Contracts And Sales Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

What is the general rule for express terms control in contracts?

A

Courts look to course of performance, course of dealing, and trade usage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are gap fillers in the context of UCC?

A

Default rules for terms that govern contracts for the sale of goods if no term is stated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the parol evidence rule (PER) prevent?

A

It prevents adding a term from preliminary negotiations to a final written agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens if there is a complete integration in a contract?

A

No terms will be admitted into evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a merger or integration clause?

A

A clause stating, ‘this is the full and final agreement.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the outcome if there is a partial integration?

A

Consistent additional terms are admitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the exceptions where the PER does not apply?

A
  • Formation defenses
  • Interpretation of a term
  • Failure of a condition precedent
  • Clerical error
  • Later modification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What rights do intended third-party beneficiaries (TPBs) have?

A

They have rights under a contract once their rights vest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What factors determine if a TPB is intended?

A
  • Is the TPB expressly designated in the contract?
  • Is performance directly to the TPB?
  • What is the relationship between the TPB and the promisee?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between delegation and assignment?

A

One delegates duties and assigns rights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is required to delegate a duty under a contract?

A

The contract must not prohibit it and must not involve special skill, judgment, or trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the liability of the delegator after delegation?

A

The delegator remains liable on the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Under what conditions can rights be assigned?

A

Unless the assignment substantially changes the obligor’s duties or the contract prohibits it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the general rule for the Statute of Frauds (SOF)?

A

Requires a writing signed by the party to be charged that evidences a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which contracts fall under the SOF?

A
  • Contracts made in consideration of marriage
  • Contracts that cannot be performed within a year
  • Contracts for the sale of land
  • Promises made by an executor to pay a debt from his own estate
  • Contracts for the sale of goods for $500 or more
  • Surety contracts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an exception to the SOF regarding land?

A

Part performance when one’s actions evidence a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the exceptions to the SOF for the sale of goods?

A
  • Merchants confirmatory memo exception
  • Substantial beginning in manufacture
  • Judicial admissions
  • Part performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the definition of duress in contract law?

A

Threatening a wrongful act that would threaten the other party’s finances, property, well-being, or life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What constitutes undue influence?

A

Unfair persuasion by a person in a position of trust or dominance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is mutual mistake in contract formation?

A

Both parties are mistaken about a basic assumption of fact that materially affects the exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a unilateral mistake?

A

When one party knows or has reason to know of the other party’s mistake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is mutual misunderstanding?

A

There is no contract if both parties have a different understanding of a material term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens if a contract has illegal subject matter?

A

The contract is void.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is unconscionability in contract law?

A

It consists of procedural and substantive unconscionability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does the general rule for remedies state?
The damaged party recovers expectation damages.
26
What are incidental damages?
Related to avoiding the loss from the breach.
27
What are consequential damages?
Foreseen at the time the contract is entered into.
28
What does specific performance refer to?
An equitable remedy not usually available unless goods are unique or in a land contract.
29
What is an injunction?
An equitable remedy that tells a party to do or not do something.
30
What is rescission?
Undoing the contract when it is void or voidable.
31
What is reformation in contract law?
A remedy sought when the contract does not reflect the agreed terms.
32
What are liquidated damages clauses?
Enforced if damages are difficult to estimate and a reasonable forecast of damages exists.
33
What does restitution mean in contract law?
Recovering the value of the benefit conferred.
34
What does the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) apply to?
Transactions in goods ## Footnote Common law applies to everything else (services) on the MBE.
35
How do courts determine the applicable law for a contract?
By looking at the predominant purpose of the contract
36
What are the key components required to create an offer?
* Intent to enter into a contract * Specific terms (e.g., price, quantity, identity of parties) * Communication to the offeree
37
What is a requirements or output contract?
A contract that will not fail for lack of quantity if the amount is in good faith and not unreasonably disproportionate
38
List the four ways to terminate an offer.
* Lapse of time * Rejection (including counteroffer) * Revocation of an offer * Death or incapacity of the offeror
39
What are the conditions under which an offer can be revoked?
* Firm offer by a merchant in a signed writing under the UCC * Option contract * Unilateral contract with performance * Reasonably foreseeable substantial reliance on the offer
40
What are the two types of contracts based on acceptance?
* Bilateral contracts: accepted by promise or beginning performance * Unilateral contracts: accepted only by full performance
41
How is acceptance effective under the mailbox rule?
Acceptance is effective when sent
42
Under common law, what must an acceptance do?
Be the 'mirror image' of the offer
43
Under the UCC, what can an acceptance include?
Additional or different terms without needing to mirror the offer
44
What constitutes consideration in a contract?
Bargained-for exchange
45
What are examples of what is not considered valid consideration?
* Promise to make a gift * Moral obligation * Past consideration * Illusory promise
46
What is reliance in the context of consideration?
A substitute for consideration, enforcing promises to avoid injustice if there is foreseeable and justifiable reliance
47
What is required to modify a contract under common law?
Consideration
48
What is required to modify a contract under UCC?
Only good faith
49
What must occur for a party's duty to arise under common law?
Substantial performance of duties
50
What is an express condition in a contract?
A condition that must be complied with exactly
51
What is the seller required to provide under UCC?
Perfect tender of the goods
52
What happens if the seller does not provide perfect tender?
The buyer can reject the goods
53
What is anticipatory repudiation?
When a party unequivocally breaches a contract
54
What can a party do if anticipatory repudiation occurs?
* Sue immediately * Suspend performance and wait to sue * Treat the contract as discharged * Urge the other party to perform
55
What discharges a duty according to the text?
* Occurrence of a condition subsequent * Agreement (e.g., novation, modification) * Frustration of purpose * Impossibility
56
What is an express warranty?
An affirmation of fact about the goods that cannot be disclaimed
57
What is the implied warranty of merchantability?
A warranty that goods are fit for their ordinary purpose
58
What is the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?
A warranty made by any seller who knows the buyer's specific purpose and the buyer relies on the seller
59
What is a limitation of remedies clause?
A contractual provision that limits or controls the remedies
60
True or False: Mere 'puffery' creates an express warranty.
False