
Q

The cavosurface is the junction of the _____ cavity wall & the _____ surface of the tooth

A

Prepared; external

Operative Dentistry I (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions