Continuous Monitoring Flashcards
(92 cards)
A hunt team finds the following in a large TXT record on their recursive DNS server. This is a sign of which type of compromise?
Da3KdlPgmUait{.-VBcRgvkD7f7s0?W#7,6LO/22Ba2ax74[VC)U0-,A#qmslQp3D7tw”52X[w/z?9M{r-ow7s{h/1xlrEl9KfOL5-fy”Rm]@x!FLUHLT\wPXFeH0km/8slCqj-yz\;Mme:a}”!DPum6Ag2DgvGE-B2[#’q’-D1st(/TQ}F&*“gp!-@n)CwH9rLsdDbxU#CmgebhibHx1q”ULe0h38MDJ&8XrEQf&wn&ySe{wA,5qdQ]C0KvnfKz-HIZ}le8G2j]swISKGhTKP;0k?:,-m6JU2)WKGt7:uVi(d#_7sx)H
An internal host is part of a botnet
( Explanation )
The Zeus botnet took advantage of the fact that most DNS outbound requests are allowed (through perimeter defenses) and rarely inspected. The botnet used non-human-readable (gibberish) in large TXT requests and responses for C2 (command and control) traffic.
What can mitigate the risks of deploying patches?
A method for rolling back changes
Patch testing simply means pushing installs to less important production systems and waiting a set period of time for notification of catastrophic failure. Barring notification, patch deployment continues. In addition to testing the patches, organizations need to be able to recover quickly from unintended damage by backing out the patch
What is a critical element of an NSM report that will be reviewed by a corporate board?
A short executive summary
Which of the following tools would produce this type of output in a command-line terminal?
293 278.051467000 192.168.80.151 -> 192.168.80.145 TELNET 140 Telnet Data …
294 278.051480000 192.168.80.145 -> 192.168.80.151 TELNET 69 Telnet Data …
295 278.092498000 192.168.80.151 -> 192.168.80.145 TCP 66 telnet > 51029 [ACK] Seq=129 Ack=168 Win=15552 Len=0 TSval=85414173 TSecr=19626250
296 278.137446000 192.168.80.151 -> 192.168.80.145 TELNET 67 Telnet Data …[Malformed Packet]
Tshark
TShark is a command-line network traffic analysis tool, similar to a command-line Wireshark.
When tasked with reviewing IDS alerts, what information should be kept in mind regarding the context of the data?
The only information available could be the packet that caused the alert
IDS alerts often retain the packet that caused the alert but not the traffic after that making reconstruction of the attack difficult without additional sources of data.
How does a browser verify a server’s X.509 certificate?
Matching the certificate’s signature contents hash to the hash provided by the CA
The browser computes a hash based on the certificate’s signature contents. It then uses the signing CA’s public key to decrypt the digital signature generated by the CA, revealing the hash generated by the CA. Non-repudiation is proven if the hashes match: the certificate has not been changed (integrity), and the CA signed the certificate (authentication).
A CertificateVerify message is used in situation where both the server and the client are required to use certificates, and is used to verify the client’s cert. The certificate’s serial number is one of several fields that are part of the hash value, however, by itself the serial number cannot be used as verification because it too could be falsified. It is not possible for a browser to use the CA’s private key for any purpose (because only the CA will have access to its private key).
Which attack vector are VACLs best-suited to detect?
Internal pivoting
VACLS (VLAN ACLs) provide basic firewall capabilities on layer-2 devices and can be a significant benefit to detecting (and preventing) internal pivoting by an attacker. Given the basic capabilities of VACLs they do not provide significant benefits towards detecting SQLi, rogue WAPs, or data exfiltration.
Which of the following is a primary focus of threat intelligence?
Adversaries
Threat intelligence is the practice of seeking to understand various threat actors (adversaries) and their typical TTPs.
An analyst is researching the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of those who may be targeting their organization. The analyst is practicing which of the following?
Threat intelligence
Threat Intelligence is the practice of seeking to understand various threat actors and their typical TTPs.
Analyze the screenshot below. How should this data be correlated to get a list of unknown devices or services?
Hardware and software inventory
The PRADS log is in CSV (Comma Separated Values), meaning You can open it directly in a spreadsheet, which is quite handy. It can be correlated against hardware and software inventory to show a list of unknown devices and services
Which of the following features is provided by the free version of VirusTotal?
Checks to see if a website has a reputation for hosting malware
Though VirusTotal is primarily known simply for file analysis with respect to Antivirus, it has more capabilities than just that. One of the most important additional features is the URL scanning functionality.
An attacker has performed reconnaissance against your organization and populated a text file with words associated with your company (see image). Which of the following is their most likely objective?
Discover web hosts via brute force
A recon wordlist can be used by the dnsrecon tool to perform a web host discovery. A recon wordlist is not associated with a Ddos attack or a DNS zone file transfer.
Specific to NIDS; which of the following examples describes the technique of detecting malicious activity using analysis driven methodology?
Revealing an unusual user-agent and associated URI
( Explanation )
Revealing unusual user-agents / URIs is contextual in nature and requires analysis driven methodology. Hash values and directional-based is making use of signature matching (blacklisting) methodology Port scan discovery can be based on signature matching as well as anomaly based detection methods.
What guideline recommended that patches be deployed less than 48 hours after their release?
CIS Critical Security Controls v5
The CIS Critical Security Controls version 5 recommended that patches be deployed within 48 hours of release. This metric was typically met with denial and disagreement, and rarely reached acceptance. Both the CSC version 6 and NIST SP 800-40 do not give specific guidelines for the amount of time between release and deployment. The NIST SP 800-53 is used for Risk Management Framework, and does not contain information related to patch deployment metrics.
Which of the following statements provides the cornerstone for designing a modern defensible network?
Compromise is inevitable
A modern cyber defense principle is the “presumption of compromise”; this means that, while prevention is important, detection is a must, detection must be proactive (e.g. hunt teams), and response is a regular occurrence.
According to the “threat intelligence” model of risk calculation, what should be the primary factor in deciding which risks to remediate?
Whether a vulnerability can be easily exploited
In recent years, enterprise information/cyber security has started to pivot towards greater emphasis on threats. The emphasis is not to the exclusion of vulnerabilities, but it is fueled by the understanding that offense can and should inform defense. The particular vulnerabilities that should be prioritized, the way in which they can potentially be exploited, the likelihood of capable adversaries, these all are best informed by threat intelligence
What tool could allow an attacker to remotely run an application on a host without pre-installing an agent or having physical access to the target?
psexec
PsExec is designed to meet such a need, albeit it’s intended purpose is non-malicious. Wevutil is the command-line approach to interfacing with Windows Event Viewer. Autoplay could be used to launch an application on a host if it is enabled and a person has physical access (e.g. via USB flash drive). Auditpol is the command-line interface to managing and reviewing which Event Ids are logged.
Based on the highlighted data in the screenshot, what type of file would an analyst carve out of the original raw data?
An executable file
This shows the process of manually carving files from raw data exported from a pcap. They key to this image is the MZ shown in the ASCII side of the bless editor; MZ is the “magic number” that determine the file type - in this case a DOS EXE. The analyst should save the file as an exe and proceed with further analysis (e.g. run the exe through an AV tool).
An administrator has enabled critical event logging on Windows 8.1 hosts. Which event will be logged in the hosts’ security event log?
The audit log was cleared
The default settings would log an event where the log cache was cleared; this can be verified via c:\auditpol.exe /get /category:*
At which of the locations shown would a DMZ network TAP be placed?
A DMZ network tap would be placed at the entry/exit point of the DMZ
A SCAP-validated vulnerability scanner must provide which feature?
CVE references
SCAP-validated scanners will provide CVE and CCE information for code-based and configuration-based vulnerabilities, respectively.
Analyze the screenshot below. What will the system administrator detect?
Executables set to run at startup
Many malicious techniques and types of malware use Microsoft’s 32-bit SysWow compatibility features on 64-bit victim systems. Ironically, this often helps to hide from typical incident handing or forensic investigative procedures, which fail to look in the right places.
During a TCP SYN scan of the network, how would an open port respond?
SYN/ACK
An open port would send a SYN/ACK response to a received SYN.
What is the most commonly exploited security weakness?
Unpatched flaws
Unpatched flaws are the most commonly exploited security weakness.