Conditions Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

diet in coeliac disease

A

gluten free

s/o to Matt xo

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2
Q

which scoring system is used for malnutrition

A

MUST score

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3
Q

complication of feeding someone that was previously malnutritioned

what is it

what can it result in

A

refeeding syndrome

when electrolyte levels shift fatally

arrhythmias, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia

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4
Q

is oesophagitis reversible

what does oesophagitis progress to if untreated, is this reversible

A

yes

barretts oesophagus - no its irreversible

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5
Q

what can barretts oesophagus predispose

A

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

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6
Q

treatment of GORD (2)

A

PPI eg omeprazole to decrease gastric acid secretion

antacids OTC for symptomatic relief

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7
Q

what does GORD predispose

A

oesophagitis (then barretts oesophagus then oesophageal adenocarcinoma)

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8
Q

what is the cell change form oesophagitis to barretts oesophagus

A

stratified squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium with goblet cells

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9
Q

prognosis of oesophageal cancer (good or bad)

A

v bad

10% 5 year survival

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10
Q

where does barretts oesophagus occur

A

lower 1/3 of oesophagus

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11
Q

which type of oesophageal cancer arises in the upper oesophagus

which virus is it associated with

A

squamous cell carcinoma

HPV

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12
Q

curative treatment of oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

surgery

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13
Q

palliative treatment of oesophageal adenocarcinoma(what most people get) (3)

A

stent to open tube
chemo
radio

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14
Q

bacterial cause of peptic ulcers

A

h pylori

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15
Q

drug cause of peptic ulcers

A

NSAIDs

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16
Q

treatment of peptic ulcer

A

PPI (eg omeprazole) to decrease acid secretion

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17
Q

is coeliac disease an allergy or autoimmune condition

A

autoimmune condition against IgA antibody

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18
Q

what do the villi (finger like projections) look like in coeliac disease

A

flattened = reduces absorption

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19
Q

which antibody is present in coeliac disease

A

anti-TTG

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20
Q

where is the meckels diverticulum (if you have one)

A

2 inches long, 2 feet above the iliocaecal valve, in 2% of people (rule of 2s)

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21
Q

where does UC start/go to

A

rectum (to ileocaecal valve)

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22
Q

is UC a thinning or thickening of mucosa

A

thinning (ulceration)

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23
Q

IBD

crypt abscesses
continuous inflammation (not patchy)
bloody diarrhoea
neutrophils

A

ulcerative colitis

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24
Q

IBD

patchy inflammation 
knife like fissures 
cobblestoning of mucosa
granulomas 
weight loss, anaemia, mouth ulcers
A

crohns

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25
where does crohns occur is the inflammation patchy or continuous
anywhere between mouth and anus | patchy inflammation
26
is crohns a thinning or thickening of mucosa
thickening (UC is ulceration = thinning)
27
first line treatment of UC
mesalazine
28
first line treatment of crohns (2)
steroids | stop smoking
29
what is IBS
GI upset with no pathological problem
30
treatment of IBS (4)
exercise reduce stress (it aggravates it) diet psych help
31
risk of untreated appendicitis
peritonitis
32
bowel cancer screening
qFIT (used to be FOB) | colonoscopy if positive
33
3 sites of varices caused by portal hypertension in areas of venous/portal anastomosis
oesophagus, umbilicus, rectum
34
PR bleeding - fresh blood | chronic constipation
haemorrhoids (piles)
35
diarrhoea treatment (class and example)
antimotility drugs eg loperamide
36
constipation treatment (2)
lifestyle - exercise, fluids, fibre, fruit | laxatives
37
what stage of liver pathology from alcohol is irreversible
fibrosis (months-years of drinking)
38
in alcoholic hepatitis which is raised more ALT or AST
AST (bc they wASTed)
39
IgM positive biliary duct condition
primary sclerosing cholangitis (autoimmune destruction)
40
IgM and AMA (antimitochondrial antibody) positive biliary duct condition
primary biliary cholangitis/cirrhosis (autoimmune granulomatous inflammation) antim i tochondrial antibody = pr i mary, b i liary c i rrhosis
41
painless jaundice
viral hepatitis
42
which autoimmune condition is associated with ulcerative colitis
primary sclerosing cholangitis
43
which viral hep is associated with gaymen
hep A
44
viral hep associated with deers, pigs and rabbits
hep E
45
which viral hep causes a super infection if occurring alongside hep B
hep D
46
most common viral hep in UK | can be transmitted from mother to baby, tattoos or blood transfusions
hep C
47
where does bilirubin come from
break down product of RBC (can be conjugated or unconjugated depending on it its been through the liver or not)
48
sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates through to back cullens sign/grey turners sign high serum amylase
pancreatitis
49
what causes inflammation of the pancreas
bile reflux eg gallstones, alcohol (I GET SMASHED)
50
weight loss and jaundice
pancreatic cancer (causing obstructive jaundice)
51
treatment of ascites (2)
spironolactone | paracentesis
52
aetiology of c diff infection
inappropriate antibiotic use (4C antibiotics - coamoxiclav, clindamycin, ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins)
53
treatment of c diff infection (2)
metronidazole PO if moderate vancomycin PO if severe (when its DIFFICULT TO SEE you should take the METRO bc if you use the VAN it might be SEVERE, lol u crash) PO bc it goes straight to the gut = where the infection is
54
gastroenteritis; reheated rice, profuse vomiting, 6 hours
bacillus cereus
55
gastroenteritis; under cooked chicken, 48 hours, green diarrhoea
salmonella
56
gastroenteritis; raw poultry/milk, 5 days, severe abdo pain
campylobacter
57
gastroenteritis; animal contact, 2 days, bloody diarrhoea, stool culture
enterohaemorrhagic E.coli (ecoli 0157)
58
gastroenteritis; watery/profuse diarrhoea, kids under 3, outbreaks, PCR on stool (bc its viral)
rotavirus
59
gastroenteritis; explosive vomiting and diarrhoea, 2 days, highly infectious, do a PCR on stool
norovirus
60
investigation for ?bacterial gastroenteritis
stool culture
61
investigation for ?viral gastroenteritis
stool PCR
62
investigation for ?parasitic gastroenteritis
stool microscopy (can actually see them)
63
treatment of peritonitis (3)
amoxicillin IV, metronidazole IV and gentamicin IV
64
what is satiey
the period between meals
65
what is grehlin
hunger signal
66
drug treatment of obesity
orlistat
67
in a direct hernia, will it reappear once you have coughed after being occluded which ring does it travel through/come out of
yes directly out of the superficial ring
68
in an indirect hernia, will it reappear once you have cough after being occluded which rings does it travel through/come out of
no through the deep then superficial ring
69
how do you occlude a hernia to test whether its direct or indirect
occlude through the superficial ring then put pressure on the deep ring (direct comes through deep ring so it will not reappear on coughing)
70
gastroenteritis; traveller, watery profuse diarrhoea
cholera