Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Y2 Practice Qs > CPT > Flashcards

CPT Flashcards

1
Q

How do you calculate NNT?

A

1/absolute risk reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can you do within an hour of paracetamol overdose?

A

Give activated charcoal to prevent absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name the CYP450 Inducers

A

PCBRAS - Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Barbituates, Rifampicin, Alcohol (chronic use), Sulfonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the CYP450 Inhibitors

A

GODEVICES - Grapefruit juice, Omeprazole, Disulfiram, Erythromycin, Valproate, Isoniazid, Cimetidine, Alcohol (acute use), Sulphonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Effect on CYP inducers on COCP?

A

Cause it to be metabolised too quickly - higher dose required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give 4 drugs that increase plasma statin

A

CYP3A4 involved- amiodarone, diltiazem and macrolides increase plasma statin

Amlodipine also increases plasma statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is lidocaine given IV?

A

Extensive 1st pass metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is lidocaine affected by CYP inhibitors/ inducers?

A

active metabolites require CYP activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why are you careful w fenofibrate and warfarin being prescribed together?

A

Increased anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Administration of benzos?

A

Administration: Intravenous Lorazepam, Diazepam rectally, Buccal or intranasal Midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does digoxin work in HF?

A

Digoxin binds to and inhibits the sodium/potassium-ATPase (sodium pump) within the plasma membrane of cardiac myocytes. This inhibition increases the intracellular sodium content which in turn increases the intracellular calcium content which leads to increased cardiac contractility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Effect of hypokalaemia on digoxin?

A

Increases its activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Common side effect of potent anti-diarrhoeals?

A

Paralytic ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common side effect of PPIs?

A

Mask symptoms of gastro-oesophageal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PPI DDIs?

A

Δ Omeprazole CYP inhibitor – reduced clopidogrel action

PPIs can increase effects of warfarin and phenytoin - monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sided effects of SABA and LABA ?

A

adrenergic - tachycardia, palpitations, anxiety and tremor

SVT due to decreased refractory period at AVN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics?

A

Typical:- Block D2 receptors in all CNS dopaminergic pathways
- Main action as antipsychotics is on mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways

Atypical:- Low affinity for D2 receptors

  • Milder side effects as dissociate rapidly from D2 receptor
  • mixture of mood stabilisers and D2 antagonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give 2 contraindications for COCP

A

Current breast cancer

Smoking in age 35+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What % must Q risk be greater than for a statin to be prescribed? What should be done before starting a statin?

A

> 10%

LFTs at 3 and 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What tx is someone switched to if they experience myalgia on statins?

A

Ezetimibe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why might a vasoconstricting agent be used in conjunction with a local anaesthetic?

A

Increase duration of anaesthesia , decrease minimum effective dose required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Primary site of action of tiotropium?

A

M3 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pt info needed to create an appropriate chemotherapy regimen

A

BMI
Liver and renal function
Performance status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are selegiline and rasagline used for in Parkinson’s?

A

MAO B inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
First line in idiopathic Parkinson's?
Co-carledopa (levodopa + dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor)
26
4 types of generalised seizure
Absence Myoclonic Tonic-clonic Atonic
27
Effect of valproate on lamotrigine?
Increases its plasma conc
28
Stepwise management of acute (dangerous) asthma?
Oh Shit I Hate My Asthma ``` Oxygen Salbutamol (nebulised) Ipratropium bromide (nebulised) Hydracortisone iV or Oral Prednisolone Magneisum sulphate IV Aminophylline/ IV salbutamol ```
29
First line medical management for COPD?
Inhaled salbutamol/ ipratropium
30
First line management for non-concerning dyspepsia?
Trial omeprazole and review in 4 weeks
31
What should be prescribed alongside aspirin for a pt with a history of GORD?
Lansoprazole
32
How do you eradicate H Pylori? How to check eradication?
PPI + 2 abx ( amoxicillin + clarithromycin OR metronidazole + clarithromycin) Urea breath test
33
Management for constipation?
Lifestyle - increase fibre and exercise 1st line - Isphagula husk Then add or switch to macrogol If macrogol ineffective then lactulose
34
Mechanism of action of methadone?
Mu- receptor agonist
35
Tx for infective exacerbation of COPD?
Amoxicillin or doxycycline if penicillin allergic
36
Foods to avoid in excess on warfarin?
Broccoli, spinach , kale and sprouts - contain high levels of vit K
37
What are sex steroids synthesised from? What receptors do they act at?
Cholesterol Nuclear receptors that exert effects through gene transcription Oestrogen has a membrane receptor
38
Classes of drug resistance
Multi-drug resistant (MDR) - Non-susceptibility to at least one agent in three or more antimicrobial categories Extensively-drug resistant (XDR) - Non-susceptibility to at least one agent in all but two or fewer antimicrobial categories Pan-drug resistant (PDR) - Non-susceptibility to all agents in all antimicrobial categories
39
Betam lactam MOA and examples
Interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan- Generally bactericidal Penicillins Cephalosporins Carbapenems
40
What is co-amoxiclav?
AMOXICILLIN + CLAVULANIC ACID Beta-lactamase = enzyme used by certain bacteria to break down Beta-lactam antibiotic molecular structure Clavulanic acid = Beta-lactamase inhibitor Clavulanic acid is commonly combined with amoxicillin in order to overcome this issue = Co-amoxiclav
41
How do tetracyclines work? Example?
Inhibit protein synthesis, bacteriostatic Doxycycline Tetracycline
42
Who can't have tetracyclines?
Shouldn’t be given to children <12 years, pregnant and breastfeeding women (causes staining of developing teeth)
43
Macrolide MOA? Examples?
Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by an effect on ribosomal translocation- Bactericidal/bacteriostatic Clarithromycin Erythromycin Azithromycin
44
Nitrofurantoin MOA?
Works by being reduced to multiple reactive intermediates by nitrofuran reductase inside the bacterial cell These intermediates then attack ribosomal and DNA proteins within the bacteria, as well as inhibit the Citric acid cycle
45
Quinolones MOA and examples?
Inhibit topoisomerase II (a bacterial DNA gyrase), the enzyme that produces a negative supercoil in DNA and thus permits transcription or replication Ciprofloxacin Levofloxacin
46
Side effect profile for quinolones?
Tendinitis +/- rupture Aortic dissection Central nervous system effects (inc. Convulsions)
47
Give 2 agents that interfere with folate
Sulfonamides | Trimethoprim
48
Trimethroprim MOA?
Folate antagonist: Reversible inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase, which is necessary for the biosynthesis of bacterial nucleic acids and proteins
49
2 key examples of antivirals?
Aciclovir (DNA Polymerase Inhibitors) | Oseltamivir (Neuraminidase Inhibitors)
50
BB ADRs?
Mask tachycardia – sign of insulin induced hypoglycaemia Bradycardia, heart block, Raynaud’s (cold hands), lethargy, impotence Bronchospasm bc act at respiratory B receptors too
51
Valproate ADRs?
Liver failure Pancreatitis Lethargy
52
Effect of calcineurin inhibitors on TH2?
Prevents them producing IL2
53
calcineurin inhibitors ADRs?
renal toxicity ( check BP and eGFR regularly), gum hypertrophy
54
Digoxin contraindication?
X Heart block, renal failure, hypokalaemia (increased digoxin activity) Diuretics that can cause hypokalaemia, amiodarone
55
Gliclazide drug class? How do they act?
Sulfonylureas | Block ATP dependent K+ channels to stimulate B-cell pancreatic insulin secretion
56
exenatide and liraglutide drug class?
GLP-1 receptor agonists (incretin mimetics)
57
Verapamil contraindications?
X Poor LV function (caution), AV nodal conduction delay
58
Other name for gliptins?
Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors
59
MOA of glitazones?
Insulin sensitisation in muscle and adipose, ↓hepatic glucose output by activation of PPAR-γ → gene transcription
60
Which diabetes drug has the mad side effects?
Glitazones - GI upset, fluid retention, fracture risk, bladder cancer AND weight gain because of fat call differentiation
61
How does fenofibrate help with hyperlipidaemia?
Activation of nuclear transcription factor – PPARα- which regulates expression of genes that control lipoprotein metabolism = increase production of lipoprotein lipase ↑triglycerides removal from lipoprotein in plasma ↑fatty acid uptake by the liver
62
Ezetimibe MOA?
Inhibit NPC1L1 transporter at brush border in small intestines
63
dipyridamole drug class? MOA?
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor inhibits cellular reuptake of adenosine → increased [adenosine] → inhibits platelet aggregation via adenosine (A2) receptors Also acts as phosphodiesterase inhibitor which prevents cAMP degradation → inhibit expression of GPIIb/IIIa
64
Corticosteroids for N&V?
Dexamethasone and Methylprednisolone
65
Examples of LMWH?
dalteparin, enoxaparin and fondaparinux
66
ADRs of LMWH?
Bruising and bleeding- Intracranial, at site of injection, GI, epistaxis HIT Hyperkalaemia- aldosterone inhibition Osteoporosis- more in pregnancy
67
Give examples of DOACs
apixaban edoxaban and rivaroxaban-Inhibit both free Xa and that bound with ATIII
68
What is amiloride?
potassium sparing diuretic
69
Why is warfarin avoided in pregnancy?
It crosses the placenta – avoided at least in 1st (teratogenic) and 3rd (haemorrhage) trimesters
70
Main contraindication for metformin?
excreted unchanged by kidneys – stop if eGFR < 30 mL/min, alcohol intoxication
71
Levetiracetam MOA?
Synaptic vesicle glycoprotein binder. Stops the release of neurotransmitters into synapse and reduces neuronal activity
72
What increases peripheral breakdown of levodopa?
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
73
Atropine MOA?
Antimuscarinic – blocks M2 receptors (vagal activity) increasing firing of SA node and conduction through AV node
74
Dihydropyridine CCB contraindications?
X Unstable angina, severe aortic stenosis
75
Special Dihydropyridine CCBs?
amoldipine has a longer half life than the others, nimodipine is selective from cerebral vasculature so can be used in subarachnoid haemorrhage
76
Adenosine MOA?
A1 receptor agonist – activate K+ channels enhancing flow out of cells causing hyperpolarisation Slows conduction through AVN
77
Rituximab use in RA?
Binds to CD20 found on a subset of B cells, causes B cell apoptosis
78
Methotrexate MOA? Side effects?
Competitively inhibits DHFR ( needed for purine and thymidine synthesis), inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis, cytotoxic ( however mechanism in non malignant disease is uncertain) ALL the itis things

Y2 Practice Qs (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions