Conditions (2) Flashcards

1
Q

Name 2 drugs that can be given to attenuate alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

A

Name 2 drugs that Diazepam or Chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride (both long acting Benzodiazepines)

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2
Q

What drug can be given in acute alcohol withdrawal?

A

Carbamazepine

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3
Q

Inpatients that are being treated for alcohol withdrawal, what drug should you not give them if there is a possibility that they will go back to drinking (even if its a small ml of alcohol)?

Why?

A

Clomethiazole because when mixed with alcohol, it causes respiratory depression.

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4
Q

What is first line treatment for delirium tremens?

(If patient is showing indications of delirium tremens they should be referred as an inpatient)

2nd line treatment?

A

First line: Oral lorazepam

Second line: Parental lorazepam (or haloperidol can also be given as an adjunctive therapy)

(Haloperidol is an anti-psychotic)

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5
Q

Disulfiram is second line treatment for prevention of relapse in alcohol dependence (whilst they are going to cognitive behavioural therapy).

What are two drugs that are first line treatment?

A

Oral Naltrexone hydrochloride

Acamprosate calcium

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6
Q

Name 3 antimuscarinics

A

Darifenacin

Oxybutynin

Tolterodine

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7
Q

Name 3 sedating antihistamines.

Name 2 non-sedating antihistamines.

A

Sedating:

  • Chlorphenamine
  • Hydroxyzine
  • Cyclizine

Non-sedating:

  • Loratadine
  • Cetirizine
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8
Q

Name a drug that can be used for the ST treatment of Insomnia?

A

Zopiclone

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9
Q

What drug can be given to treat/reduce flare ups of Gout

A

Allopurinol

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10
Q

LT use of Amitriptyline can have what GI side effects and what can this lead to?

A

Reduced GI motility leading to constipation, which could possibly lead to haemorrhoids

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11
Q

Give 5 indications of Pregabalin (a VGCC antagonists)

A
  1. Central and peripheral neuropathic pain
  2. Focal seizures with or without secondary generalised seizures
  3. Generalised anxiety disorder
  4. Fibromyalgia
  5. Restless leg syndrome
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12
Q

What 3 different category of drugs can be used for neuropathic pain?

A
  1. Anticonvulsants
  2. Tricyclic antidepressants
  3. SSRIs
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13
Q

A nose infection by a Staphylococcus agent can cause nose bleeds.

What drug can be given to treat them (give trade name as well).

Sprayed 4 times a day for 10 days.

A

Naseptin (trade name)

Chlorhexidine with Neomycin

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14
Q

Patients taking TNFa inhibitors are at a higher risk of developing what cancer?

A

Nonmelanoma skin cancers - particularly SCC

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15
Q

If a patient is on more than or equal to 7.5mg daily oral steroids for 3 months or more, what drug should you give them to protect them from osteoporosis (as they are at a high risk of it)?

Name the drug group and give 2 examples

A

A bisphosphonate (Alendronic acid or Risedronic acid)

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16
Q

Name 2 side effects of Erythromycin.

If a patient has had a history of these SE and would prefer a different antibiotic, what would you give them instead?

A

Erythromycin can cause nausea and cramps.

Give the Clarithromycin instead.

17
Q

Name 2 topical antiseptics

A

Chlorhexidine

Triclosan

18
Q

Name 2 topical antipruritic agents

A
  1. Topical menthol 1% in aqueous cream

2. Calamine lotion

19
Q

Quinolones have what effect on Theophylline and other drugs that are also metabolised by CYP450

A

Quinolones inhibit the metabolism of drugs via CYP450 enzymes, thus this drug levels are found at higher levels in the plasma.

High plasma Theophylline levels leads to an increased risk of convulsions

20
Q

Adcal D3 and Evacal D3 are 2 trade names for drugs.

What are these drugs made up of?

A

Colecalciferol (Vitamin D3) and Calcium carbonate

21
Q

Discuss the treatment plan for beta blockers after an MI

A

Give the beta blockers, initially at the lowest dose, then titrate up to the highest dose or the most tolerable dose before they leave the hospital.

The pt then stays on the beta blocker for 12 months. If they have heart failure or left ventricular systolic dysfunction, they stay on the beta blocker for life

22
Q

What is a common SE of bisphosphonates that are not taken properly?

What does the pt need to do to in order to not have this SE.

Give two other steps that the pt needs to do when taking this pill.

A

Oesophagitis.

Once you’ve taken this medication, you need to be upright for a whole 30 minutes (prevents indigestion).

Need to take the pill whole.

Can’t eat anything or take any other pills for 30 minutes after taking this pill because it can affect the efficacy of this pill.

23
Q

If a pt is taking a bisphosphonate and a calcium/bisphosphonate, describe how they can take it.

A

Don’t take the calcium and vitamin D (e.g. Adval-D3) within 4 hours of taking a bisphosphonate but ensure you take the calcium/vitamin D pill in the same day.

24
Q

Fully describe a treatment plan for a pt with DKA (5)

A
  1. Need to replace 5-8L of fluid (as this tis the typical range of fluid loss in DKA). (Irregardless of them being severely ACIDOTIC, they still need) 0.9% Saline AND K+
  2. Place an ECG to monitor whether they are hypo or hyperkalaemic
  3. Give SHORT ACTING INSULIN INFUSION - 0.1unit/kg/hr
  4. Once blood glucose is <15mmol/L - give them 5DW
  5. Now change to LONG ACTING INSULIN INFUSION
25
Q

Give 4 criteria in the Joint British Diabetes Societies DKA criteria

A
  • Glucose >11mmol.L or known DM
  • pH <7.30
  • HCO3- <15 mmol.L (metabolic acidosis)
  • Ketones >3mmol.L or Ketone ++ urine dipstick
26
Q

Give 3 causes of DKA.

A
  • Missed insulin dose
  • MI
  • Infection (e.g. chest)
27
Q

Common presentation of DKA

A
  • Acetone smelling breath
  • Kussmaul respiration (deep hyperventilation)
  • Abdominal pain
  • Vomiting
    (plus screen for possible causes - infection, MI, skipped insulin dose if a known diabetic)