CPHMISS QUESTION 3 Flashcards
(311 cards)
1
Q
What is the purpose of a rehearsal during activation planning?
A
To test the process, fix mistakes, refine the checklist, and boost confidence.
2
Q
What considerations should go beyond the actual activation tasks?
A
Seating arrangements, command center setup, food/drink availability, rest area, communication forms, and status updates.
3
Q
What are some examples of communication protocols mentioned?
A
Examples include broadband access, Ethernet, Wi-Fi, and HL7 Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources (FHIR).
4
Q
What is the purpose of using standards in healthcare IT applications?
A
Standards ensure interoperability, smooth functioning, and consistent data exchange in healthcare IT.
5
Q
What international standard interface language is used in healthcare IT?
A
Health Level Seven (HL7) is an international standard interface language used in healthcare IT.
6
Q
What is DICOM used for in healthcare?
A
DICOM is used as a standard for images in healthcare.
7
Q
What is SNOMED CT used for?
A
SNOMED CT is the most comprehensive multilingual clinical healthcare terminology in the world.
8
Q
What role do ICD codes play in healthcare?
A
ICD codes provide diagnosis codes for most disease conditions in healthcare.
9
Q
What do CPT codes classify in healthcare?
A
CPT codes classify patients’ diagnoses and the procedures they had in healthcare.
10
Q
Why is interoperability crucial in healthcare IT?
A
Interoperability ensures smooth data exchange, avoids duplicative efforts, and enhances patient safety in healthcare.
11
Q
What is the importance of standard words in documentation?
A
Standard words improve data, research, natural language processing, and quality reporting in healthcare.
12
Q
What is an example of the secondary use of healthcare information?
A
Sharing information with public health officials for statistical reporting or clinical research.
13
Q
Who are key information technology professionals in healthcare organizations?
A
Chief information officer (CIO), chief medical information officer (CMIO), and more.
14
Q
What may nongovernment professional associations not typically do?
A
Make laws and regulations regarding reimbursements for their profession.
15
Q
What type of facility has seen a shift in care settings?
A
Outpatient centers.
16
Q
What do patients expect regarding their health information?
A
Privacy, security, and digital availability.
17
Q
What does data warehouses include?
A
Data from many different HIT applications, not just one hospital.
18
Q
What do interface engines support in healthcare?
A
Interoperability and data integration.
19
Q
What can telehealth be used for?
A
Providing a wide variety of care to patients at home.
20
Q
What can mHealth applications address?
A
Contactless access to healthcare services from the patient’s home.
21
Q
What makes healthcare data integration unique compared to other industries?
A
Myriad un-adopted standards across health systems.
22
Q
What are the main goals of an Enterprise Analytics department within a hospital?
A
Providing retrospective and prospective insights into operational and clinical activities.
23
Q
What is the fundamental purpose of system testing?
A
To provide knowledge to manage risks in system development, production, and operation.
24
Q
Why is system testing important in healthcare organizations?
A
To identify and mitigate major patient safety risks in information systems.
25
What does software testing aim to achieve?
To investigate software functionality, find defects, and ensure quality.
26
According to a study by NIST, how much did software bugs cost the U.S. economy annually in 2002?
$59.5 billion
27
What was the estimated cumulative cost of software bugs and failures worldwide in 2017?
$1.7 trillion
28
What are the different types of testing techniques used for software?
Executing programs to find defects, validating functionality, and providing an objective view.
29
What standard is encouraged in the United States for electronically transmitting continuity of care information?
Health Level Seven International’s (HL7) Consolidated-Clinical Document Architecture (C-CDA)
30
Define medication reconciliation in the context of healthcare in the United States.
Identifying the most accurate list of all medications a patient is taking by comparing records to external lists.
31
What does the process of medication reconciliation aim to prevent in patient care?
Potential life-threatening situations due to lack of awareness about a patient's medication.
32
Why are national health information exchanges (HIEs) being implemented in some countries?
To provide virtual, real-time access to patients' health information for improved continuity of care.
33
Describe Canada's Health Infoway and its vision.
A nonprofit organization aiming for 'healthier Canadians through innovative digital health solutions.'
34
What is the purpose of the Nationwide Health Information Network (NHIN) in the United States?
To define standards to facilitate sharing health information at the state and national levels.
35
How does the United Kingdom's NHS Digital support healthcare organizations?
By connecting England's healthcare organizations for shared clinical information, enhancing patient safety.
36
What is meant by the secondary use of health information in the healthcare context?
The use of health information outside direct healthcare delivery, supporting public health, research, and management.
37
Why is it important to consult with a contracting or legal representative when looking for vendors?
To understand organizational rules and regulations about contacting vendors before a signed contract and to avoid giving any one vendor an advantage.
38
What is the purpose of the request for information (RFI) in the solution selection process?
To gather information about which vendors are able to meet high-level requirements before issuing the request for proposal (RFP).
39
How are responses to the request for proposal (RFP) typically evaluated?
Responses are reviewed and scored based on ability to meet required, preferred, and optional requirements by the entire team independently.
40
Why is it important to compare vendor responses to the organization's IT strategic plan?
To ensure vendor solutions align with the organization's IT roadmap and goals for technology integration and optimization.
41
In the context of vendor evaluation, what is interoperability and why is it important?
Interoperability refers to systems integrating seamlessly for efficient workflows and data sharing, crucial for minimizing end user burden and maximizing insights.
42
How should vendors be evaluated in terms of compliance with regulatory requirements?
All vendors should be assessed against pertinent government, regulatory, and security requirements listed as essential in the selection process.
43
What factors should be considered when conducting background checks on potential vendors?
Consider their financial stability, market share, customer satisfaction, product reliability, risk tolerance, and willingness for collaboration or refinement.
44
What is the purpose of conducting regression testing after making changes?
To ensure new modifications did not break something else.
45
Why is it important to evaluate each new update before moving it through the configuration management process?
To ensure the update meets the system requirements and goals.
46
How can customer support be provided effectively?
Through a help desk or a single phone number for issue resolution.
47
What should be done if a service desk cannot resolve an issue?
Have a process for providing second-tier support.
48
What should be analyzed throughout the life cycle of an application?
Data for problems, trends, usage, and system performance.
49
Why is it important to look for trends in error reports and help desk logs?
To plan for improvements in system performance.
50
How should requests for change, feedback, and enhancements be managed by the technical staff?
Evaluate, prioritize, assign, and migrate through configuration management.
51
Define mission statement in an organization.
A statement explaining the purpose of the organization's existence.
52
Who typically sets the mission of a company?
Typically the CEO and board of directors.
53
Explain the purpose of a vision statement.
Defines where the company wants to go or what it wants to be.
54
What is the role of values in corporate ideologies?
Help individuals understand what the company supports and appreciates most.
55
What does SMART stand for in organizational goals?
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound.
56
How do goals support the accomplishment of a company's vision?
Goals serve as guides to measure organizational accomplishments.
57
Explain the importance of aligning work with strategic goals.
Ensures that work aligns with the strategic objectives of the organization.
58
What is corporate culture in an organization?
An all-encompassing set of attitudes, goals, and beliefs about working for the organization.
59
How should a presentation be structured for attendees?
Include key points, restate purpose and outcome, address questions to prevent disruption.
60
Why are project plans and status reports important tools?
They provide valuable updates for everyone from executive leadership to project managers.
61
What visual clues can color-coded summaries in status reports provide?
They can quickly indicate task status as compliant, at risk, or on track.
62
What communications tools are commonly used for project updates?
Project status reports are commonly used for communication and updates.
63
How should a project status report be designed?
Use red, yellow, and green to indicate compliance status, keep it concise on a single page.
64
Why is record management and leadership crucial during discussions?
It helps ensure discussions are controlled, thorough records are kept, and decisions are documented.
65
What is the leader's role in facilitating group discussions and committee meetings?
To guide conversations, manage conflicts, and ensure smooth resolution of issues.
66
How can leaders manage meetings effectively?
By understanding meeting participants' positions, constructing agendas, and using negotiation strategies.
67
What is the importance of recording motions and seconds in committee meetings?
Keeps a formal record of decisions made and who supported or opposed motions.
68
What is the aim of automated testing?
To compare actual outcomes to predicted outcomes and control test execution.
69
What is a benefit of test automation?
Ability to duplicate the testing process and quickly run repeated tests.
70
What is white-box testing primarily concerned with?
Testing the internal structures or workings of a system.
71
What is black-box testing focused on?
Testing the functionality of an application rather than its internal structures.
72
What is gray-box testing?
A combination of white-box and black-box testing where the tester has some knowledge of internal structures and system functionalities.
73
What is unit testing?
Checking individual units of source code to determine if they are fit for use.
74
What is integration testing?
Combining individual software modules, applications, or units to identify issues in how they interact.
75
What are the levels of testing during system development?
Unit-level testing, integration testing, and system testing.
76
What are some objectives of test methods?
Stress testing, user acceptance testing, and regression testing.
77
What is the purpose of meeting with a group of users together?
It is most efficient to gather feedback and insights.
78
What are some ways to organize meetings with users?
Through departmental meetings, town hall meetings, or focus groups.
79
What type of data does the baseline assessment aim to gather?
Data on systems stakeholders are using and how they are being used.
80
How should stakeholders' expectations of system availability be addressed?
By listening to their expectations and understanding system performance.
81
What should be done if stakeholders note adverse changes in system performance?
Pay special attention and accept feedback for system improvements.
82
Why is it important to commit to a regular process of follow-up analyses?
To ensure ongoing system performance improvements and address feedback.
83
When is an annual follow-up assessment typically sufficient?
When the initial assessment confirms satisfactory IT systems performance.
84
What approach can be used for the follow-up assessment process?
Telephone or web-based surveys along with accessible feedback tools.
85
How is departmental effectiveness different from system effectiveness?
It focuses on how personnel respond and relate within the organization.
86
What is a popular service management framework to consider in the assessment process?
The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL).
87
What are some factors to consider when evaluating customer satisfaction?
Empathy, communication during problem resolution, and feedback on issues.
88
What is the purpose of Customer Relationship Management (CRM) in healthcare organizations?
To manage interactions with customers, retain them, and leverage technology for processes.
89
What is a critical element to the success of the testing and evaluation phase?
Including the right people in the strategy at the right time.
90
What role does evaluation play post-implementation in a system's life cycle?
Critical for measuring user satisfaction, system usability, impacts, benefits, and potential for expansion.
91
According to the text, how can risk be mitigated in deploying new systems?
Through the development of a thorough testing and evaluation strategy.
92
What is the importance of testing in healthcare systems deployment?
Essential to ensure consistent performance supporting safe and efficient patient care.
93
Why is assessing and implementing user access controls important?
To protect the confidentiality, privacy, security, availability, and integrity of data.
94
What are patients' expectations regarding the privacy of their health information?
Access should be limited, and contents should remain confidential.
95
What is the significance of safeguarding patients' health information?
To protect patients' privacy rights and maintain the integrity of the information.
96
Why does the text mention concerns about privacy and security of health records?
To highlight the importance of protecting patients' health data regardless of its form.
97
Which organizations are among the most recognized AOs for certifying hospitals in the US and globally?
Joint Commission and Joint Commission International (JCI)
98
What do CMS AOs determine compliance with in healthcare organizations?
Medicare Conditions of Participation (CoP)
99
What happens when a healthcare organization is certified by a CMS AO for compliance with CMS requirements?
The organization can bill CMS for covered services.
100
How do advances in automation benefit healthcare information and management systems professionals?
Automated tools simplify information processing requirements.
101
How many countries does JCI currently operate in?
More than 100
102
What role do AOs play in the certification of hospitals for participation in Medicare programs?
They determine compliance and allow billing for covered services.
103
What are some examples of professional associations related to healthcare and healthcare IT?
American Academy of Pediatrics, American Health Information Management Association, World Dental Federation, etc.
104
Why is creating a test methodology important in systems testing?
To ensure that the delivered system meets the needs of the healthcare organization.
105
What is the purpose of a test strategy in testing processes?
To address all facets of the testing process and ensure testing objectives are achieved.
106
What are some key steps involved in a sound testing methodology?
Define test strategy, develop testing tools, execute testing, employ test controls, report on testing results, perform final evaluation.
107
How is manual testing defined in the context of systems testing?
Direct human interaction with a system to identify defects or unexpected outcomes.
108
What tools are required for manual testing in systems testing?
A written test plan, test script or scenarios to follow, method of recording and reporting results.
109
Why might manual testing be considered a laborious and time-consuming process?
It involves direct human interaction and may not be effective for finding certain classes of defects.
110
Define integrity in healthcare data security.
Accuracy and completeness of data, protected from unauthorized modification, deletion, destruction.
111
What does availability mean in healthcare data security?
Data protected from unplanned destruction, ensuring availability to patients as needed.
112
What organizational role is crucial for interpreting privacy laws in healthcare organizations?
Chief information security officer knowledgeable about rules, policy development, compliance monitoring.
113
What are the responsibilities of the privacy officer or security officer in healthcare organizations?
Developing, maintaining, and adhering to all policies and procedures for HIPAA compliance.
114
What important process can the privacy officer and security officer oversee?
Security incident management process handling all incidents affecting data confidentiality, integrity, availability.
115
Name three categories of safeguards for protected healthcare data.
Administrative, technical, and physical safeguards.
116
What does administrative safeguards include in protecting healthcare data security?
Actions, policies, procedures supporting security aims like employee education.
117
Why is data validation important after each migration?
To ensure data accuracy and resolve duplicate records.
118
What industry standards should be implemented for vocabulary mapping?
RxNorm, SNOMED, LOINC.
119
Why is having a defined process for evaluating project changes crucial?
To prevent scope creep and determine project impact.
120
Who typically makes the final decision on project change requests?
Project sponsors with the project manager facilitating.
121
What should a test plan describe in a project?
All the different testing activities to be completed.
122
What is the purpose of real-time data integration?
To share data nearly simultaneously for immediate use.
123
How does an interface engine help with data integration?
It receives data, modifies it if needed, and passes it to the destination system.
124
What does the prefix 'brachi/o' refer to?
Arm
125
Which medical specialty focuses on heart and blood vessel issues?
Cardiology
126
What does the abbreviation 'PRN' stand for?
As needed
127
What is the abbreviation for 'morning'?
AM
128
What does 'dermatology' specialize in?
Skin issues
129
What is 'anesthesiology' specialized in?
Anesthesia and sedation management
130
Which medical specialty involves working with the brain and nerves?
Neurology
131
Define the abbreviation 'BP'
Blood pressure
132
What is the abbreviation 'NPO' commonly used for?
Nothing by mouth
133
What does 'otolaryngology' primarily focus on?
Ears, nose, and throat issues
134
What details have to be included with a bill in the healthcare system?
Diagnosis codes, providers' licenses, and billing numbers.
135
What are commonly referred to as practice management systems in healthcare?
Billing systems.
136
What must a general ledger accurately track in the financial system?
Charges, bills, and payments.
137
What can patients do through most EHR patient portals in the healthcare system?
View test results, clinical notes, ask for refills, and send secure emails.
138
What does the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services encourage the use of in the United States?
Personal Health Records (PHRs).
139
Where did the Blue Button® PHR initiative originate from in healthcare?
Through the Veteran's Administration.
140
Where are Personal Health Records (PHRs) becoming very popular according to Gherardi et al.?
Europe, the United Kingdom, and Scandinavia.
141
What do some healthcare insurers provide the ability to create from their websites in the United States?
Personal Health Records (PHRs).
142
What are some media formats through which education is often available?
Webcasting, webinars, telecasting
143
How can staff members attend conferences when funds are available?
By taking turns attending vendors' user conferences or professional society conferences.
144
What is an important part of the overall IT planning process as mentioned in the notes?
Succession planning
145
What benefits result from investment in education and new skills for the IT staff?
Expanding capabilities of the IT staff and ensuring a well-balanced department
146
What is emphasized regarding the overall education of IT team members?
Staying connected to a variety of disciplines related to their specific expertise
147
What is an important aspect of the work that overlaps with that of others?
Knowledge expansion
148
What is recommended for organizational leaders to do to stay up on current events?
Review headlines and articles in media and printed press
149
What types of documentation are crucial for managing healthcare applications?
System, operational, and department documentation
150
What does system documentation include as part of the documents?
Support for analysis, decision making, system features and requirements
151
What do operational documents relate to?
Ongoing systems operations and maintenance
152
What does SDLC stand for?
Systems Development Life Cycle
153
What is the abbreviation for Personal Health Records?
PHRs
154
What does PDCA/PDSA stand for in management?
Plan, Do, Check/Study, Act
155
What does SBARC stand for in communication?
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation, Communication
156
What is the purpose of SMART goals?
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound
157
What is PMBOK® in project management?
Project Management Body of Knowledge
158
What does SWOT analysis assess?
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
159
What is the role of a RHIA?
Registered Health Information Administrator
160
What does QoS stand for in service delivery?
Quality of Service
161
What does RFID technology enable in healthcare?
Radio Frequency Identification
162
What organization does WHO represent?
World Health Organization
163
What does VPNS stand for in networking?
Virtual Private Networks
164
What does VoIP stand for in communication technology?
Voice over Internet Protocol
165
What role do vendors play in the healthcare sector?
Provide necessary products and services
166
What does CRM stand for?
Customer relationship management
167
What is the abbreviation for General Data Protection Regulation?
GDPR
168
What does GHIWG represent in healthcare?
Global health informatics working group
169
What technology term does the abbreviation HIT represent?
Health information technology (HIT)
170
Define the acronym EHR in healthcare.
Electronic health records
171
Explain the abbreviation EMR in healthcare.
Electronic medical record
172
What is the full form of HIPAA?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
173
What does HIEs stand for in healthcare?
National health information exchanges
174
How can IT implementation help reduce errors in treatment and prescriptions?
By applying proper IT processes.
175
What is a key benefit of improving productivity in healthcare?
Increased patient volumes.
176
How can increased visitor capacity per unit affect revenues?
Boost revenues due to more admissions and discharges per month.
177
What tools can be used for conducting a needs analysis in healthcare?
Observation, interviews, review of documentation, surveys, and data analysis.
178
What aspects does patient quality of care involve?
Delay time, treatment appropriateness, professionalism levels, and more.
179
How can IT practices contribute to cost optimization in healthcare?
Through bulk purchases, efficient stock control, and reduced cost per day for each patient.
180
What is the role of a chief information officer (CIO) in healthcare organizations?
The CIO is generally accountable for a broad range of IT activities.
181
What responsibilities does a chief security officer (CSO) have in a healthcare organization?
The CSO secures the organization's computing and communications assets from security breaches.
182
What is the responsibility of a privacy officer in healthcare organizations?
The privacy officer ensures that data is accessed only by authorized personnel.
183
What is the key responsibility of a chief technology officer (CTO) in healthcare organizations?
The CTO is responsible for the technical architecture of IT systems.
184
What role do health information managers play in healthcare organizations?
Health information managers oversee HIM activities, EHRs, and IT integration.
185
Who is responsible for defining business goals in the system design team?
Project sponsor
186
What role does a project manager play in the system design team?
Overseeing project execution
187
What are some potential members of the system design team?
Biomedical engineers, application developers, quality assurance analysts
188
What technical specifications should be covered by the system design team?
System architecture, security, disaster recovery, data conversion
189
Why has there been a significant interest in usability in the past decade?
Due to increased EHR adoption
190
What are some areas of focus when discussing usability in health IT systems?
Accessibility, use of mobile devices, workflow definitions
191
Why is it important to stay close to budget in healthcare IT?
To avoid significant over or under budget affecting the following year's budget allocations.
192
What are some key responsibilities in healthcare IT budget planning?
Staying close to budget, accounting for cost allocations, and understanding key budget numbers.
193
What is included in the realm of healthcare IT?
Design, development, creation, use, and maintenance of information systems for healthcare.
194
Where can IT-related careers in healthcare be found?
Hospitals, clinics, payer organizations, health information exchanges, and more.
195
What are some of the senior management roles in healthcare IT?
CIO, CMIO, CNIO, CTO, CISO, CHIO, and CPIO.
196
What are some common roles in healthcare IT departments?
Director, manager, architect, analyst, engineer, technician, programmer, developer, etc.
197
What does the infrastructure team in healthcare IT departments typically handle?
Data center, IT helpdesk, communications, database administration, backups, network support, and IT security.
198
What is the 360-degree method of performance appraisal?
A method where individuals from various aspects of the employee's work rate them on specific criteria.
199
Why is it important to provide confidentiality to raters during the evaluation process?
To ensure honest and open feedback without fear of repercussions or bias.
200
How can employees be informed about their performance throughout the year?
Through regular feedback at intervals and avoiding surprises during formal appraisals.
201
What should be done when an employee's performance is subpar?
Address it promptly, provide feedback, and offer opportunities for improvement.
202
What is the suggested approach for disciplinary action in a progressive manner?
Starting with verbal discussions, moving to written warnings, and possibly termination.
203
How should communication be maintained during the disciplinary process?
Consistently seek advice from HR, provide oral communication initially, and document facts.
204
How can management encourage staff to expand their knowledge?
Provide educational opportunities, support further education, and encourage skill development.
205
What are some ways education can be provided to staff at relatively low cost?
Encourage cross-training, join vendor user groups, and utilize professional societies.
206
Why is it essential to value education for staff members?
To ensure continuous improvement, skill development, and employee retention.
207
Why is it important to routinely test and revise contingency plans?
To fill gaps, address changing needs, and ensure preparedness.
208
What is the purpose of auditing access to protected data?
To identify breaches, policy violations, and unauthorized access.
209
What does a structured security audit program validate?
Consistent compliance with HIPAA security standards.
210
Why is it recommended to conduct annual external network penetration testing?
To identify vulnerabilities in the network perimeter.
211
What should be maintained for ongoing system evaluation?
Network diagrams, hardware/software documentation, and vendor contact info.
212
What is crucial for maintaining compliance in security?
Continuous evaluation of security features.
213
Why is it necessary to assess new applications and interfaces?
To determine if they introduce new security vulnerabilities.
214
What should be the focus regarding health information privacy and security?
Consistent attention, compliance, regular audits, and risk assessments.
215
Name the three primary methods of user authentication.
1. Something a user knows (e.g., PIN or password) 2. Something a user has (e.g., smart card or token) 3. Something a user is (e.g., fingerprint, palm print, or retina scan)
216
What is role-based access in user authorization?
Access privileges based on a user's role to allow minimum necessary access.
217
What is the purpose of a unique user-id in accessing information systems?
It allows tracking of user activities like data access, modification, or deletion.
218
Explain the importance of having strong password characteristics.
To prevent unauthorized access, passwords should be hard to guess with various characters, length, periodic changes, and no reuse.
219
What is two-factor or multi-factor authentication?
It involves providing additional evidence beyond passwords to validate user identity.
220
Why are audit reports important in user access management?
To ensure compliance, monitor user activities, and prevent unauthorized access.
221
What is the primary focus of healthcare IT security?
Confidentiality of patient information to comply with policies and regulations.
222
What is scope creep?
The undisciplined addition of new goals, objectives, and milestones affecting project cost or timeline.
223
How can scope creep be avoided?
By anticipating it, reviewing scope changes regularly with the leadership team, and enforcing discipline.
224
What is agile methodology in project planning?
A flexible approach where initial objectives are set, followed by iterative sprints for development.
225
Why are policies and procedures important in organizations?
They standardize actions and operations, ensuring consistency and efficiency within the organization.
226
What is the significance of maintaining accreditation in healthcare organizations?
It requires defined policies on information management, security, and privacy.
227
How can organizations develop effective policies?
By considering the necessity of the policy, gathering peer advice, and ensuring auditability.
228
Why is it important to measure and review policies?
To ensure effectiveness, identify areas for improvement, and maintain compliance.
229
What does the California Health Care Foundation survey indicate about the support of PHRs?
PHRs support patients in improving their health, especially for those with multiple chronic conditions.
230
What is identified as the major stumbling block to PHR adoption?
Security concerns, with patients seeking evidence of complete data security.
231
How do most websites ensure security and privacy of patients' records in PHRs?
By allowing patients to decide who can view their information through secure URLs or separate logins.
232
Why have patients found it challenging to transfer information between different PHRs?
Information entered through insurance companies or third-party vendors cannot be easily transferred.
233
In what ways has the use of PHRs increased with medical home and accountable care platforms?
They provide incentives for keeping patients healthy.
234
What is the NHS Summary Care Record (SCR) and how is it created?
It is an electronic summary of key clinical information created automatically from the general practitioner's record.
235
What are the components of the Spine used by the NHS Care Record Service?
The Personal Demographics Service (PDS) and the secondary uses service (SUS) for research and public health delivery.
236
Why are doctors urged to use electronic communications like patient portals or secure messaging apps?
To address patient concerns and provide secure communication for convenience.
237
What is required in the US under Stage 1 of the CMS Meaningful Use related to medical records?
A copy of the medical record in electronic format to be human-readable.
238
Why is detailed planning beyond 18 months less valuable in the IT industry?
Due to rapid changes in the IT industry.
239
How can a project crosswalk be used within the department and at administrative review sessions?
To demonstrate the linkage between vision, goals, and projects.
240
How are project rankings weighted based on organizational goals and priorities?
Projects are scored and ranked against the organization's goals and priorities.
241
What is the importance of operational goals directing IT in an organization?
To ensure projects are aligned and not at risk.
242
What should information management and systems leaders be aware of in an organization?
Organizational goals and recommending systems and technologies.
243
What can help the IT leader and the organization avoid creating a service gap?
Remaining focused on goals.
244
What responsibilities do leaders have regarding IT requests and service overextension?
To serve as the organization's conscience and prioritize activities.
245
What should leaders know about assessing tactical steps to support organizational goals?
Focused goals bring clarity to the needed strategies.
246
Why is it important for an organization to understand what is achievable in a defined time period?
To avoid overextending and maintain discipline.
247
What is the role of an IT leader in understanding redirection and scope expansion?
Knowing when to redirect and expand scope.
248
What percentage of bankruptcies in the United States from 2013 to 2016 were tied to medical issues?
0.665
249
What was the primary intention of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act signed in 2010?
To help reduce financial risks for patients and make healthcare more affordable and accessible.
250
What are the three basic types of payers in the healthcare delivery organization perspective?
Government-financed and managed programs, insurance programs by private entities, and patients paying with personal funds.
251
What is one of the key requirements for interrelationships among healthcare organizations?
Enabling comprehensive care.
252
Why is effective communication of health information important during the transfer of care?
To advance the patient's treatment more efficiently and effectively.
253
How can technology impact the care process in healthcare organizations?
By facilitating the seamless interchange of patient clinical data and improving patient outcomes.
254
What is version control in software development?
Version control tracks and controls changes to source code.
255
How can different software versions help in bug fixing?
Different software versions help in locating and fixing bugs by identifying when a problem occurs.
256
What are security audits in a system?
Security audits are technical assessments of a system's security measures, done manually or automatically.
257
Why is change control important in system development?
Change control ensures changes are introduced in a controlled manner to prevent faults or undoing others' changes.
258
What is the purpose of test results reporting in software testing?
Test results reporting provides stakeholders with updates on testing status, activities, and schedules.
259
What are the key elements of a test report?
A test report should cover the test's mission, system/application details, risks, techniques, environment, status, and obstacles.
260
Why is the final evaluation report important?
The final evaluation report summarizes findings, conclusions, and recommendations to stakeholders after system testing.
261
What questions should the final evaluation report address?
The report should address if the system meets expectations, readiness for users, and outcomes with multiple users.
262
What certifications are recommended for clinicians in informatics?
HIMSS, CAHIMSSM, CPHIMSSM, and board certifications.
263
When did nurses start establishing roles as clinical informaticists?
Certifications started in 1992 for nurses.
264
What are some listed informatics certifications for clinicians?
HIMSS, CAHIMSSM, CPHIMSSM, and board certifications.
265
What impact do clinical informatics professionals have on patient health data management?
They have a significant impact from privacy and security to global population health.
266
Why is communication important for obtaining reimbursement in publicly funded healthcare systems?
Communication is essential to ensure reimbursement for care provided by private entities.
267
What role does the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) play in reimbursement in the United States?
CMS is involved in reimbursement for Medicare claims in the United States healthcare system.
268
What incentive program does the CMS offer to eligible professionals for improved health outcomes?
CMS offers the Merit-Based Incentive Payment System (MIPS) for eligible professionals.
269
How does the Leapfrog Group support healthcare purchasers and insurers?
The Leapfrog Group recognizes and rewards big leaps in healthcare safety, quality, and customer value.
270
What is the definition of an Integrated Delivery System (IDS) according to Stephen Shortell?
An IDS is an administrative entity providing coordinated services accountable for outcomes.
271
Explain the purpose of an Accountable Care Organization (ACO) in healthcare.
ACOs aim to provide a full spectrum of healthcare services while saving costs.
272
Why is information sharing important in the healthcare system according to the course notes?
Information sharing is crucial for achieving quality care outcomes and reducing costs.
273
What are business associates in the healthcare industry?
Entities who must maintain confidentiality, integrity, and availability of patient data.
274
What agreement defines the expectations for business associates?
Business associate agreement with the provider.
275
What Act in 2009 raised the accountability of business associates?
The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act.
276
What are the three categories of HIPAA security standards?
Administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.
277
What evaluation process confirms a breach in healthcare data?
Breach notification evaluation.
278
What is the European Union law related to medical data?
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).
279
What is the purpose of the breach notification process in healthcare?
To notify affected individuals timely after a confirmed breach.
280
What action is required for breaches affecting 500 or more individuals?
Immediate notification to the local media and Secretary of HHS.
281
How are breaches affecting less than 500 individuals reported?
They are entered in an online database with CMS.
282
What should be presumed for all inappropriate uses of PHI?
To be a breach unless proven otherwise.
283
How does HIMSS define customer centric?
Placing the customer as the center or focus of design or service.
284
Who are considered internal customers in healthcare IT?
Physicians, nurses, human resources representatives, and others within the organization.
285
What is the frame of reference when categorizing customers?
It defines the boundary within which customers are considered.
286
What is the SBARC acronym used for when initiating a project?
Situation, background, assessment, recommendation, and communication.
287
What is the purpose of a disciplinary approach to framing and initiating projects?
To ensure stakeholders and project team members operate from an identical framework.
288
How should suggestions for system changes be handled post-activation?
Suggestions for system changes should be documented unless critical to patient care.
289
What is the importance of having a clear process for submitting requests for change?
Having a clear process for change requests helps show user input is valuable.
290
What processes should be established for operations and maintenance post-system activation?
Processes like configuration management, release management, and customer support.
291
What should be included in the service desk knowledge base for an IT department?
Question guidelines, decision trees, and vendor escalation process details.
292
Why is it essential to have downtime procedures defined for end users and technical staff?
Downtime procedures ensure a systematic approach to identify and resolve issues.
293
What is integration testing?
Testing integrated components to detect inconsistencies and functionality.
294
What is stress testing?
Testing beyond normal capacity to observe system stability.
295
What is the purpose of integration testing?
To detect inconsistencies between software units and hardware.
296
Define acceptance testing.
Testing to determine if requirements are met and validate system implementation.
297
What is regression testing?
Testing to uncover new bugs post implementation of changes.
298
What is the goal of regression testing?
To ensure changes did not introduce new faults.
299
What controls are implemented for system testing?
Version controls to protect data and manage the system.
300
What is the best order of approach when undertaking a new project assignment?
Initiate, plan, execute, control and close
301
What is an IT steering committee responsible for?
Providing guidance on key issues like company policy, objectives, budget, marketing strategy, and resource allocation.
302
What is an important practice in healthcare for managing organization interactions?
Customer relationship management
303
What is the term for documentation supporting analysis, decision making, acquisition, and implementation processes?
System documentation
304
What model is commonly used for change management?
ADKAR
305
What does risk management involve in terms of assessing risk-related events?
Assessing the likelihood or probability of occurrence and the impact magnitude.
306
What are some components of operational requirements in an RFP?
Data architecture, analytical processes, reliability, security features, system capacity.
307
What do technical requirements in an RFP typically include?
Appropriate technical architecture, hardware, networking, software requirements.
308
What does application support encompass in a proposal?
Data conversion, acceptance testing, training, documentation, ongoing support.
309
Why is it important to include licensing and contractual details in an RFP?
To specify costs, financing arrangements, warranties, and protection clauses.
310
What is the purpose of an NDA in vendor interactions?
To protect confidential information by legally binding parties to confidentiality.
311
How can a cost–benefit analysis (CBA) be informed in procurement processes?
By using information from RFP or RFQ for evaluating benefits versus costs.
