Comptia A+ 901: Part 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which is not correct about laptop components?
a. Laptops only work from battery power.
b. The motherboard of a laptop is the backbone of the system.
c. Motherboards are designed along with the laptop case.
d. Hardware devices are smaller and not quite as powerful.
A
a. Laptops only work from battery power.
EXPLANATION:
Laptops don’t need to be connected to a power source all the time, but most laptop processors
run in a lower power state when on battery power. This is known as power throttling.
2
Q
Which of the following statements is not correct about laptops?
a. The video card in a laptop is responsible for generating and managing
the image sent to the screen.
b. Fluorescent lighting and LCD backlights require fairly high-voltage and
high-frequency energy.
c. Laptops use USB ports for expansion.
d. Laptops never come with a built-in keyboard or mouse.
A
d. Laptops never come with a built-in keyboard or mouse.
EXPLANATION:
Laptops come with a built-in keyboard and mouse. Some laptops come with a combination
keyboard/mouse port that allows you to connect either an external keyboard or an
external mouse.
3
Q
In a laptop you cannot replace Mini PCIe card.
True
False
A
FALSE
EXPLANATION:
You can replace the Mini PCIe card in your laptop. The PCI cards that you use include network
cards, sound cards, modems, extra ports such as USB or serial, TV tuner cards and disk controllers.
4
Q
Which of the following statements is not correct about display devices?
a. LCD screens are known to have a longer life and retain color for
years.
b. OLED displays have a better battery life, are much brighter, and
have more colors.
c. A fluorescent display emits a very bright light with high contrast
and can support display elements of various colors.
d. None of these
A
d. None of these
EXPLANATION:
All of these things are correct about laptops.
5
Q
Which of the following statements is not correct about CCD?
a. A charge-coupled device (CCD) is a light-sensitive integrated
circuit that stores and displays the data for an image.
b. CCDs are now commonly included in digital still and video
cameras.
c. CCDs move charge between capacitive bins in the device.
d. A good CCD can’t produce an image in extremely dim light.
A
d. A good CCD can’t produce an image in extremely dim light.
EXPLANATION:
A good CCD can produce an image in extremely dim light, and its resolution does not
deteriorate when the illumination intensity is low, as is the case with conventional
cameras.
6
Q
A digitizer converts analog signals to digital.
True
False
A
TRUE
EXPLANATION:
A digitizer is a device used to convert analog signals into digital signals. In cell phones,
this device would be the glass that covers the LCD. Digitizing is turning any analog
source anything you write on a screen using finger or stylus, audio, video, slides and
photographs into a binary bit stream. As an input device, a digitizer or digitizing
tablet takes pen strokes and turns them into a digital rendering through the software
controlling the digitizer.
7
Q
Which of the following statements is correct about screen brightness?
a. The brightness and contrast buttons are on the front of the
monitor.
b. You can find it on the on-screen menu.
c. Laptop displays don’t have brightness buttons.
d. All of these
A
d. All of these
EXPLANATION:
Brightness and contrast buttons are on the front of the monitor. Some monitors have
brightness and contrast controls on the front and use the standard symbols.
You can change the brightness and contrast settings for some displays by using an onscreen
menu, and then setting the brightness and contrast in the resulting menu.
Laptop displays don’t have brightness or contrast buttons on the front. For a majority of
laptops, there isn’t a control for setting the contrast.
8
Q
Which of the following statements is correct about GPS? (choose all
that apply)
a. A laptop GPS tracking system is just an extended version of GPS.
b. All you need is a laptop GPS receiver and a GPS
mapping software.
c. The Bluetooth option has to be disabled.
d. None of these
A
A and B
a. A laptop GPS tracking system is just an extended version of GPS.
b. All you need is a laptop GPS receiver and a GPS mapping software.
EXPLANATION:
A laptop GPS tracking system is just an extended version of GPS where you extend the
receiver to the laptop. This enables you to view things on a large screen.
All you need is a laptop GPS receiver and a GPS mapping software to use GPS on a
laptop. The best thing about laptop GPS is that you do not need any wiring, unless you
are using an extension for the receiver’s antenna.
9
Q
Which of the following is not correct about tablets?
a. A tablet is a wireless, portable personal computer.
b. The most common type of tablet is the slate.
c. Hybrid tablets are sometimes called convertible or
hybrid notebooks.
d. A tablet is larger than a notebook.
A
d. A tablet is larger than a notebook.
EXPLANATION:
The tablet is typically smaller than a notebook computer but larger than a smartphone
10
Q
A smartphone is a cellular phone with an operating system.
True
False
A
TRUE
EXPLANATION:
A smartphone is a cellular phone with an operating system. It also with other features
like web browsing and the ability to run software applications.
11
Q
Which of the following statements is correct about a phablet?
a. A phablet is a mobile device with the features of a smartphone
and tablet.
b. It is smaller than a smartphone.
c. A smartphone does not support 3G and 4G.
d. None of these
A
a. A phablet is a mobile device with the features of a smartphone and tablet.
EXPLANATION:
A phablet is a mobile device with the features of both a smartphone and tablet.
12
Q
Which of the following are open source mobile phone operating systems? (choose all that apply) a. Android b. Sailfish OS c. iOS d. None of these
A
A and B
a. Android
b. Sailfish OS
EXPLANATION:
Google’s Android is clearly the king of mobile operating systems. It is an open source
model, meaning anyone can take Android code and create their own customized
operating system.
Sailfish OS was created by a team of Nokia developers who came together to create a
company called Jolla after ex-Microsoft executive Stephen Elop joined the company as a CEO.
13
Q
Which of the following functionality links apps between different devices?
a. Optimize displayed data
b. File synchronization
c. Email, Calendar, Contacts
d. Launcher
A
b. File synchronization
EXPLANATION:
Besides providing continuity of functionality over two different types of devices, apps
may also be capable of file synchronization between two dissimilar devices.
14
Q
Which of the following frees the user from having to learn complex commands? a. GUI b. Command driven interface c. MS-DOS d. GPU
A
a. GUI
EXPLANATION:
Graphical user interfaces can free the user from having to learn complex
command languages.
15
Q
Which of the following operating systems uses APK?
a. Windows
b. Android
c. iOS
d. None of these
A
b. Android
EXPLANATION:
Android application package (APK) is the package file format used by the
Android operating system for distribution and installation of application software
and middleware.
16
Q
Which tool is used to synchronize Android devices?
a. iTunes/iCloud
b. Google Sync
c. OneDrive
d. None of these
A
b. Google Sync
EXPLANATION:
Google Sync is a file synchronization service from Google. It uses Microsoft Exchange
ActiveSync to provide services for users to synchronize Android devices.
17
Q
When does a decrypt email issue occur?
a. Then the certificate has expired
b. After you’ve cleared unwanted apps and files
c. When there are too many heavier apps
d. None of these
A
a. Then the certificate has expired
EXPLANATION:
The “unable to decrypt email” issue occurs due to the expiration of the certificates or
configuration settings in your device.
18
Q
Which of the following are ways to reset a mobile device after you’ve been
locked out?
a. Synchronize your device with iTunes/iCloud
b. Google recovery account
c. Hard reset
d. All of these
A
d. All of these
EXPLANATION:
If you had previously synchronized your iPhone with iTunes, you can restore your device.
If it is an Android device, reset your password by using your Google recovery account.
Hard reset is setting your device to factory settings.
19
Q
Which of the following statements is correct about fiber optics? (choose
all that apply)
a. Fibers are not made of plastic.
b. In fiber optics, each glass strand passes signals in both
directions.
c. Fiber optic cables transmit signals in the form of light.
d. To transmit data at a very high speed over long distances and in
a secure way, fiber optic cable is best.
A
C and D
c. Fiber optic cables transmit signals in the form of light.
d. To transmit data at a very high speed over long distances and in
a secure way, fiber optic cable is best.
EXPLANATION:
Fiber optic cables transmit signals in the form of light. The fiber-optic cable transmissions
are not subject to electrical interference. They are extremely fast. They can transmit
about 100 Mbps with demonstrated rates of up to 1 gigabit per second.
If you have to transmit data at a very high speed over long distances and in a secure way,
fiber optic cable is best. Don’t use fiber optic cable if your budget is small.
20
Q
Multimeter is used for measuring: (choose all that apply)
a. voltage
b. current
c. resistance
d. connectors
A
A, B and C
a. voltage
b. current
c. resistance
EXPLANATION:
You can use a multimeter to test the power outlets. You can measure voltage, current,
and resistance on a wire.
21
Q
Limited connectivity or no connectivity problems can occur due to what? (choose all that apply) a. The ISP b. Network adapter c. DHCP server being down d. None of these
A
A and B
a. The ISP
b. Network adapter
EXPLANATION:
It is possible that you aren’t able to connect to the Internet, for various reasons. The issue
could with the ISP or network adapter.
22
Q
Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80?
a. HTTPS
b. HTTP
c. POP3
d. FTP
A
b. HTTP
EXPLANATION:
HTTP uses port number 80. HTTPS uses port number 443. POP3 uses port number 110.
FTP uses port 20.
23
Q
RDP allows communication through a maximum of 64,000 channels.
True
False
A
TRUE
EXPLANATION:
RDP protocol allows communication through a maximum of 64,000 channels. Use port
3389 for RDP protocol
24
Q
What are the two advantages that TCP has over UDP?
a. Lower overhead
b. Acknowledged delivery
c. Faster delivery
d. None of these
A
b. Acknowledged delivery
EXPLANATION:
In TCP, the delivery is generally guaranteed and you have receipt acknowledgements
25
Which of the following is correct about 802.11? (choose all that apply)
a. Supports maximum bandwidth of 4 Mbps
b. Is the first WLAN standard
c. Does not support complementary code keying
d. Network standards cover the physical layer technology
specifications from Ethernet to wireless
B and D
b. Is the first WLAN standard
d. Network standards cover the physical layer technology
specifications from Ethernet to wireless
In 1997, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers created the first WLAN
standard called 802.11. It supported a maximum bandwidth of 2 Mbps which was too
slow for most applications.
Network standards also cover the physical layer technology specifications from Ethernet
to wireless. 802.11 is subdivided into 22 parts, which covers the physical and data-link
aspects of networking. Some of the better known specifications include 802.3 Ethernet,
802.11 WiFi, 802.15 Bluetooth/ZigBee, and 802.16.
26
How many types of wireless networking modes are there?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
c. 2
EXPLANATION:
Ad hoc and infrastructure modes.
27
Which of the following statements is correct about WPA2? (choose all that apply)
a. WPA2 is a security technology commonly used for WiFi
networks.
b. WPA2 stands for WiFi Protected Access 2.
c. To encrypt a network with WPA2 you have to provide a router
with an encryption key.
d. The encryption key should not be complicated.
A, B, and C
a. WPA2 is a security technology commonly used for WiFi
networks.
b. WPA2 stands for WiFi Protected Access 2.
c. To encrypt a network with WPA2 you have to provide a router
with an encryption key.
EXPLANATION:
WPA2 is a security technology that you commonly use for WiFi networks or
wireless networks.
WPA2 is WiFi Protected Access 2 and is mainly designed for home users.
If you want to encrypt a network with WPA2, you have to provide a router with an
encryption key.
28
Satellite Internet connection requires a dish to receive and transmit signals to an orbiting satellite.
True
False
TRUE
EXPLANATION:
A satellite Internet connection requires a dish to receive and transmit signals to an
orbiting satellite. The satellites are geostationary and the position will not change.
29
Which of the following statements is correct about LAN? (choose all that apply)
a. LAN stands for local area network.
b. LAN uses expensive hardware.
c. You can print a file from any system on the LAN server.
d. None of these.
A and C
a. LAN stands for local area network.
c. You can print a file from any system on the LAN server.
EXPLANATION:
LAN stands for local area network. A LAN is a small network and works within a small area
like a school, hospital, office building or a floor within an office building.
You can print a file from any system on the LAN server. A user can share files with others
on the LAN server. Read and write access is maintained by a network administrator.
30
Which of the following statements is correct about port forwarding?
(choose all that apply)
a. It is an application of network address translation.
b. Port forwarding is the only way to open ports on a firewall.
c. Services residing on a protected internal network are available
to hosts on the other side of the external gateway.
d. None of these
A and C
a. It is an application of network address translation.
c. Services residing on a protected internal network are available
EXPLANATION:
Port mapping or port forwarding is an application of network address translation that
redirects a communication request from one address and port number combination to
another, while data packets traverse a network gateway such as a router or firewall.
This technique is used to make services on a host residing on a protected internal
network available to hosts on the other side of the external gateway. This is done by
remapping the destination IP address and port number to an internal host.
31
Which of the following is correct about firewalls? (choose all that apply)
a. A firewall is a device that monitors the data traffic.
b. Firewalls guard the network by examining information inside
every network packet.
c. You cannot implement alarms when abnormal traffic behavior
is seen.
d. None of these
A and C
a. A firewall is a device that monitors the data traffic.
c. You cannot implement alarms when abnormal traffic behavior
EXPLANATION:
Port mapping or port forwarding is an application of network address translation that
redirects a communication request from one address and port number combination to
another, while data packets traverse a network gateway such as a router or firewall.
This technique is used to make services on a host residing on a protected internal
network available to hosts on the other side of the external gateway. This is done by
remapping the destination IP address and port number to an internal host.
32
Power over Ethernet allows network cables carry electrical power.
a. True
b. False
TRUE
EXPLANATION:
Power over Ethernet, or POE, is a technology that lets network cables carry
electrical power.
33
Which of the following is correct about firewalls? (choose all that apply)
a. A firewall is a device that monitors the data traffic.
b. Firewalls guard the network by examining information inside
every network packet.
c. You cannot implement alarms when abnormal traffic behavior
is seen.
d. None of these
A and B
a. A firewall is a device that monitors the data traffic.
b. Firewalls guard the network by examining information inside
EXPLANATION:
A firewall is a device that monitors the data traffic and prevents unauthorized electronic
access to your network.
Firewalls guard your network by examining information inside every network packet.
Based on a list that you provide of rules, policies, or restrictions, a firewall allows or
disallows each packet from traveling further.
34
What is not correct about 32 and 64-bit CPUs?
a. A difference between 32-bit processors and 64-bit processors is
the number of calculations per second they can perform.
b. Multiple cores allow for an increased number of calculations per
second that can be performed, increasing the processing power.
c. 32-bit computers support a maximum of 4GB of memory. 64-bit
computers can support memory amounts over 4GB.
d. In the case of computer games, you get a lot more performance
by upgrading to using a 32-bit processor.
d. In the case of computer games, you get a lot more performance by upgrading to using a 32-bit processor
EXPLANATION:
In the case of computer games, you’ll get a better performance by upgrading the video
card and using a 64-bit processor
35
Which of the following are gadgets types? (choose all that apply)
a. Web gadgets
b. Sidebar gadgets
c. Sideshow gadgets
d. Device management gadgets
A, B, and C
a. Web gadgets
b. Sidebar gadgets
c. Sideshow gadgets
EXPLANATION:
Web gadgets run on a Web site, such as Bing.com or Spaces.
Sidebar gadgets run on the desktop or the Windows Sidebar.
Sideshow gadgets run on auxiliary external displays, such as on the outside of a laptop
or LCD panel in a keyboard.
36
Which of the following statements is not correct about Easy Transfer?
a. Windows Easy Transfer is a specialized file transfer program
developed by Microsoft that allows users to transfer
personal files.
b. Easy Transfer was introduced in Windows XP and is included in
Windows 7, Windows 8, and Windows 8.1.
c. Several transfer methods can be used for Windows Easy Transfer.
d. Windows Easy Transfer does not support migration from a 64-bit to a 32-bit system.
b. Easy Transfer was introduced in Windows XP and is included in Windows 7, Windows 8, and Windows 8.1.
EXPLANATION:
Windows Easy Transfer was introduced in Windows Vista and is included in the Windows
7, Windows 8, and Windows 8.1 operating systems. It replaces the Files and Settings
Transfer Wizard included with Windows XP and offers limited migration services for
computers running Windows 2000 Service Pack 4 and Windows XP Service Pack 2.
37
Which of the following statements is wrong about compatibility tools on Windows?
a. ACT is a lifecycle management tool that assists in identifying
and managing your overall application portfolio.
b. They analyze your portfolio of applications, websites,
and computers.
c. These tools prioritize application compatibility efforts with
filtered reporting.
d. ACT 5.0 does not include the Compatibility Administrator tool.
d. ACT 5.0 does not include the Compatibility Administrator tool.
EXPLANATION:
ACT 5.0 includes the Compatibility Administrator tool, which enables you to resolve
many of your potential application compatibility issues before deploying a new version
of Windows to your organization.
38
Which of the following boot methods is faster and more customizable?
a. USB Drive
b. PXE
c. NetBoot
d. None of these
a. USB Drive
EXPLANATION:
For faster and more customizable installations, we can use a USB drive which must have
at least 4GB of free space (for Windows 7). The USB drive can store both the Windows
source files and any additional software and drivers.
39
Which of the following parts are used to setting up a domain name for a website? (choose all that apply)
a. Registering a domain name
b. Domain setup on DNS server
c. Configuring web server for domain
d. None of these
A, B & C
a. Registering a domain name
b. Domain setup on DNS server
c. Configuring web server for domain
EXPLANATION:
A domain name needs to be registered with one of the approved domain registrars for a
yearly registration fee.
```
A DNS server maps a domain name to the IP address of the web server and mail server so
that a client can connect to the web or mail server using the domain name and not the IP
address. A forward lookup zone is created for the domain name in the DNS server. Start
of Authority (SOA), Name server (NS), Hostname (A), Canonical Names (CNAME) and Mail
eXchange (MX) entries are added to the forward lookup zone.
```
The web server needs to be configured appropriately to handle the request for the
domain based on either the IP address or the host header entry. Host headers are
commonly used by web servers to host multiple domains on one IP address.
40
Which of the following types of network connection are required for a wireless access point?
a. Wired
b. Wireless
c. Dial-Up Connections
d. None of these
b. Wireless
EXPLANATION:
Wireless doesn’t use cables. You need to ensure that a wireless access point (WAP) is
functioning within the network and configure the client to connect to it.
41
Which of the following is a Windows command?
a. man
b. who
c. bootrec
d. None of these
c. bootrec
EXPLANATION:
The bootrec utility is a tool provided by Microsoft in Windows Recovery Environment, or
the Windows RE. When your computer fails to start, Windows automatically starts this in
Windows RE.
42
Shell is an operating system.
True
False
FALSE
EXPLANATION:
A shell is not an operating system. It is an interface to the operating system and runs
the commands.
43
What are the roles of a device manager?
a. Shows installed and configured hardware
b. Modify hardware settings
c. Troubleshoot problems
d. All of these
d. All of these
EXPLANATION:
The programs available in Administrative Tools can be used to format hard drives, change
how the operating system starts and ends.
In Administrative Tools, Event Viewer is an MMC snap-in used to view information,
used to identify a problem that has occurred in Windows, especially when an issue has
occurred but no clear error message was received.
44
How do you calculate the color depth of a picture?
a. Number of colors on a monitor’s screen
b. Bit depth
c. Resolution of the picture
d. All of these
d. All of these
EXPLANATION:
The number of colors available is often referred to as the color depth. The number of bits
used to describe a pixel is known as its bit depth. Color bit depth refers to the number
of bits used to describe the color of a single pixel. The bit depth determines the number
of colors that can be displayed at one time. Color depth of the picture is calculated
depending on the number of colors on a monitor’s screen and resolution of the picture.
Choose the highest setting available at the preferred resolution for the monitor.
45
Which of the following tools is used to repair disks in Mac OS X? (choose all that apply)
a. Disk Utility
b. fsck
c. Time Machine
d. Spotlight
A & B
a. Disk Utility
b. fsck
EXPLANATION:
Mac OS X provides two utilities called Disk Utility and fsck to verify and repair disks. Fsck
is a command-line utility.
46
Which of the following are ways you can implement virtualization? (choose all that apply)
a. host-based
b. stand-alone server
c. Windows XP
d. none of these
A and B
a. host-based
b. stand-alone server
EXPLANATION:
You can implement virtualization in two ways: with a host-based virtualization or a stand-alone server that hosts virtual machines.
47
Which is correct about a virtual desktop infrastructure? (choose all that apply)
a. By using VDI, an organization can host multiple, unique
client images.
b. Computing takes place on the client machine.
c. The application images are pushed over the network to the
client machine.
d. None of these
A & C
a. By using VDI, an organization can host multiple, unique
client images.
c. The application images are pushed over the network to the
EXPLANATION:
The virtual desktop infrastructure allows you to run many virtual machines on a single
server. By using VDI, an organization can host multiple, unique client images each in a
virtual machine on a single server or group of servers
In VDI all computation and storage is centralized. The application images are pushed
over the network to the client machine by using remote desktop protocol.
48
Which of the following statements is correct about Microsoft Cloud Technologies? (choose all that apply)
a. Microsoft Azure
b. Office 365
c. Vsphere
d. Hyper-V
A, B & D
a. Microsoft Azure
b. Office 365
d. Hyper-V
EXPLANATION:
Microsoft Azure is a complete cloud platform that offers PaaS and IaaS services.
Enterprises can build their own applications on Azure services, and can provision and
manage virtual machines that are hosted in Azure data centers.
Office 365 is a SaaS version of Microsoft Office. Enterprises can purchase Office 365
subscriptions that include productivity applications such as Microsoft Word and
Microsoft Excel. Online services, including a hosted SharePoint Server, can be consumed
through a browser or from locally-installed Microsoft Office applications.
Hyper-V is Microsoft’s virtualization technology, providing the foundation for its public
and private cloud platform. Azure is based on Hyper-V, and enterprises can use the same
virtualization capabilities to host their own private cloud services.
49
Which of the following benefits are provided by the web server (IIS) role? (choose all that apply)
a. Insecure
b. Easy to manage
c. Unified web platform
d. None of these
B & C
b. Easy to manage
c. Unified web platform
EXPLANATION:
```
Easily deploy and run ASP.NET, classic ASP, and PHP web applications on the same server.
IIS 8 is a unified web platform that integrates IIS, ASP.NET, FTP services, PHP, and Windows
Communication Foundation (WCF).
```
50
Which of the following web server (IIS) features is deprecated in Windows
Server 2012?
a. NUMA-aware scalability
b. IIS CPU Throttling
c. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in
d. None of these
c. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in
The Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager 6.0 Microsoft Management Console
(MMC) snap-in is deprecated in Windows Server 2012. It will be removed in a future
release of Windows Server.
51
Which of the following new features were added for DHCP server in Windows Server 2012?
a. DHCP failover
b. Policy-based assignment
c. PowerShell cmdlets for DHCP Server
d. All of these
d. All of these
EXPLANATION:
The ability to deploy two DHCP servers for high availability of DHCP services to clients,
including replicating lease information between DHCP servers, can be deployed in a nonclustered
failover configuration that includes multi-subnet support.
DHCP policies use values obtained from the vendor class, user class, MAC address, and
client identifier, and also relay agent information.
Windows 2012 introduces numerous PowerShell cmdlets not only to add the DHCP role,
but also to configure the scopes.
52
Which of the following is not a commonly used authentication method for Windows?
a. TACACS+
b. RADIUS
c. TCP
d. None of these
a. TACACS+
EXPLANATION:
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) is similar to RADIUS but is used with Unix networks
53
Which of the following are used in intrusion prevention systems detection methods? (choose all that apply)
a. Signature based
b. Statistical anomaly based
c. Host based
d. None of these
A & B
a. Signature based
b. Statistical anomaly based
EXPLANATION:
Signature-based IDS monitors packets in the network and compares them with preconfigured and predetermined attack patterns known as signatures.
A statistical anomaly-based IDS determines the normal network activity, like what sort
of bandwidth is generally used, what protocols are used, what ports and devices are
generally connect to each other, and alerts the administrator or user when traffic is
detected which is anomalous (not normal).
54
Which of the following statements is correct about BIOS? (choose all that apply)
a. It’s a software tool
b. It is a CPU independent architecture
c. It allows you to set the boot order priority
d. None of these
A & C
a. It’s a software tool
c. It allows you to set the boot order priority
EXPLANATION:
BIOS is a software tool that provides a basic instruction set for booting a computer. When
you switch on your system, it runs the program within BIOS so that it can locate the hard
disk and start the operating system. BIOS also allows you to set the boot order priority.
55
Which of the following is correct about safe mode? (choose all that apply)
a. It is a troubleshooting tool.
b. It loads the full operating system.
c. Safe mode provides an interface to fix problems
d. All of these
A & C
a. It is a troubleshooting tool.
c. Safe mode provides an interface to fix problems
EXPLANATION:
Safe mode is a troubleshooting tool for Windows. The aim of the safe mode is to provide
an interface where you can fix the problems that occur during a normal boot and then
reboot into normal mode.
56
Which of the following statements is correct about best practices for malware removal? (choose all that apply)
a. Quarantine infected system
b. Disable System Restore
c. Schedule Scans and Updates
d. None of these
A, B, & C
a. Quarantine infected system
b. Disable System Restore
c. Schedule Scans and Updates
EXPLANATION:
Once you identify the malware in your system, quarantine your system to avoid infecting
other systems. It is better to disable System Restore, because malware is so advanced
it knows about System Restore points and infects them. The chance of getting affected
from malware is slim. Most antimalware programs can be configured to automatically
run scans or you can schedule it for specific intervals.
57
Nano-ITX is used in: (choose all that apply)
a. Desktop systems
b. Car PCs
c. Set top boxes
d. None of these
B & C
b. Car PCs
c. Set top boxes
EXPLANATION:
Nano and Pico-ITX are used in embedded systems and specialized devices like routers,
set top boxes, and Car PCs.
58
What is the size of the microATX?
a. 9.6 x 9.6 inch
b. 12 x 9.6 inch
c. 5.9 x 5.9 inch
d. None of these
A.
a. 9.6 x 9.6 inch
EXPLANATION:
```
A microATX (μATX) motherboard uses standard ATX connections. It is 30 percent smaller
than the standard ATX. It is 9.6 by 9.6 inches.
```
59
In ATX computers, if you hold the power button more than 4 seconds, the system will go into what mode by default?
a. Suspend mode
b. Power off
c. Reset
d. Hibernation
B
b. Power off
EXPLANATION:
In ATX computers, if you held the power button more than four seconds, the system will
power off by default.
60
Which of the following statements is correct about RAM and ROM? (choose all that apply)
a. RAM chips remember things only while a computer is
powered on.
b. ROM chips remember things whether or not the power is on.
They’re preprogrammed with information in the factory.
c. RAM and ROM are the most helpful names in the world.
d. The main memory inside a computer is based on two kinds
of chip
A, B, & C
a. RAM chips remember things only while a computer is
powered on.
b. ROM chips remember things whether or not the power is on.
c. RAM and ROM are the most helpful names in the world.
EXPLANATION:
The chips that make up a computer’s internal memory come in two broad flavors known
as RAM (random access memory) and ROM (read-only memory). RAM chips remember
things only while a computer is powered on, so they are used for storing whatever a
computer is working on in the very short term. ROM chips, on the other hand, remember
things whether or not the power is on. They’re preprogrammed with information in the
factory and used to store things like the computer’s BIOS, the basic input/output system
that operates fundamental things like the computer’s screen and keyboard.
The main memory inside a computer is based on two kinds of chip: a temporary, volatile
kind that remembers only while the power is on (RAM) and a permanent, nonvolatile
kind that remembers whether the power is on or off (ROM).
61
The operating system is: (choose all that apply)
a. a software that manages the communication between the
components of a system.
b. an interface between the system and the user.
c. a hardware component.
d. None of these
A & B
a. a software that manages the communication between the components of a system.
b. an interface between the system and the user.
EXPLANATION:
An operating system is a software that manages the communication between
different components of the computer. They also act as an interface between the user
and the system.
62
Which interface is used to connect SATA hard disk with the computer?
a. IDE
b. SATA cable
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
B
b. SATA cable
EXPLANATION:
You need an interface to connect a hard disk to your computer and transfer data from
and to the disk. The most commonly used interfaces are small computer system interface
SCSI, IDE, PATA and SATA. SATA cables support SATA hard disk.
63
Video card can be connected through which of these? (choose all that apply)
a. PCI
b. PCIe
c. AGP
d. None of these
A, B, & C
a. PCI
b. PCIe
c. AGP
EXPLANATION:
You can connect a video card to the motherboard in three ways: PCI, AGP and PCIe bus.
64
Which component breaks the data into small units called frames?
a. USB
b. PCI slot
c. NIC
d. None of these
C.
c. NIC
EXPLANATION:
The NIC breaks the data file into small data units known as frames to send across the network.
65
Thunderbolt 2 allows you to transfer data up to how much?
a. 20 Gbps
b. 10 Gbps
c. 40 Gbps
d. 30 Gbps
A.
a. 20 Gbps
EXPLANATION:
Thunderbolt 2 transfers data up to 20 Gbps.
66
What are the possible causes for a CPU overheating? (choose all that apply)
a. The fan sitting on top of a CPU may not be working.
b. An exhaust fan at the rear of the computer cabinet may not be
working.
c. The thermal compound is not uniformly spread.
d. Ventilation for flow of air in and out is not right.
A, B, C, and D
a. The fan sitting on top of a CPU may not be working.
b. An exhaust fan at the rear of the computer cabinet may not be
working.
c. The thermal compound is not uniformly spread.
d. Ventilation for flow of air in and out is not right.
EXPLANATION:
The fan sitting on top of a CPU to take out the heat may not be working.
An exhaust fan at the rear of the computer cabinet may not have a power supply or may
not be working at all. You will have to ensure there is a power supply and replace/repair
the fan as appropriate
Check if the thermal compound is in good condition and that the spread has been
uniform and of sufficient quantity. Too much thermal paste could potentially impede the
heat transfer from CPU to heat sink. Too little paste, or paste not evenly spread, can also
result in a smaller amount of heat getting transferred to sink.
Check the ventilation to make sure there is a free flow of air in and out, and no dust or
any other material is obstructing the free flow of air into and out of the computer. Make
sure high generating equipment, such as a laser printer or multi-media projector, are
kept away from your computer.
67
Which of the following statements is not correct about
continuous reboots?
a. It signals a failure of some component.
b. A CPU may fail because of a physical trauma or short-circuit.
c. Continuous reboots could be caused by a motherboard failure.
d. They are not related to memory.
D.
d. They are not related to memory.
EXPLANATION:
Continuous reboots could be caused from an issue with the memory.
68
Which of the following tools is used to diagnose issues with your CPU and memory? (choose all that apply)
a. Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool
b. MemTest86
c. Mac Diagnostics
d. DocMemory
A, B, & D
a. Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool
b. MemTest86
d. DocMemory
When you receive a notification about a possible memory problem, click the notification
to choose between two options for when to run the Windows Memory Diagnostics Tool.
If it finds any errors, it is possible that the memory stick has a problem and you should
contact the manufacturer, if it is still under warranty, or replace it.
MemTest86 boots from a USB flash drive or CD and tests the RAM in your computer for
faults using a series of comprehensive algorithms and test patterns.
DocMemory Pro is a self-booting PC Memory Diagnostic Software. It is designed to
capture all possible memory failures in a PC. A rigorous test pattern is exercised on
both the PC base and extended memory to locate defective memory. DocMemory can
determine memory capacity and displays easy to read memory related information.
69
Loopback plug is a device that you can’t use to test ports such as serial, parallel USB, and network ports.
True
False
FALSE
EXPLANATION:
A loopback plug is a device that you can use to test ports such as serial, parallel USB and
network ports. You can identify network and network interface card issues. Loopback
plug equipment facilitates the testing of simple networking issues. A loopback plug
device is classified as male or female.
70
The “No boot device available” error occurs if the drive isn’t showing in the BIOS.
True
False
TRUE
BIOS automatically detects the hard drive, if there is no error.
71
Individual sectors in a hard drive get corrupted due to which of the following? (choose all that apply)
a. Check disk
b. Accidental shut down
c. Power fluctuations
d. All of these
B. Accidental shut down
C. Power fluctuations
EXPLANATION:
In most hard drives, individual sectors get corrupted because of accidental shutdowns of
the system, caused by power fluctuations.
72
In which RAID level will you get a critical stop error because of a drive failure?
a. RAID 1
b. RAID 01
c. RAID 0
d. None of these
C. RAID 0
EXPLANATION:
```
In case of RAID 0, if one of the drive fails you will get a critical stop error, or a Blue Screen
of Death (BSoD).
```
73
Which of the following statements is correct about RAM? (choose all that apply)
a. Memory is also called external storage.
b. Data can be either numeric or text.
c. Computers have a small amount of internal memory.
d. To complete a task, RAM holds temporarily memory
instructions.
B, C, and D
EXPLANATION:
Data can be numeric or text. In a computer, data is stored in bits and bytes. Computers
have a small amount of internal memory compared to a hard disk or tape drive. You
can call it main memory or RAM. To a complete task, RAM holds temporary memory
instructions and data, then the CPU accesses the data that is stored in the memory.
74
Which of the following statement is correct about RAM configuration?
a. RAM configurations are divided into parity checking, error
correction codes, single vs double-sided memory, and
channel memory.
b. Parity checking is an error detection technique that tests the
integrity of digital data in the computer.
c. Single-sided mode provides double-channel
bandwidth operations.
d. Dual-sided mode offers enabling higher memory passing
through the system.
A, B, & D
a. RAM configurations are divided into parity checking, error correction codes, single vs double-sided memory, and
channel memory.
b. Parity checking is an error detection technique that tests the integrity of digital data in the computer.
d. Dual-sided mode offers enabling higher memory passing
EXPLANATION:
RAM configurations are divided into parity checking, error correction codes, single vs double-sided memory and channel memory.
Parity checking is an error detection technique that tests the integrity of digital data in
the computer. Error correction codes allow data to be detected and corrected. Singlesided
memory has chips on one side of RAM module and double-sided memory has chips
on both sides of the RAM module.
Dual-sided mode offers enabling higher memory passing through the system
when the memory capacities of both DIMM channels are equal. Triple-channel insert
pages and reduces the time interval of overall memory by accessing the DIMM
memory sequentially.
75
Traditional hard disks are composed of which of the following?
a. Platters
b. Read/Write heads
c. Memory chips
d. None of these
A & B
a. Platters
b. Read/Write heads
EXPLANATION:
The traditional hard disk drive is composed of platters or individual disks with read-write heads
76
Which of the following statements is correct about cooling systems?
a. Computer peripherals are becoming advanced to make the
work faster, due to this, more heat is produced by these
electronic components.
b. To make air move through the unit and remove excess
heat and to keep the components working within safe
operating temperatures.
c. Excess heat that is not removed by sufficient cooling can
negatively impact the functioning of the central processing unit
and can cause circuits and components to become unstable.
d. All of these
D.
d. All of these
a. Computer peripherals are becoming advanced to make the work faster, due to this, more heat is produced by these electronic components.
.b. To make air move through the unit and remove excess
heat and to keep the components working within safe
operating temperatures.
c. Excess heat that is not removed by sufficient cooling can negatively impact the functioning of the central
processing unit and can cause circuits and components to become unstable.
EXPLANATION:
A system has many electronic components such as a central processing unit, RAM, and
motherboard. Computer peripherals are becoming advanced to make the work faster;
due to this, more heat is produced by these electronic components.
Systems require cooling and ventilation. To make air move through the unit and remove
excess heat and to keep the components working within safe temperatures. Cooling
heat around the central processing unit is always a cause for concern as the temperature
of the interiors of a PC increase due to the amount of heat generated by the central
processing unit.
Excess heat that is not removed by sufficient cooling can negatively impact the
functioning of the central processing unit and can cause circuits and components to
become unstable. If the temperature increases beyond the limit, then the heat interferes
with the proper functioning of the PC and can cause serious problems.
77
What are the main components of HDD?
a. Cylinder
b. HBA
c. Controller
d. None of these
B & C
b. HBA
c. Controller
EXPLANATION:
The main components of hard disk drives are controller and host bus adaptor, or HBA.
78
Data can be read or written in optical disks by using what?
a. Laser
b. Read/write head
c. UV light
d. None of these
A.
a. Laser
EXPLANATION:
Data can be read or written in optical disks by using lasers.
79
Both CD and DVD drive speeds are based on a multiple of the original CDROM drive speed. What is the speed?
a. 100 KBps
b. 150 KBps
c. 150 MBps
d. 200 MBps
B.
b. 150 KBps
EXPLANATION:
The record speed and read speed are both measured in a multiple of 150 KBps of the original CD-ROM drives.
80
Network attached storage (NAS) transfers files by using a protocol called:
a. Fiber channel
b. Network File System (NFS)
c. SATA
d. None of these
B.
b. Network File System (NFS)
EXPLANATION:
In case of NAS, the file server serves files by using a network protocol like Network File System (NFS).
81
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Old CPUs are not bulky.
b. CPUs only come in one type of model
c. Intel and AMD are the only companies that manufacture CPUs
d. The latest processors are Intel core i7 and AMD Phenom II X4
D.
d. The latest processors are Intel core i7 and AMD Phenom II X4
EXPLANATION:
The latest processors are Intel core i7 and AMD Phenom II X4. Earlier versions of the
processors are also good.
82
Which of the following statements is correct about the thermal compound? (choose all that apply)
a. The thermal compound fills any air gaps between the heatproducing component and the heat sink.
b. The compound is also called thermal grease, thermal gel, thermal paste, and heat sink paste.
c. This material is coated on the bottom of the CPU.
d. None of these
A & B
a. The thermal compound fills any air gaps between the heatproducing component and the heat sink.
b. The compound is also called thermal grease, thermal gel, thermal paste, and heat sink paste.
EXPLANATION:
The thermal compound fills any air gaps between the heat-producing component and
the heat sink, allowing a more efficient transfer of heat. Be careful when applying this
paste. You don’t want to use too much, just enough to fill in the air gaps between the
CPU and heat sink. Thermal compounds are also called thermal grease, thermal gel,
thermal paste, heat sink paste, and many other things.
83
Processor speeds can be varied by: (choose all that apply)
a. Power management settings
b. BIOS settings
c. By turning the voltage regulator
d. None of these
A & B
a. Power management settings
b. BIOS settings
EXPLANATION:
Speed can be varied by power management settings or by the BIOS, in the event the
processor overheats.
84
Which of the following statements is correct about overheating? (choose all that apply)
a. Overheating of the CPU is caused by a temperature problem.
b. If the CPU is overheating, it can cause the computer to
shut down.
c. You can improve air exchange by reorganizing the cables and
hardware to maximize air circulation.
d. Always be sure that the air from the hot components is vented
outside the case.
A, B, C & D
a. Overheating of the CPU is caused by a temperature problem.
b. If the CPU is overheating, it can cause the computer to shut down.
c. You can improve air exchange by reorganizing the cables and
hardware to maximize air circulation.
d. Always be sure that the air from the hot components is vented outside the case.
EXPLANATION:
Overheating of the CPU caused by a temperature problem is definitely a bad sign as it
can destroy the processor and can cause failure in the hardware of the system and can
reboot it as well. If your CPU is overheating, it can cause the computer to reboot and
permanently damage your hardware. To overcome this you have to improve air exchange
in the case by reorganizing the cables and hardware to maximize air circulation. Ensure
that fresh air from outside is circulated toward components with high temperatures.
Always be sure that the air from the hot components is vented outside the case. Remove
the dust accumulated in the case and equip your PC with a heat sink and fan.
85
Resolution is defined as the maximum number of points that can be
displayed without overlapping.
True
False
TRUE
EXPLANATION:
The resolution can also be measured as the total number of points per centimeter.
Generally high quality resolution is 1280 by 024 and the resolution of the monitors also
depends on the size or length of the monitor.
86
Which of the following statements is not correct about degauss?
a. You can’t find degauss or discoloration of the image in
CRT monitors.
b. If you remove all external hard drives and electronic devices
away from the monitor you can decrease the problem.
c. CRT monitors have a button labeled “Degauss.”
d. When you press the degauss button, you’ll often hear a
loud sound.
A.
a. You can’t find degauss or discoloration of the image in CRT monitors.
EXPLANATION:
You can find degaussing or discoloration of the image in CRT monitors. If you place
magnetic material too close to the monitor you will see degaussing.
87
Which of the following statements is correct about aspect ratio?
a. Aspect ratio represents the width and height of an image.
b. Two common aspect ratios are 4:2 for normal computer
monitors and 14:9 for widescreen monitors.
c. 16:9 aspect ratios is used for standard definition
television shows.
d. None of these
A.
a. Aspect ratio represents the width and height of an image.
EXPLANATION:
Aspect ratio represents the width and height of an image. If the aspect ratio is 5:8, 5 is
the height and 8 is the width of the image.
88
Which of the following are correct connectors for printers?
a. Serial Connections
b. Parallel Ports
c. Universal Serial.
d. Ethernet.
e. All of these
E. ALL OF THESE
a. Serial Connections
b. Parallel Ports
c. Universal Serial.
d. Ethernet.
EXPLANATION:
Computers send data serially, 1 bit at a time, one after the other. Your computer modem
uses PC serial connections or COM ports and connects them in line.
You can define a parallel port as a device connector that sends and receives several bits
of data by using more than one wire. Parallel communication is the most popular way of
communicating from a computer to a printer for many years, mainly because it’s faster
than a serial connection.
The most popular printer interface is the Universal Serial Bus (USB). USB has a higher
transfer rate than serial or parallel ports and automatically recognizes new devices. You
can connect USB port very easily.
Ethernet is a type of cable. Printers sold today have a wired Ethernet interface which
allows them to directly connect to an Ethernet cable. Printers have a network interface
card (NIC) and ROM-based software which allows them to communicate on the network
with servers and workstations. To connect to the Ethernet, you require an RJ-45 for an
Ethernet connection.
89
How many categories are there for modern printers?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 2
C. 6
EXPLANATION:
Modern printers can be categorized into several broad types: impact, inkjet, dyesublimation, thermal, laser, and solid ink.
90
Which of the following is not a critical element of laser printers?
a. Toner Cartridge
b. Photosensitive Drum
c. Erase Toner
d. Primary Corona/Charge Roller
C. Erase Toner
There is no element called erase toner, though there is an erase lamp. It exposes the
entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light, making the photosensitive coating
conductive. The electrical charge present in the particles falls into the grounded drum,
leaving the surface particles electrically neutral.
91
What is the proper order of the laser printing process?
a. Clean, expose, develop, transfer, process, fuse, and charge.
b. Process, charge, expose, develop, transfer, fuse, and clean.
c. Clean, charge, expose, process, develop, fuse, and transfer.
d. Process, clean, charge, expose, develop, transfer, and fuse.
B. Process, charge, expose, develop, transfer, fuse, and clean.
EXPLANATION:
The proper order in laser printing process is process, charge, expose, develop, transfer,
fuse, and clean
92
What are the physiological and behavioral characteristics used in
biometric system? (choose all that apply)
a. Fingerprints
b. Facial images
c. Iris scan
d. Voice pattern
A. Fingerprints
B. Facial images
C. Iris scan
D. Voice pattern
EXPLANATION:
A fingerprint, facial images, iris scan, and voice patterns are used in biometric systems to identify a person.
93
Which of the following media can used to transmit computer viruses?
(choose all that apply)
a. Internet
b. USB flash drives
c. Mails
d. Computer viruses don’t need any medium, they can spread on
their own
A. Internet
B. USB flash drives
C. Mails
EXPLANATION:
With the help of the Internet, computers are connected together. The Internet acts as a
gateway for a virus to move from one computer to another computer.
Data transferring devices like floppy disks and USB flash drives can act as a medium for
transmitting viruses. If the data—which is transferred using these devices—contains
infected files, the computer or device where the data is transferred also gets infected
with the virus.
Unknown links, downloads, and files which are forwarded through mails can contain
Virus files. Mails act as medium through which Virus is spread through Internet.
94
Which of the following two groups are the most common local user
groups in Windows? (choose all that apply)
a. Users
b. Account Operators
c. Administrators
d. None of these
A. Users
C. Administrators
EXPLANATION:
Members of the Users group can perform the most common tasks, such as running
applications, using local and network printers, and locking the server. By default, the
Domain Users group, Authenticated Users, and Interactive are members of this group.
Members of this group have full control of all domain controllers in the domain.
By default, the Domain Admins and Enterprise Admins groups are members of the
Administrators group. The Administrator account is also a default member.
95
Which of the following screen locks has expanded protection mode?
a. Passcode Lock
b. SwipeLock
c. FaceLock
d. None of these
C. FaceLock
EXPLANATION:
Use FaceLock to protect your apps with your face! Your face is the key that unlocks them.
You can use FaceLock to protect your cell phone against theft.
96
Which of the following authentication method uses more than one
method to authenticate?
a. Biometric authentication
b. Multi-factor authentication
c. Facial authentication
d. None of these
B. Multi-factor authentication
Multi-factor authentication is a security system that requires more than one method of
authentication from independent categories of credentials to verify the user’s identity for
a login or other transaction.
97
Which of the following statements is correct about electromagnetic
interference?
a. A current carrying conductor acts as an antenna when exposed
to high frequency electromagnetic signals.
b. Unwanted electromagnetic interference is diverted to a ground
when a printed circuit board is grounded.
c. The capacitor and solder on a printed circuit board can cause
electromagnetic interference.
d. With a decrease in the size of printed circuit boards,
electromagnetic interference decreases.
D. With a decrease in the size of printed circuit boards, electromagnetic interference decreases.
EXPLANATION:
With the decrease in a printed circuit board size, chips become closer to each other. This
increases the electromagnetic interference.
98
Why isn’t a regular vacuum cleaner not suitable for removing spilled
toner? (choose all that apply)
a. It could cause a fire inside the vacuum cleaner
b. A vacuum is not capable of removing toner particles
c. It consumes more electrical power
d. A static electric charge is developed because of the
toner particles
A. It could cause a fire inside the vacuum cleaner
D. A static electric charge is developed because of the toner particles
EXPLANATION:
When we remove toner particles with a vacuum cleaner, static charges are developed in
it and can ignite the dust particles, causing a fire inside the vacuum cleaner.
99
Which of the following is not universally accepted?
a. EULA
b. Licensing
c. DRM
d. All of these
C. DRM
EXPLANATION:
Digital rights management (DRM) is a term referring to various access control
technologies that are used to restrict the usage of proprietary software, hardware, or
content. DRM includes technologies that control the use, modification, and distribution
of copyrighted works, as well as systems within devices that enforce these policies. The
use of digital rights management is not universally accepted.
