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LAM Respiratory > Cough 1 > Flashcards

Cough 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Term refer to a sudden forceful noisy expulsion of air through the glottis to clear particles & other material from the tracheobronchial tree and glottis.

A

Cough

– important & normal respiratory defense mechanism

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2
Q

2 protective mechanisms that function together:

A
  1. Mucociliary escalator

2. Cough reflex

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3
Q

Term that refers to removing secretions from the tracheobronchial tree proximal to the level of the segmental bronchi

A

Cough relfex

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4
Q

Term that refers to the continuous wave of ciliary motion that starts at the level of the bronchioles

A

Mucociliary escalator

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5
Q

T/F: the cough neural pathway can be both involuntary & voluntarily.

A

True

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6
Q

The involuntary reflex, of the cough neural pathway, involves ______ receptor through tracheobronchial tree.

A

Sensory receptor

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7
Q

The involuntary reflex predominantly consist of what nerve?

A

Vagal nerve

–others: glossopharyngeal, trigeminal, and phrenic n.

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8
Q

What is a constant component of cough:

A

Bronchoconstriction is a constant component of cough.
– irritants can trigger bronchoconstriction & cough but are SEPARATE reflexes. Just bc the animal is coughing does not mean bronchoconstriction is occurring.

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9
Q 
List the components for cough  stimulation:
1. 
2. 
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
A

List the components for cough stimulation:

  1. bronchoconstriction
  2. Excessive mucous production
  3. deposition of inhaled particles
  4. release of inflammatory mediator (infectious dz)
  5. exposure of hot or cold air
  6. intramural or extramural pressure
  7. sloughing of airway epithelium
  8. enhance epithelial permeability (pulm edema)
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10
Q

What type of cells are found in the trachea that are involves in the mucociliary clearance mechanism:

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

    • secretion traps particulate matter
    • airway epithelium takes about 7 weeks to heal.
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11
Q

How long does airway epithelium take to heal:

A

7 weeks to heal

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12
Q

What type of cells are located in the terminal & respiratory bronchioles that metabolize airborne toxins

A

Clara cells

– source of surfactant-like substance which aids in maintaining patency of airway

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13
Q

What are all the factors below associated with:

    • decreased cell #
    • mucous plug
    • dehydration
  • -irritant gases
    • dust
  • -cold water
  • -anesthetic
A

Decreased Mucociliary clearance

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14
Q

What type of bacteria will produce a nasal discharge that is foul smelling:

A

Anaerobic bacteria – associated with foul smell.

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15
Q

What type of infection is present if the horse has mucopurulent discharge

A

Bacterial infection = mucopurulent

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16
Q

Rebreathing examination works by increasing ____ content where receptors will trigger the brain to tell them to breathe heavier. When the bag is taken off, they will sense the oxygen and will take a DEEP breath allowing you to listen to the areas of interest.

A

CO2 content

    • inhalation of expired carbon dioxide, not necessarily deprive it of oxygen
    • eupnea and hyperpnea
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17
Q

What is each lung sound describing:

  • ______: increased lung sounds, crackles, and wheezes
  • _______: ventral dull sound
  • _______: cardiac sound larger area than normal bc improved sound conduction
A

What is each lung sound describing:

  • _Pneumonia__: increased lung sounds, crackles, and wheezes
  • _Pleuropneumonia__: ventral dull sound
  • Pleural effusion: cardiac sound larger area than normal bc improved sound conduction
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18
Q

T/F: Fever is associated with infectious disease:

A

True
–Fever is associated with infectious & secondary infection to a non-infectious condition (parasitic)

NO fever:

    • RAO
  • -Larynx or pharyngeal abnorm
  • -parasitic (can become feverish)
    • EIPH
  • -FB
  • -Neoplasia
  • -trauma
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19
Q

Major cause of respiratory disease in horses

A

Equine Influenza

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20
Q

How is equine influenza transmitted

A

aerosolized respiratory secretions >35feet

    • increased exposure: crowding, transport, and stress
    • cold weather may be related
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21
Q

Equine Influenza can destroy _____ ______

A

Equine influenza can destroy Ciliated epithelium

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22
Q

Equine Influenza effects old or young horses

A

Young horses – 3 yrs old = equine influenza

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23
Q

Equine influenza can sometimes present like laminitis because in the early stages it can cause _____

A

Add to dictionary in early stages – puffy joints will be seen & they are reluctant to walk

Equine influenza can sometimes present like laminitis because in the early stages it can cause POLYSYNOVITIS.

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24
Q

Out of EHV4 & EHV1, which one will effect respiratory and reproductive

A

EHV4: Respiratory & reproductive
EHV1: Respiratory & Neurologic form

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25
Q

Equine herpes virus incubation period:

A

1-3 days incubation period for EHV

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26
Q

EHV can have other CS that are not associated with lung tissue. What are some of the CS.

A

EHV clinical signs:

    • Conjunctivitis
    • lymphadenopathy
    • edema
  • -vasculitis
    • polysynovitis *
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27
Q

Which 2 EHV can be respiratory but low pathogenicity? which one is associated with EMPF:

A

EHV 2 & 5 can be respiratory but low pathogenicity

EHV 5 - related to EMPF (equine multi nodule pulmonary fibrosis)

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28
Q

What are the characteristics below associated with:

  • -Respiratory dz, abortions, foal pneumonia
    • not age related
    • close contact transmission (semen) and most infections are subclinical
    • long lasting immunity= natural & vaccine exposure
A

Equine Viral Arteritis

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29
Q

T/F: equine viral arteritis can have long lasting immunity ( natural & vaccine exposure)

A

True

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30
Q

Transmission for equine viral arteritis is:

A

Close contact transmission (semen) and most infections are subclinical.
– not age related.

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31
Q

Which virus affects immunocompromised foals (SCID):

A

Equine Adenovirus

    • immunocompromised foals (SCID)
    • Pneumonia result from secondary bacteria
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32
Q

Which virus has pneumonia as a result from a secondary bacteria

A

Equine Adenovirus

33
Q

What virus affects young horses in late winter-early spring & usually clinically inapparent

A

Equine Rhinovirus

    • usually clinically inapparent (Pharyngitis, mild bronchitis, purulent nasal discharge)
  • -Late winter-early spring
  • -Young horses
34
Q

What virus causes the following clinical signs:

    • Febrile
  • -Facial swelling
  • -Head pressing
  • -Recumbent
A

Hendra Virus

– human meningitis & equine respiratory illness

35
Q

What type of bacteria is listed below & which is always present in the respiratory tract

    • Strep zooepidemicus
    • Staph aureus
    • Actinobacillus Equuli
  • -Pasteurella
  • -E.coli
  • -Klebsiella pneumonia
  • -Pseudomonas
  • -Rhodococcus equi
A

AEROBIC BACTERIA

    • Strep zooepidemicus –***
    • Staph aureus
    • Actinobacillus Equuli
  • -Pasteurella
  • -E.coli
  • -Klebsiella pneumonia
  • -Pseudomonas
  • -Rhodococcus equi
36
Q

What type of bacteria is common in horses with physiologic stress including transportation, exercise, anesthesia, and viral infection.

A

Anaerobic Bacteria

*Bacteroides Fragilis = Penicillin resistant

37
Q

What type of anaerobic bacteria is penicillin resistant

A

Bacteroides Fragilis – Penicillin resistant

38
Q

Dictycocaulus Arnfieldi (“Lungworm”)– only occurs when the horse comes in contact with a infected donkey.

A

False

  • 67% of farms with positive infected horses had no exposure to donkeys.
  • even if the horse has not been around a donkey but find evidence on BAL= tx the horse
39
Q

What parasite migrates through lung tissue especially in foals.

A

Roundworm: Parascaris Equorum – migrate through lung tissue

40
Q

Name the primary & secondary factors where horses are prone to getting fungal pneumona

A 
Primary = dry & dusty climate
Secondary= Bacterial pneumona & Aspergillus
41
Q

Most common secondary organism to cause fungal pneumonia

A

Aspergillus = most common secondary organism to cause fungal pneumonia
– common in foals or horses suffering from bacterial pneumonia

42
Q

Major contributor for bacterial pneumonia and pleuropneumonia:

A

STRESS:

    • transportation
    • exercise
  • -anesthesia
43
Q

What is important in transportation of horses:

A
  1. Do NOT elevate and secure the head
    - - this will compromise mucuciliary clearance mechanism.
  2. Dehydration = decreased secretions
44
Q

If the owner has a mare tied up while the foal is being introduced, what should you recommend to the owner?

A

Recommend letting mare drop her head down every 2 hours to be able to clear the trachea.

45
Q

A high intensity exercise results in a decreased OR increased peripheral blood neutrophil function:

A

Decreased peripheral blood neutrophil function = high intensity exercise

– oxidative burst activity of pulmonary alveolar macrophages

46
Q

4 components that cause dysphagia:

A

4 components that cause dysphagia:

  1. Neonatal encephalopathy
  2. Botulism
  3. Guttural pouch dz
  4. Strangles
47
Q

What is carboxyhemoglobin & what is it associated to:

A

Carboxyhemoglobin = decrease the ability for oxygen to be released at the tissue site leading to hypoxia.
–associated with Smoke inhalation

48
Q

During smoke inhalation, what is responsible for decrease O2 at the alveolar site

A

Severe bronchoconstriction occurs in smoke inhalation resulting in decrease O2 at the alveolar site.
–pseudomembranous cast

49
Q

To diagnose smoke inhalation in a horse the carboxyhemoglobin must be over what %

A

> 10%

–Diagnosed: Carboxyhemoglobin >10%

50
Q

Transtracheal intubation can cause tracheal necrosis if

A

Excessive cuff pressure = tracheal necrosis

51
Q

Anesthetics cause ____ of the respiratory defense mechanism:

A

Depression

– anesthetics cause depression of the respiratory defense mechanism

52
Q

Penetrating thoracic injuries can result in:

A

Penetrating thoracic injuries can result in:

  1. Fracture rib
  2. Hemothorax
  3. Pneumothorax
53
Q

Where do you do an abdominal tap if suspect trauma in a horse:

A

Caudal to 6th rib = abdominal tap

others:

    • US and rads
    • Chest tubes and lavage
54
Q

Thoracic Neoplasia in horses has a very low incidence. However, the lungs are susceptible to ______ ______

A

Neoplastic emboli

– lungs are susceptible to neoplastic emoboli

55
Q

In dealing with thoracic neoplasia, what are the primary pulmonary tumors:
1.
2.

A

Primary Pulmonary Tumors:

  1. Granular cell tumor
  2. Pulmonary chondrosarcoma
56
Q

Equine Multinodular pulmonary fibrosis is associated with which EHV

A

EHV-5

57
Q

How can EMPF present:

A

EMPF can present as:

  1. Exercise intolerance
  2. Acute resp distress
58
Q

EMPF creates what type of lung pattern:

A

–Diffuse Bronchointerstitial pattern w/ multiple coalescing circular nodules throughout the lung field.

59
Q

What is the characteristics below associated to:

  • -Thin dull attitude, poor hair coat
    • tachypneic
    • increased RE, RR
  • -Abnormal lung sounds
    • occasional dry cough
  • -increased WBC count
    • increased fibrinogen
  • -anemia, lymphopenia also reported.
A

EMPF

60
Q

What will the ultrasound look like on a EMPF patients:

A

Multiple circular hypoechoic masses ==> Pleural effusion is generally NOT present

61
Q

Gross Pathology of the lungs of a EMPF horse will look like:

A

Severe multifocally distributed nodules with diffuse interstitial fibrosis.

62
Q

T/F: EMPH horses have an excellent prognosis with correct treatment

A

FALSE

63
Q

3 viruses associated with Foal pneumonia in foals <1 month.

A

EVA
EHV1
EHV4

64
Q

In foals around 1-6 months of age, the foal pneumonia is usually from what type of pathogens:

A

1-6 months

    • S. Zooepidemicus
  • -R.equi
    • Respiratory viruses are often the primary offending agents.
65
Q

T/F: an abnormal CBC is specific for pneumonia

A

FALSE

– abnormal CBC is not specific – reflect chronicity & severity of the inflammatory process.

66
Q

The clinical pathology in a ACUTE pneumonia case will have:

A

Acute = Hyperfibrinogenemia & neutropenia

Chronic= Neutophilia & anemia of chronic dz

67
Q

In pneumonia diagnostics, what is the hyperbilirubinemia associated with:

A

Anorexia = Hyperbilirubinemia

68
Q

In pneumonia diagnostics, the ultrasound examination can be described as:

A

Pleura irregularities

– US - not good for evaluation of deep parenchyma

69
Q

In pneumonia diagnostics, which is the preferred method in evaluation of the deep parenchyma of the lung:

A

Radiography = deeper parenchyma evaluation

US = cannot evaluate deeper parenchyma

70
Q

Does US or Rads allow you to evaluate long term progression in pneumonia cases

A

Radiography = evaluation of long term progression.

71
Q

What complications are associated to TTW in pneumonia cases

A

Cellulitis & chronditis

72
Q

What can identify inflammatory process & used to determine appropriate tx in pneumonia cases

A

Cytology of TTW

73
Q

What is used to obtain fluid form the lung for cytology and possible culture

A

BAL

74
Q

In pneumonia diagnostics, what can give you results IMMEDIATELY

A

Arterial blood gase – hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and resp acidosis

75
Q

How is pneumonia treated:

A
  1. Control hydration status
  2. Antimicrobials
  3. Anti-inflammatories
  4. Bronchodilators
  5. palatable feed (green grass)
  6. stall rest
76
Q

Antimicrobial therapy for foal pneumonia is based on culture& sensitivity. Name the drugs specific for each of the following:

  1. S. Zooepidemicus=
  2. Rhodococcus equi =
  3. Bacteriodes fragilis =
A
  1. S. Zooepidemicus = Penicillin
  2. Rhodococcus equi = Clarithromycin & Rifampin
  3. Bacteriodes fragilis = Metronidazole
77
Q

What method of administering antimicrobials can reach 12 x higher concentration than IV administration with a lower toxicity

A

Aerosolized Antimicrobial

– optimal combos of particle size & aerosol density

78
Q

Commonly used for aerosolized antimicrobial therapy

A

Gentamicin or Ceftiofur

79
Q

2 bronchodilators used in treating pneumonia

A

Bronchodilators;

  1. Albuterol
    - Clenbuterol

LAM Respiratory (6 decks)

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