Consolidation Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

You should check kidney function before which cytotoxic drug?

A

Methotrexate

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2
Q

Which cytotoxic drug is cardiotoxic?

A

Doxorubicin

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3
Q

Which cytotoxic drug is neurotoxic? What does this cause?

A

Vincristine
• Neuropathic pain
• Foot drop
• Severe constipation

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4
Q

Which cytotoxic drug can cause liver and kidney toxicity, alongside a skin rash?

A

Methotrexate (forms crystals)

-kidney function should be tested

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5
Q

Which ADR is characterised by epidermal necrosis causing blisters over 3-30% of the body?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome
• NSAIDS
• Penicillin
• Lamotrigine

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6
Q

Which class of antiviral can cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

Integrase inhibitors

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7
Q

Which antiviral drug is excreted though the small intestine as well as metabolised by CYP-P450?

A

Protease inhibitors:
• Darunavir
• Ritanovir

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8
Q

Class I, II and III denote side effect profiles for which classes of drugs? Recall them

A
Phenothiazines 
Thioxanthenes
I)  
II) Antimuscarinic
III) Extrapyrimidal side effects
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9
Q

Agranulocytosis is a side effect of which antipsychotic?

A

Clozapine

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10
Q

Weight gain and insulin-resistant diabetes are side effects of which antipsychotics?

A

Olanzapine

Risperidone

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11
Q
Which class of drugs have the followings affinities:
H2: Low
H3: High
H4: High
5-HT2A: High
A

2nd Generation Antipsychotics

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12
Q

Which nucleus is stimulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus and goes on to stimulate the arousal pathways?

A

Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus

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13
Q

What is the tuberomammillary nucleus?

A

Histaminergic nucleus

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14
Q

What does the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus do?

A

Releases GABA and galanine to inhibit the arousal pathways

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15
Q

For which cytotoxic drug should you inject intrathecal doses to prevent meningeal leukaemia?

A

Methotrexate

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16
Q

Which drug class is unique to chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Protein kinase inhibitors

17
Q

What is the precursor amino acid for 5-HT

18
Q

Which CPTP drugs are cardiotoxic?

A

TCAs:
• Amitriptiline
• Trazodone

Anthracyclines:
• Doxorubicin

19
Q

Galactorrhoea and gynecomastia is caused by what?

A

Inhibition of the tuberoinfundibular pathway D2 transmission (which acts as prolactin release inhibiting factor) (PRIF)

20
Q

Which component of the cephalosporin structure makes it mare resistant to beta-lactamases than the penicillins?

A

The Dihydrothiazine ring

21
Q

Which type of antibiotic can be used topically for burns victims?

A

Sulphonamides

• Co-trimoxazole

22
Q

What drug is typically used for UTIs, RTIs and immunocompromised patients?

A

Sulphonamides including trimethoprim

23
Q

Which bacteriocidal drug should never be used on pregnant women or neonates?

A

Sulphonamides

Penicillins for neonates due to poor removal

24
Q

Which drugs are malabsorbed with PPI use?

A

Protease inhibitors

25
Which drug is malabsorbed with calcium, magnesium and aluminium salts?
Doxycycline
26
Clarithromycin is particularly effective against?
* H. influenzae | * H. pylori
27
What are the long-acting NSAIDs?
Celecoxib and Naproxen
28
Which NSAID can cross the BBB?
Celecoxib
29
Which NSAID causes CVD?
Celecoxib
30
Which NSAID does not cause GI side effects?
Celecoxib (as it is COX-2 selective)
31
Which NSAID is COX-2 selective
Celecoxib
32
Which NSAID inhibits leukocytes?
Naproxen
33
Sedation and weight gain is due to what side effect of TCAs?
Anti-H1
34
Which drugs are used in the treatment of opioid adictions?
Naloxone - Used after some time has passed to reverse the lasting effects of addiction Methodone - 24hour agonist to stop the effects of withdrawl in cold turkey Alpha-2 agonists - Many of the cold turkey symptoms are mediated by locus coeruleus overactivity