Course spec Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
What can present a hazard in a laboratory?
A
Substances, organisms, and equipment
Hazards in the lab can affect health and safety.
2
Q
What are the key components of risk assessment in the lab?
A
Hazard, risk, and control of risk
3
Q
What is the method used to determine an unknown concentration?
A
Production of a standard curve
4
Q
What role do buffers play in a laboratory setting?
A
Control pH
5
Q
What is the purpose of a colorimeter?
A
Quantify concentration and turbidity
6
Q
How does a centrifuge function in separation techniques?
A
Separates substances of differing density
7
Q
What techniques can be used for separating amino acids and sugars?
A
Paper and thin layer chromatography
8
Q
What is affinity chromatography used for?
A
Separating proteins
9
Q
What is the principle of gel electrophoresis?
A
Separates proteins and nucleic acids
10
Q
What do native gels separate proteins by?
A
Shape, size, and charge
11
Q
What does SDS–PAGE separate proteins by?
A
Size alone
12
Q
What is isoelectric point (IEP) in protein separation?
A
Proteins can be separated based on their IEPs
13
Q
What are immunoassay techniques used for?
A
Detect and identify specific proteins
14
Q
What are monoclonal antibodies?
A
Stocks of antibodies with the same specificity
15
Q
What technique is used after SDS–PAGE electrophoresis?
A
Western blotting
16
Q
What is the function of fluorescent microscopy?
A
Visualise certain molecules or structures within cells or tissues
17
Q
What does aseptic technique aim to eliminate?
A
Unwanted microbial contaminants
18
Q
What is the role of growth factors in cell culture?
A
Support growth of animal cells
19
Q
How do primary cell lines differ from tumor cell lines?
A
Primary cell lines can divide a limited number of times; tumor cell lines can perform unlimited divisions
20
Q
What does plating out of a liquid microbial culture allow?
A
Counting of colony-forming units
21
Q
What is the proteome?
A
The entire set of proteins expressed by a genome
22
Q
Why is the proteome larger than the number of genes?
A
More than one protein can be produced from a single gene due to alternative RNA splicing
23
Q
What are eukaryotic cells characterized by?
A
A system of internal membranes
24
Q
What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?
A
Forms a network of membrane tubules
25
What is the role of lysosomes?
Digest proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates
26
Where does the synthesis of all proteins begin?
In cytosolic ribosomes
27
What directs transmembrane proteins to the ER?
Signal sequence
28
What happens to proteins as they move through the Golgi apparatus?
Undergo post-translational modification
29
What is the secretory pathway?
Pathway for secreted proteins to be translated, modified, and released
30
What determines protein structure?
Amino acid sequence
31
What bonds link amino acids in proteins?
Peptide bonds
32
What is primary structure in proteins?
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
33
What stabilizes tertiary structure in proteins?
Interactions between R groups
34
What is a prosthetic group?
A non-protein unit tightly bound to a protein necessary for its function
35
What is a ligand?
A substance that can bind to a protein
36
What happens when a ligand binds to a protein-binding site?
The conformation of the protein changes
37
What are allosteric interactions?
Interactions between spatially distinct sites on allosteric proteins
38
What is the role of protein kinases?
Catalyse the transfer of a phosphate group to other proteins
39
What is the fluid mosaic model?
A model that describes the structure of cell membranes
40
What types of proteins can be found in cell membranes?
* Integral membrane proteins
* Transmembrane proteins
* Peripheral membrane proteins
41
What is facilitated diffusion?
Passive transport of substances across the membrane through specific transmembrane proteins
42
What is the sodium-potassium pump?
An ion pump that establishes and maintains ion gradients
43
What does the sodium-potassium pump actively transport?
* Sodium ions out of the cell
* Potassium ions into the cell
44
What is the resting membrane potential?
State where there is no net flow of ions across the membrane
45
What is an action potential?
A wave of electrical excitation along a neuron’s plasma membrane
46
What initiates a nerve impulse?
Changes in the membrane potential of the neuron’s plasma membrane
47
What is the role of neurotransmitters in nerve impulse transmission?
Initiate a response by binding to their receptors at a synapse
48
What are photoreceptor cells in the retina?
* Rods
* Cones
49
What is rhodopsin?
The retinal-opsin complex in rod cells
50
What changes occur in rhodopsin upon absorbing light?
Changes conformation to photoexcited rhodopsin
51
What is the area within the eye that detects light?
The retina
## Footnote
The retina contains photoreceptor cells known as rods and cones.
52
What are the two types of photoreceptor cells in the retina?
Rods and cones
## Footnote
Rods are sensitive to low light, while cones are responsible for color vision.
53
What is the light-sensitive molecule combined with opsin in photoreceptors?
Retinal
## Footnote
This complex forms the basis of the photoreceptors in the eye.
54
What is the retinal-opsin complex in rod cells called?
Rhodopsin
## Footnote
Rhodopsin is crucial for the detection of light.
55
What activates the G-protein transducin in rod cells?
Photoexcited rhodopsin
## Footnote
This activation leads to a cascade of signals that ultimately results in nerve impulses.
56
What does phosphodiesterase (PDE) hydrolyze in rod cells?
Cyclic GMP (cGMP)
## Footnote
The hydrolysis of cGMP leads to the closure of ion channels in the rod cell membrane.
57
What are the different forms of opsin in cone cells associated with?
Maximal sensitivity to specific wavelengths
## Footnote
These wavelengths correspond to colors: red, green, blue, or UV.
58
What does the cytoskeleton provide to cells?
Mechanical support and shape
## Footnote
It consists of different protein structures including microtubules.
59
What is the role of microtubules during cell division?
Control the movement of membrane-bound organelles and chromosomes
## Footnote
They form spindle fibers that are active during cell division.
60
What are the two main phases of the cell cycle?
Interphase and mitotic (M) phase
## Footnote
The mitotic phase includes mitosis and cytokinesis.
61
What does the retinoblastoma protein (Rb) do at the G1 checkpoint?
Acts as a tumor suppressor
## Footnote
It inhibits the transcription of genes needed for DNA replication.
62
What protein is activated in response to DNA damage at the G2 checkpoint?
p53
## Footnote
p53 can stimulate DNA repair, arrest the cell cycle, or cause cell death.
63
What is apoptosis?
Programmed cell death
## Footnote
It is triggered by external or internal death signals.
64
What is the method for estimating population size using the mark and recapture technique?
N = MC / R
## Footnote
Where M is the number of marked individuals, C is the total catch, and R is the number of recaptured marked individuals.
65
What is the difference between taxonomy and phylogenetics?
Taxonomy involves classification based on shared characteristics, while phylogenetics studies evolutionary relationships
## Footnote
Both are crucial for understanding organism classification.
66
What does the Hardy-Weinberg principle state?
In the absence of evolutionary influences, allele and genotype frequencies remain constant
## Footnote
It can indicate whether evolution is occurring in a population.
67
What is absolute fitness?
The ratio between the frequency of individuals of a particular genotype after selection to those before selection
## Footnote
It measures the success of a genotype in surviving and reproducing.
68
What triggers co-evolution?
Selection pressures imposed by each other between two or more species
## Footnote
Changes in one species can act as a selection pressure on another.
69
What is a fundamental niche?
The niche a species occupies in the absence of interspecific competition
## Footnote
It represents the potential living conditions for a species.
70
What is the difference between a fundamental niche and a realized niche?
Fundamental niche is potential habitat; realized niche is occupied in response to competition
## Footnote
Competitive exclusion can lead to extinction of one species in similar niches.
71
What are the costs of sexual reproduction?
Males unable to produce offspring and only half of each parent's genome passed on
## Footnote
This can disrupt successful parental genomes.
72
How does asexual reproduction benefit organisms?
Whole genomes are passed on to offspring
## Footnote
This is advantageous in stable environments or when re-colonizing disturbed habitats.
73
What is meiosis?
The division of the nucleus that results in haploid gametes from a diploid gametocyte
## Footnote
It involves two rounds of division: meiosis I and meiosis II.
74
What gene determines male characteristics in most mammals?
SRY gene on the Y chromosome
## Footnote
This gene plays a crucial role in sex determination.
75
What is the role of parental investment in reproduction?
Increases the probability of production and survival of young
## Footnote
It is often greater in females compared to males.
76
What occurs when the niches of two species are similar?
Exclusion can occur, leading one species to decline to local extinction.
77
What allows potential competitors to co-exist?
Resource partitioning when realized niches are sufficiently different.
78
Define parasitism.
A symbiotic interaction between a parasite and its host (+/-).
79
What does a parasite gain from its host?
Nutrients at the expense of its host.
80
How does the reproductive potential of a parasite compare to its host?
The reproductive potential of the parasite is greater than that of the host.
81
What is a characteristic of most parasites regarding their niche?
Most parasites have a narrow (specialised) niche and are very host-specific.
82
What distinguishes ectoparasites from endoparasites?
Ectoparasites live on the surface of their host; endoparasites live within the tissues of their host.
83
Do some parasites require more than one host to complete their life cycle?
Yes, many parasites require more than one host.
84
What role does a vector play in parasitic transmission?
A vector plays an active role in the transmission of the parasite and may also be a host.
85
What disease is caused by Plasmodium?
Malaria.
86
What disease is caused by schistosomes?
Schistosomiasis.
87
How do viruses replicate?
Viruses can only replicate inside a host cell.
88
What do viruses contain?
Genetic material in the form of DNA or RNA, packaged in a protective protein coat.
89
What is the function of the outer surface of a virus?
It contains antigens that a host cell may or may not detect as foreign.
90
List the stages of the viral life cycle.
* Infection of host cell with genetic material
* Host cell enzymes replicate viral genome
* Transcription of viral genes
* Translation of viral proteins
* Assembly and release of new viral particles
91
What enzyme do RNA retroviruses use to form DNA?
Reverse transcriptase.
92
Define transmission in the context of parasitism.
The spread of a parasite to a host.
93
What is virulence?
The harm caused to a host species by a parasite.
94
How are ectoparasites typically transmitted?
Through direct contact.
95
What factors increase transmission rates of parasites?
* Overcrowding of hosts
* Mechanisms like vectors and waterborne dispersal
96
What is the immune response in mammals composed of?
Both non-specific and specific aspects.
97
Give examples of non-specific defences.
* Physical barriers
* Chemical secretions
* Inflammatory response
* Phagocytes
* Natural killer cells
98
What do specific cellular defences involve?
A range of white blood cells monitoring tissues.
99
What happens when an antigen binds to a lymphocyte's receptor?
It selects that lymphocyte to divide and produce a clonal population.
100
What do antibodies possess that allows for binding specificity?
Regions where the amino acid sequence varies greatly.
101
What is the role of memory lymphocyte cells?
To form a memory of the antigen for future responses.
102
How do endoparasites evade the immune system?
By mimicking host antigens and modifying the host immune response.
103
What is antigenic variation?
The ability of some parasites to change between different antigens during infection.
104
What is epidemiology?
The study of the outbreak and spread of infectious disease.
105
Define herd immunity threshold.
The density of resistant hosts required to prevent an epidemic.
106
What do vaccines contain?
Antigens that elicit an immune response.
107
Why is it difficult to find drug compounds that target parasites?
The similarities between host and parasite metabolism.
108
What challenges arise in designing vaccines against parasites?
* Antigenic variation
* Difficulty in culturing some parasites
109
What can improve child development and intelligence in populations?
Improvements in parasite control.
110
What are the steps in the scientific method?
* Observation
* Construction of a testable hypothesis
* Experimental design
* Data gathering, recording, and analysis
* Evaluation of results and conclusions
111
What is the null hypothesis?
It proposes that there will be no statistically significant effect as a result of the experimental treatment.
112
Why is peer review important?
It provides critical evaluation by specialists in the relevant field.
113
What ethical considerations are important in scientific research?
* Integrity and honesty
* Informed consent
* Minimizing harm to subjects
114
What is a pilot study used for?
To help plan procedures, assess validity, and check techniques.
115
What are independent and dependent variables?
Independent variables are manipulated, while dependent variables are measured.
116
What is the purpose of controls in experiments?
To compare results with treatment groups.
117
What is the difference between in vivo and in vitro studies?
In vivo refers to studies in a living organism; in vitro refers to studies in a controlled environment outside a living organism.
118
What is meant by a representative sample?
A sample that shares the same mean and degree of variation as the population.
119
What are confounding variables?
Other variables that may affect the dependent variable besides the independent variable.
120
What does reliability in experiments refer to?
The consistency of results obtained from repeated measurements.
121
What is the significance of error bars in data presentation?
They indicate the variability of data around a mean.
122
What should scientific reports contain?
* Explanatory title
* Abstract with aims and findings
* Introduction with purpose and context
123
What should be considered when evaluating results and conclusions?
The aim, results, hypothesis, and validity of experimental design.
