CPHIMS Questions Flashcards
(300 cards)
1
Q
What are the learning objectives of Clinical Informatics?
A
To understand global aspects, domains, vocabulary, tools, and outcomes in clinical informatics.
2
Q
What are the global aspects covered in Clinical Informatics?
A
Global aspects include basic clinical vocabulary, information technology vocabulary, and common data analytics tools.
3
Q
What does Clinical Informatics cover in terms of basic clinical vocabulary and terms?
A
Basic clinical vocabulary and terms are explained, along with basic information technology vocabulary and terms.
4
Q
Which tools are discussed in relation to clinical content and decision support?
A
Tools include clinical data analytics tools, clinical outcomes, and operational outcomes.
5
Q
What aspects are highlighted under Healthcare Information and Systems Management?
A
Operational, managerial, and strategic aspects of IT implementation in healthcare systems.
6
Q
What are the applications mentioned for clinical functions in healthcare systems management?
A
Applications for clinical functions include administrative services and financial services.
7
Q
What is the importance of workflow and process mapping in healthcare facilities?
A
Workflow and process mapping help analyze current clinical processes and assess functional needs.
8
Q
What methodology is discussed for process improvement in healthcare practices?
A
DMAIC and PDCA/PDSA methodologies are explored for process improvement.
9
Q
How are deficiencies in current IT healthcare practices addressed?
A
Deficiencies are addressed by considering patient support, reduction in revenue generation, and industry standardization.
10
Q
What are the key activities during the implementation process of healthcare information systems?
A
Activities include change management, system integration, user training, and activation planning.
11
Q
What does CHC stand for in the context of healthcare services?
A
Community Health Centers
12
Q
What type of areas are Community Health Centers (CHCs) associated with in the United States?
A
Medically underserved areas
13
Q
What is the designation that allows small community hospitals in rural areas to receive higher reimbursement rates?
A
Critical Access Hospitals (CAHs)
14
Q
What are services like laboratory and diagnostic imaging commonly referred to as?
A
Ancillary services
15
Q
Which healthcare delivery organization serves citizens 65 years and older in the United States?
A
Medicare
16
Q
In the U.S. healthcare system, what program supports care for low-income families?
A
Medicaid
17
Q
In Germany, who mandates shared health insurance contributions from employers and employees?
A
Germany
18
Q
What type of health insurance is funded by employers or citizens directly in the United States?
A
Private health insurance
19
Q
How do healthcare organizations receive payment when treating patients insured through a private entity?
A
They bill the private health insurance entity.
20
Q
What type of healthcare payment involves individuals using their personal funds for services?
A
Personally funded healthcare services
21
Q
What may private health insurance allow the purchaser to receive that is not covered under a national benefit structure?
A
Services not covered under a national benefit structure
22
Q
What is the term for documents that support analysis, decision-making, acquisition, and implementation processes?
A
System documentation
23
Q
What common model is often used for change management?
A
ADKAR
24
Q
In risk management, what is assessing the likelihood and impact of a risk-related event called?
A
Quantification
25
What are the 'four pillars' of the healthcare environment?
Cost, access, value, and quality
26
How may hospitals be classified according to the notes?
Hospitals may be classified in more than one way.
27
How would an ambulatory surgery center be best classified?
An outpatient care setting
28
Where do payments generally come from, from the perspective of a healthcare delivery organization?
Government-financed programs, insurance programs, patients' personal funds
29
What is the purpose for interrelationships among healthcare organizations according to the notes?
Ensure effective transfers of care facilitated by providing health information
30
How is general portability of healthcare facilitated according to the notes?
By health information exchanges (HIEs) like NHIN
31
What is an example of the secondary use of a patient's health information?
Sharing with public health officials for statistical reporting
32
In financial reimbursement, what interrelationships between healthcare organizations may assure government payers?
Quality healthcare services have been delivered
33
Who are the key information technology professionals in healthcare organizations?
CIO, CSO, CMIO
34
What is a unique role nongovernment professional associations may not typically perform?
Making laws and regulations regarding reimbursements
35
What type of facility has there been a shift in care settings to according to the notes?
Outpatient centers
36
What is the expectation patients have regarding their health information security?
Private and secure
37
What do data warehouses include according to the notes?
Data from many different EHRs
38
What do interface engines support in the healthcare environment?
Interoperability and data integration
39
For what purpose can telehealth be used according to the notes?
To provide specialist care to patients in rural areas
40
What can mHealth applications address according to the notes?
A way to utilize mobile technology to achieve improved health goals
41
What makes healthcare data integration unique according to the notes?
Myriad un-adopted or poorly implemented standards
42
What are the main goals of an Enterprise Analytics department within a hospital?
All of the above
43
What do clinical informaticists use their knowledge to do according to the notes?
Various tasks related to clinical informatics
44
What process results in documentation of what the system actually does?
Requirement analysis
45
What does DMAIC stand for?
Define, measure, analyze, improve, control
46
Why is it important to have a work plan when managing projects and resources?
To plan the intended workflow processes by managing personnel
47
What type of information is collected as part of the RFP process?
Functional specifications, operational requirements, technical requirements, licensing and contractual information
48
What protects organizations from having their confidential information shared without consent?
Non-disclosure agreement
49
Identify two key aspects of system design.
Compatibility and interoperability
50
What roles are typically represented in a system design team?
Solution architect, information security officer, project manager
51
Which factors must be considered during system design?
System monitoring, disaster recovery, usability
52
What does detailed technical specifications address?
Availability, programming language, security and data encryption
53
Which phases are included in the Usability Maturity Model (UMM)?
Unrecognized, Implemented, Strategic, Optimized
54
What can unclear technical requirements lead to?
Positive vendor relationships
55
What is not included in the Data Management International (DAMA®) framework?
Data value analysis
56
What is included in the Technology Adoption Curve?
Innovators, technology enthusiasts, early adopters, visionaries, late majority conservatives
57
What could be part of functional requirements?
Printers, workflow redesign, backup and recovery plans
58
What is a characteristic of a request for proposal?
A collection of documents with detailed requirements
59
What does implementation execution involve?
Definition of the team’s roles and responsibilities, decision on implementation strategy
60
What is the goal of finding a structure for IT integration in the healthcare sector?
To include cost-effectiveness, patient safety and care, ease of processes, and industry standardization.
61
What key objectives must be identified initially for the IT integration work in healthcare facilities?
Evaluation of current operational situation, identification of major problems, and proposing alternative solutions.
62
What does the stage of identifying major problems in processes involve?
Comparing current processes' efficiency with IT implementation efficiency in a similar setting.
63
What is involved in the stage of carrying out a comparative analysis of alternative processes and original routines?
Using flow charts, tables, process flows, and other analytic tools to guide policy implementation decisions.
64
Why is evaluating the ethical, legal, social, and economic implications of alternatives important in the IT integration process?
To conduct a comprehensive cost–benefit analysis and foresee any potential implications.
65
What resources are usually assigned in the IT integration plan for healthcare facilities?
Personnel, partners, equipment, and legal/regulatory infrastructure.
66
What role does the project management or steering committee play in the implementation of a proposal?
Regulating budget allocations, monitoring expenditures, and overseeing accounts reconciliation.
67
What should the proposed solution model for healthcare facilities aim to meet?
Patient satisfaction, revenue generation, efficient processes, and conformity to industry standards.
68
What does project cost management involve?
Estimating project cost and ensuring completion within approved budget.
69
Explain project human resource management.
It involves obtaining, developing, and managing the project team.
70
What does project procurement management encompass?
Managing acquisition of products and services from external sources.
71
Define project risk management.
Focuses on identifying project risks and appropriate responses.
72
Describe project quality management.
Involves ensuring the project meets its objectives and requirements.
73
What is project integration management?
Integration of various project activities including planning, execution, monitoring, and closing.
74
What is the role of a project manager (PM)?
Responsible for meeting project goals within budget and on schedule, controlling resources, managing scope, schedule, and cost.
75
Why are vendor relationships important in healthcare?
Vendors provide expertise and support for meeting technology requirements.
76
What are the benefits of a well-managed vendor relationship?
Increased customer satisfaction, reduced costs, better quality and service.
77
What should be considered when selecting a vendor?
Analyzing business requirements, performing a vendor search, selecting based on needs.
78
Why is vendor performance monitoring important?
To ensure critical requirements are met and to avoid problems.
79
What are common pitfalls to avoid in vendor management?
Not confusing vendor selection with management and not selecting based on price alone.
80
What is the role of a credentialed medical assistant in entering orders into the medical record?
To enter orders as per state, local, and professional guidelines.
81
How does Patient Electronic Access to Health empower patients?
By providing timely electronic access to health information and education.
82
Explain the importance of Coordination of Care Through Patient Engagement.
To engage patients or their representatives about the patient's care.
83
How does Health Information Exchange support seamless care transition?
By providing a summary of care record when transitioning patients to another setting.
84
What is the significance of Public Health and Clinical Data Registry?
To submit electronic public health data in a meaningful way.
85
How can eligible hospitals protect patient health information?
By protecting ePHI through appropriate safeguards.
86
What is the purpose of Electronic Prescribing?
To generate and transmit permissible prescriptions electronically.
87
Why is Clinical Decision Support (CDS) important?
To implement interventions focused on improving health conditions.
88
Who can use Computerized Practitioner Order Entry (CPOE)?
Any licensed healthcare professional or credentialed medical assistant.
89
How does Patient Electronic Access to Health benefit patients?
By providing timely electronic access to health information and education.
90
What are technical safeguards in healthcare data security?
Electronic means to ensure data is not accessible or encrypted for third parties.
91
Give examples of technical safeguards in healthcare data security.
Network firewalls, secure protocols on public networks, and encryption on storage media.
92
What do physical safeguards in healthcare data security consist of?
Physical measures, policies, and procedures to protect electronic information systems.
93
Provide examples of physical safeguards in healthcare data security.
Data centers outside floodplains, redundant power sources, and limited access to server rooms.
94
What major cybersecurity threat do security professionals face today?
Cybersecurity - unauthorized access and malicious attacks on healthcare information systems.
95
What is ransomware in healthcare data security context?
Ransomware holds patient health information hostage for payment.
96
What is the purpose of a data classification policy in healthcare?
To protect information from unauthorized disclosure, use, modification, and deletion.
97
What is the importance of data management in healthcare providers?
To ensure the most useful data is quickly available.
98
Why is it advised for healthcare providers to develop a data retention and destruction policy?
To systematically destroy non-useful or end-of-life data.
99
What should be included in an organization's disaster recovery and business continuity plans?
Analysis of critical applications and data, data backup plan, disaster recovery plan, emergency-mode operation plan.
100
What are the primary priorities for individual healthcare facilities according to the needs hierarchy model?
Patient safety, profitability, ease of processes, industry standardization.
101
What is the significance of workflow and process mapping in healthcare?
To understand current processes, identify broken processes, aid in change management.
102
How do workflow and process mapping support functional data and technical strategies?
By guiding system configuration, creating test cases, and aiding new user training.
103
What does process mapping help identify in healthcare organizations?
Broken processes, need for process improvement through automation, and standard data structures.
104
What do process diagrams and flowcharts visually represent?
The boundaries of the process, steps involved, and sequence of steps.
105
What forms can workflow and process mapping diagrams take?
Activity diagrams, swim lane charts, data flow diagrams, system flowcharts, entity relationship diagrams, class diagrams, use cases.
106
How does proper IT implementation impact the process of patient briefing in healthcare?
Allows convenient patient briefing and follow-up through trusted e-mail services, enables patient choice of communication channel.
107
In what areas can IT be effectively used in healthcare processes based on process flow diagrams?
Administrative and financial, operational, process flow and standardization.
108
List the seven protection and accountability principles of data protection under GDPR.
1. Lawfulness, fairness and transparency 2. Purpose limitation 3. Data minimization 4. Accuracy 5. Storage limitation 6. Integrity and confidentiality 7. Accountability
109
What are the eight privacy rights of EU individuals under GDPR?
1. Right to be informed 2. Right of access 3. Right to rectification 4. Right to erasure 5. Right to restrict processing 6. Right to data portability 7. Right to object 8. Rights in relation to automated decision making and profiling
110
Define 'Personal data' as per GDPR.
Any information about an individual who can be directly or indirectly identified.
111
Who is a 'Data controller' according to GDPR?
The person who decides why and how personal data will be processed.
112
What are some examples of tools used to assess GDPR readiness for organizations?
Tools may include review of current policies, procedures, contracts, and relevant documents.
113
What are the consequences for not being GDPR compliant?
Maximum penalty of €20 million or 4% of global revenue, along with other sanctions.
114
Explain 'Data processor' as per GDPR.
A third party that processes personal data on behalf of the data controller.
115
What criteria must a data processor meet to legally process personal data under GDPR?
Consent of the data subject, necessity for a contract, legal obligation, saving a life, public interest, or legitimate interest.
116
What measures should organizations implement for GDPR compliance?
Technical measures like two-factor authentication, end-to-end encryption, and organizational measures like staff training, data privacy policy.
117
What should a well-developed plan map in an organization?
Organizational strategies and supporting applications/processes.
118
What does the map of a well-developed plan provide?
Visual representation of current systems status.
119
What does the gap analysis in a plan focus on?
Focuses on the gaps between current state and desired future state.
120
What approach can be considered to evaluate the current organization?
SWOT analysis - strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats.
121
What should the plan outline in cases where a single change cannot bridge the gap?
Outline steps needed to achieve the desired outcome.
122
Why should a plan focus only on the first step or two of a long process?
Technologies and priorities may change during the interval.
123
What examples of IT initiatives might be included in a plan?
Virtual ICUs, cloud transitions, RFID, AI, device integration.
124
Why is planning for resourcing and succession crucial in a strategic plan?
To ensure consistent leadership despite turnover.
125
How should the IT strategic plan be maintained once developed?
Regularly updated as part of the organizational plan.
126
What must be visible to the entire department for commitment to objectives?
Key IT objectives.
127
How should annual performance objectives be tied back to the IT strategic plan?
They can be linked back to the plan.
128
What should be used to track a project effectively?
Project plan and Gantt chart.
129
What does a Gantt chart include in project tracking?
Details each step, start/end dates, completion percentage.
130
What is the purpose of Project ECHO?
To train and support primary care clinicians in providing specialized care.
131
What areas has Project ECHO expanded into?
Mental health, substance abuse, HIV, besides its initial focus on hepatitis C.
132
How has the Re-Engineered Discharge (RED) protocol helped hospitals?
It helps rework discharge processes, reducing readmissions by 30%.
133
What is the goal of Clinical Decision Support (CDS) tools?
To provide patient-specific clinical information for better outcomes.
134
What role do clinical informaticists play in CDS design?
They translate workflow and understand challenges for clinicians.
135
Why is acceptance and adoption of CDS crucial?
It's critical for the successful implementation of new systems.
136
Where is CDS typically implemented within healthcare systems?
It's usually seen within EHRs in the form of order sets and alerts.
137
What is essential for successful use of CDS in healthcare settings?
Maintaining current, evidence-based clinical content is crucial.
138
What are the 'four pillars' of the healthcare environment?
C. Cost, access, value and quality
139
Which statement is true regarding hospital classification?
D. Hospitals may be classified in more than one way; for example, an urban hospital might also be classified as a government-owned hospital or as a general hospital
140
How would an ambulatory surgery center best be classified?
B. An outpatient care setting
141
From the perspective of the healthcare delivery organization, where do payments generally come from?
B. Government-financed and managed programs, insurance programs managed by private entities and patients’ personal funds
142
What is the correct purpose for interrelationships among healthcare organizations?
B. Ensure effective transfers of care facilitated by the provision of essential health information
143
What facilitates the general portability of healthcare?
A. Health information exchanges (HIEs) such as Canada’s Health Infoway and the U.S. HIE programs
144
What does the business continuity plan define?
How an organization prepares for and maintains business functions related to a defined system.
145
What does the disaster recovery plan focus on?
Technical aspects such as data backup and recovery after system failure.
146
How often are data backups typically done for critical systems?
Nightly
147
Where are data backups often stored for critical systems?
Off-site on redundant servers or through a cloud-computing provider.
148
What is an example of a hardware configuration that provides continuity?
Automatic failover between clustered servers.
149
Why should business continuity and disaster recovery plans be tested regularly?
To ensure processes work as intended and to make necessary updates.
150
What is key to end user satisfaction and effective system utilization?
Successful implementation.
151
What is important for keeping up with updates and new workflows?
Continued support and maintenance of the system.
152
What types of requirements should evaluation and selection criteria be aligned with?
Organization's strategic, privacy, security, and regulatory requirements.
153
What might be a better option than a single vendor solution?
Best of breed solution.
154
What are the types of hospitals based on the service provided?
General hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, rehabilitation hospitals, and children's hospitals.
155
What is the role of teaching hospitals besides providing clinical services?
Training future physicians and healthcare providers, contributing to medical research.
156
How are hospitals classified based on geographic location?
As urban hospitals in large cities or as rural hospitals distant from major urban areas.
157
Where is most primary care provided?
In the ambulatory or outpatient care setting, often in a doctor's office.
158
What shift has been observed in recent years regarding surgical procedures?
A shift from acute care settings to outpatient settings for less complicated surgeries.
159
Why are urgent care clinics opening up at a tremendous rate?
Due to patient demand for more flexible hours and convenient care options.
160
What are some examples of nontraditional care settings mentioned in the text?
Minute clinics at drugstores, walk-in options, and virtual visits using video calling apps.
161
What are the multiple models of outpatient care mentioned?
Single independent provider offices, multi-provider group practices, hospital emergency departments.
162
What does the term 'community' generally refer to in healthcare?
The specific geographic location where healthcare is delivered.
163
What do community health organizations provide to local populations?
Most of the care available in their respective local areas.
164
Define 'Records' in the context of a database.
Horizontal rows in a database containing different pieces of data belonging to a given entity.
165
What is the purpose of a 'Graphs and Charts' data analytics tool?
To examine and present data visually using tools like scatter plots, pie charts, and bar charts.
166
Explain what a 'Control Chart' is used for.
To analyze process variation over time, identifying common and special-cause variations within upper and lower control limits.
167
What is the purpose of 'Predictive Modeling' in data analytics?
To use data analytics to predict future outcomes based on past data, trends, and patterns.
168
Why is inspecting data prior to presentation valuable?
To ensure accuracy and relevance, enhancing the ability to recognize clinical and operational outcomes.
169
Which data analytics tools are considered necessary for clinical informatics specialists?
Reports, tables, graphs, charts, and predictive models.
170
What is emphasized as vital for clinical informatics specialists to master from the given notes?
Recognizing outcomes through data analytics tools and terminology.
171
According to the notes, what will keep the field of clinical informatics chaotic and busy?
Big data, along with project management, evidence-based CDS, and mobile technology.
172
What key documents make up the project management plan?
Risk management plan, change management plan, training plan, testing plan, issue management plan, work breakdown structure, communication plan.
173
What is the purpose of the kickoff meeting in project management?
To communicate the project to stakeholders and present project details.
174
What are the typical agenda items for a kickoff meeting?
Project scope, project management methodology, change management process, identified risks and mitigation, project team introduction, milestones and schedule, communication plan.
175
Why is change management important when implementing a new system?
To handle the impact on the organization, improve processes, and manage changes effectively.
176
What should a change management team include?
Members from all affected areas, clinical champions, IT champions, top-level support, and senior leadership.
177
Why is stakeholder involvement crucial in workflow redesign?
To ensure end user readiness for change and successful adoption.
178
How does a clear communication plan benefit change management?
Ensures proper dissemination of information throughout the organization.
179
What do clinical informaticists do according to AMIA?
Characterize, evaluate, and refine clinical processes; lead or participate in various activities related to clinical information systems.
180
What is one aspect of the Domains of Clinical Informatics?
Information and communication technology.
181
What are the current measurement goals of eCQMs for both Medicare and Medicaid?
Patient safety, population/public health, clinical process/effectiveness.
182
Which areas does the medical specialty of otolaryngology cover?
Sinus issues and swallowing difficulty.
183
What is a branch of AI that helps computers understand human language?
Natural Language Processing.
184
What is a noted disadvantage of clinical decision support (CDS)?
Clinical burnout and documentation burden.
185
Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Rights of CDS?
Right facility.
186
What is the purpose of performing a cost–benefit analysis?
To determine how long it will take to achieve the payback period of the investment.
187
What may key elements include when presenting analysis to executive leadership?
Possible changes in project implementation driven by changes in technology standards.
188
Which of the following tools is not commonly used for conducting a needs analysis?
Gap analysis.
189
What are the typical priorities taken into consideration when assessing a project?
Patient safety and security, profitability, ease of processes, standardization.
190
What is the purpose of the CPHIMS Review Guide Fourth Edition?
Preparing for Success in Healthcare Information and Management Systems.
191
Where can requests for permission to reproduce parts of the work be sent?
HIMSS 350 N. Orleans St. Suite S10000 Chicago, IL 60654, Attn: Certification (certification@himss.org).
192
When was the Fourth Edition of the CPHIMS Review Guide published?
2021
193
What can the inclusion of an organization in the publication NOT be construed as?
An endorsement of such organization, product, or service.
194
Where is Routledge located?
600 Broken Sound Parkway #300, Boca Raton FL, 33487 and 2 Park Square, Milton Park, Abingdon, Oxon, OX14 4RN.
195
What is Routledge's association?
An imprint of the Taylor & Francis Group, an informa business.
196
Who asserts the right to be identified as the author of the editorial material?
Healthcare Information & Management Systems Society (HIMSS).
197
What should be done to reproduce any part of the book?
Obtain permission in writing from the publishers.
198
What are the five phases of the Usability Maturity Model (UMM)?
Unrecognized, Preliminary, Implemented, Integrated, Strategic
199
What are the recommended tactics to expand usability within an organization according to the UMM?
Include usability in contracts, Create feedback loops, Talk about tasks and workflows, Educate about ROI, Engage organizational leaders
200
What is BYOD in the context of information infrastructure?
Bring Your Own Device
201
Why is it important for healthcare organizations to anticipate emerging business requirements?
To ensure the information infrastructure can support future needs.
202
What is the significance of the 11th Revision of the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11)?
It is an example of a future business requirement that healthcare organizations should prepare for.
203
What is the technology adoption curve?
A curve showing the adoption of new technologies over time.
204
Why is business continuity planning crucial for healthcare organizations?
To ensure systems can recover from disasters and ensure data availability.
205
What is cloud computing in healthcare?
The provision of applications over the Internet to access resources.
206
Why is data security important in cloud computing for healthcare organizations?
To protect application data and customer information stored on servers.
207
How can projects be visualized in both summarized and detailed ways?
Projects can be visualized using highly summarized and detailed methods.
208
What is a common tool used by organizations to manage projects effectively?
Many organizations use a simple spreadsheet to manage projects effectively.
209
What does a service-level agreement (SLA) include for departments with service components?
SLA includes indicators tracked at regular intervals.
210
How can service-level parameters best be measured?
Service-level parameters can best be measured using a dashboard visualization tool.
211
What does a stretch goal typically exceed?
A stretch goal typically exceeds any quality-of-service parameters.
212
What are control charts in a typical dashboard?
Control charts are statistical representations on a dashboard with UCL and LCL.
213
Why is it necessary to review the process if a series of points moves in one direction?
Reviewing is needed for special-cause variation due to natural variation around a mean.
214
Why might variation in healthcare signal immediate attention?
Variation in healthcare may signal changes in patient care quality.
215
What is a method to prevent isolation and enhance communication with stakeholders?
Regular departmental and system assessments prevent isolation and enhance communication.
216
How can measuring system effectiveness start according to the notes?
Measuring system effectiveness should start with a baseline analysis.
217
Why is it important to have both objective and subjective assessments of quality metrics?
Objective and subjective assessments help understand quality metrics comprehensively.
218
How can a baseline assessment be accomplished?
Baseline assessment can be done through face-to-face interviews or unit rounding.
219
What is the role of an Electronic Health Record (EHR) system?
To store patient data, execute algorithms, and integrate with other healthcare systems.
220
What types of data can drive prediction models in EHR systems?
Vital signs, lab results, and outpatient visit attendance numbers.
221
What is the importance of interoperability in clinical systems?
To avoid entering data multiple times and ensure seamless data exchange.
222
How do picture archiving and communication systems (PACS) benefit healthcare facilities?
They store and display images, reducing the need for physical films and saving costs.
223
What are some examples of specialized documentation areas in healthcare?
Perinatal, perioperative, critical care units, primary care, and renal dialysis.
224
What are some capabilities of Enterprise EHR systems?
Population health management, specialized clinical modules, and integration with external systems.
225
How do financial applications in healthcare IT differ from other organizations?
They handle more variables than most businesses' financial needs.
226
What are some functionalities provided by administrative applications in healthcare?
Support for clinicians, payroll, staff scheduling, educational applications, and staff competency record keeping.
227
Why is it important to provide vendors with a list of scenarios before a demonstration?
To ensure they show how their product meets your needs and not just highlight features.
228
What is the benefit of having each vendor demonstrate how their product fits within the same scenarios?
Easier comparison and scoring of options prior to final selection.
229
How can scheduling demonstrations closely together benefit the decision-making process?
Ensures the information is fresh when vendors' products are scored.
230
What advantages does a trial period or trial version of software offer during the selection process?
Allows end user scenario testing to assess fit for requirements.
231
What does visiting a site that has implemented a vendor's solution help demonstrate?
How the system can be customized to fit defined workflows and processes.
232
Why is it important to ask specific questions during site visits to organizations using the vendor's solution?
To understand vendor support, customization, and integration with other systems.
233
If a site visit is not feasible, what alternative option can provide insights into vendor solutions?
A call with the reference site or a remote web meeting to see the system in action.
234
How can client references help the selection team assess potential vendors?
By providing insights into the implementation process and lessons learned.
235
What are some advantages of Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE)?
Averting handwriting issues, drug alerts, formulary recommendations, economic savings, faster order transmission.
236
List some disadvantages of Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE).
Perceived as more work, coding requirements, design and maintenance issues, duplicate alert problems, overdependence on CDS.
237
According to Dr. W. Edwards Deming, what impact does a bad system have?
A bad system will beat a good person every time.
238
What are some advantages of Clinical Decision Support (CDS)?
Increased quality of care, error avoidance, improved efficiency, CPOE.
239
State some disadvantages of Clinical Decision Support (CDS).
Alarm/alert fatigue, burnout, delegation issues, data integrity, system design problems.
240
What are the Five Rights of Clinical Decision Support (CDS)?
Right information, right person, right format, right channel, right time.
241
What framework is recommended for CDS by Osheroff et al.?
Five-rights framework adopted by AHRQ.
242
How can CDS tools help healthcare providers according to Bresnick?
By suggesting next steps, alerting to available information, catching potential problems.
243
What is the purpose of clinical data analytics tools?
To manage clinical data, analyze it retrospectively or use predictive analytics.
244
How are CDS tools evolving in terms of technology?
Leveraging machine learning and artificial intelligence for powerful analytics.
245
What does DNFB stand for?
Discharged not final billed
246
Explain the significance of DNFB in billing processes.
It indicates the expected amount of money to be billed to the guarantor, pending documentation.
247
Define 'days cash on hand'.
Cash available to the organization and represents the number of days it could operate without new funds.
248
Why are internal benchmarks important for organizational operations?
They are reflections of financial indicators and usually set by operations or the board of directors.
249
What are quality indicators in healthcare?
Standards set by government agencies or payers to establish benchmarks for quality of care.
250
What is the National Academy of Medicine known for?
Producing publications on patient quality, safety issues, and Health IT.
251
Why is quality assurance essential for IT departments?
To ensure safe and high-quality software performance, such as patient safety systems.
252
What role does the Leapfrog Group play in healthcare?
They provide testing to ensure appropriate decision support and alerts for certain programs.
253
What do department policies and procedures (P&Ps) help to guide?
Processes and actions employees should use to perform their work.
254
What does a procedure document describe?
How an outcome is to be accomplished.
255
What are the two purposes of policies and procedures?
1. Set performance requirements. 2. Serve as ongoing references and orientation documents.
256
What are the steps useful in developing P&Ps?
1. Identify a need. 2. Draft a policy/procedure. 3. Get management approval. 4. Distribute approved document. 5. Revise as needed. 6. Coordinate with relevant areas.
257
What elements do department P&Ps address related to security?
Access control, entity authentication, audit trails, data encryption, firewall protection, virus checking.
258
What is essential for healthcare organizations to achieve various accreditations?
Department policies and procedures (P&Ps).
259
What is important for IT leaders in today's healthcare arena?
Handling multiple projects, strategic planning, and dealing with customer relationships.
260
What blend of awareness do today's leaders in healthcare IT require?
Clinical and business awareness.
261
What are critical for the success of IT leaders in healthcare?
Stakeholder engagement and monitoring customer satisfaction.
262
What do healthcare organizations strive to achieve in terms of new technology?
Leading with new technology and delivering high-quality care to patients.
263
Why is it important to rank requirements during the selection process?
Clarity on which requirements are necessary helps evaluate vendor responses.
264
What is the purpose of feeding requirements and rankings into RFI or RFP documentation?
To define vendor evaluation criteria and process for selecting solutions.
265
What factors influence the decision to build or buy a new solution?
Factors like organization's skill set, budget, timeline, IT strategy, and vendor capabilities.
266
Why is it crucial to involve the right people in the selection process?
To ensure successful system selection and implementation.
267
Who provides contracting and negotiation expertise in the selection team?
The Contracting Representative.
268
Why should team membership in the selection process balance including the right people with keeping the size manageable?
To ensure efficiency and effectiveness during the selection process.
269
What role does the Governance Committee play in the selection process?
Provides oversight but is not directly involved in the team.
270
Why should a facilitator be identified early on in the selection process?
To ensure the process progresses as expected and involves the right people.
271
Why are representatives from clinical, IT, and business departments included in the selection team?
To ensure all affected areas of the organization are involved.
272
What are examples of technical safeguards?
Locked doors, property control tags, employee ID badges.
273
What is the underlying principle for safeguarding patient health information?
To do no harm to the patient.
274
What does HIPAA require covered entities to maintain?
Privacy, security, and standards compliance for PHI.
275
When is the inappropriate use of PHI presumed to be a breach?
Unless proven there is a low probability the PHI was compromised.
276
What does GDPR apply to?
The personally identifiable information of a European Union citizen.
277
What is the best approach to reduce risk to an acceptable level?
Mitigate by implementing safeguards to reduce risk.
278
What can audits of a covered entity's security plan include?
External penetration testing and internal vulnerability testing.
279
What is a project manager responsible for?
Delivering project objectives within budget and on schedule.
280
What is the best order of approach when undertaking a new project assignment?
Initiate, plan, execute, control and close.
281
What is an advisory committee providing guidance on key issues called?
An IT steering committee.
282
What is an important step to avoid when managing budgets?
Negotiate a good budget at the close of the budget cycle.
283
What is the widely accepted practice in healthcare for managing organization interactions?
Customer relationship management.
284
What does documentation focus on?
Capturing and storing information for future reference.
285
What is the importance of understanding healthcare trends in building healthcare IT?
It is the basis of designing and supporting healthcare providers in caring for patients.
286
Where can you find the HIMSS Dictionary of Health Information and Technology Terms?
Boca Raton: Taylor & Francis Group, LLC, 2019.
287
What benefits are highlighted in the Office of the National Coordinator's Issue Brief on EHRs?
Benefits of Electronic Health Records.
288
Which organization released the ACR-AAPM-SIM Technical Standard for Electronic Practice of Medical Imaging?
American College of Radiology.
289
What type of information can be found on EMR by visiting the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?
Certifications, Licenses, and Accreditations.
290
What tool for managing health is discussed in the Mayo Clinic Staff guide?
Personal Health Record.
291
Where can information on Connected Health be found as per the HIMSS guide?
Chicago: HIMSS, 2019.
292
What can be accessed on the National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics' website?
Information on Personal Health Records and Systems.
293
In what city is Aetna's Personal Health Record discussed?
Hartford, CT.
294
According to the California HealthCare Foundation, what motivates consumers in using Personal Health Records?
Improving their health.
295
What is the purpose of a mapping document in interface messages?
To describe where each piece of data is expected and if any manipulation is needed.
296
Why is it important to set up a training environment early in a project?
To allow the training team to develop materials and hypothetical patient data.
297
What factors influence the decision on the type of training to provide?
Organizational culture, extent of change, number of users, users' work hours, and staff's comfort level with computers.
298
Why is training scheduled right before activation?
So users retain what they were taught.
299
How can issues during the training phase be supported?
Through manuals, quick reference guides, and support staff presence.
300
What activities are involved in activation planning?
Deciding on implementation strategy, defining pre-activation activities, and go-live day tasks.
