cranial nerve details Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

where does CN I terminate?

A

it is a CNS tract that terminates in the olfactory bulb

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2
Q

what are true olfactory nerves?

A

2nd order ganglion nerve cells which pierce the cribiform plate

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3
Q

what is a perversion of smell?

A

parosmia

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4
Q

what is an abnormally disagreeable smell?

A

cacosmia

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5
Q

describe the pathway of the neurons of CN I

A

primary- unmyelinated; through cribiform plate to olfactory bulb
secondary- myelinated bipolar cells; form olfactory tract and terminate in primary olfactory cortex
tertiary- from primary olfactory cortex to entorhinal cortex (area 28), lateral preoptic, amygdaloid body, medial forebrain

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6
Q

what are the peripheral connections of CN II?

A

1st order- rods and cones of retina- connect with bipolar cells
2nd order- retinal bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells near retina surface
3rd order- ganglion cells; myelinated and form optic nerve fibers
4th order- geniculocalcarine tract from lateral geniculate bodies; pass to occipital cortex

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7
Q

what part of the optic radiation curves around the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle?

A

Meyer’s loop

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8
Q

where does the optic tract pass to?

A

lateral geniculate bodies
superior colliculi
pretectal region

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9
Q

how does the optic nerve connect to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus?

A

posterior commissure

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10
Q

how does the optic nerve connect to the other cranial and spinal nuclei?

A

from superior colliculi via tectobulbar and tectospinal tracts

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11
Q

how does the optic nerve connect to other cortical and subcortical areas?

A

from the occipital cortex

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12
Q

which fibers are responsible for simple and consensual light reflexes?

A

fibers from pretectal region

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13
Q

which tract is responsible for visual perception?

A

geniculocalcarine tract

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14
Q

what area is concerned with light reflex?

A

pretectal area

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15
Q

what area is responsible for reflex movements of the eye?

A

superior colliculus

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16
Q

the tectobulbar and tectospinal tracts carry information to?

A
  1. cranial and spinal nuclei for involuntary reflexes (accommodation)
  2. pontine nuclei via corticopontine tract for postural reflexes
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17
Q

what is the retinal area for central vision?

A

macula

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18
Q

where is vision sharpest and color discrimination best?

A

fovea centralis

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19
Q

what are the cones responsible for?

A

sharp vision and color discrimination

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20
Q

what involves the optic nerve or tract, MC cause is MS?

A

retrobulbar neuritis

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21
Q

what includes various forms of retinitis?

A

optic or bulbar neuritis

simple, proteinuric, syphilitc, diabetic, hemorrhagic, hereditary

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22
Q

what is associated with decreased visual acuity and change in color of optic disc?

A

optic atrophy

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23
Q

what involves the optic nerve but doesn’t produce papilledema?

A

primary optic atrophy- may be d/t tabes dorsalis, MS, or hereditary

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24
Q

what is the sequel to papilledema?

A

secondary optic atrophy- may be d/t neuritis, glaucoma or increased intracranial pressure

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25
what are the syndromes that involve the optic apparatus?
foster kennedy amaurotic familial idiocy (tay- sachs) argyll robertson pupil holmes-adie
26
what may be caused by tumors at the base of the frontal lobe and what are its characteristic symptoms?
Foster-Kennedy ipsilateral blindness and anosmia (atrophy of CN I and II) contralateral papilledema
27
what syndrome is cerebromacular degeneration with severe mental deficiency and what is it associated with?
amaurotic familial idiocy (tay-sachs) | blindness, optic atrophy, dark cherry red macula
28
what reacts only to accommodation is pathologic in tabes dorsalis and also a diabetic complication?
argyll robertson pupil
29
what is characterized by tonic pupil reaction (myotonic pupil) and absence of one or more tendon reflexes?
Holmes-adie syndrome
30
what is an inward sinking of the eyeball d/t sympathetic paralysis of small muscle of muller?
enopthalmos
31
ptosis associated with Horner's syndrome is due to paralysis of what muscle?
superior tarsal
32
what are the 3 components of accommodation and what nerve is being tested?
convergence pupilloconstriction lens thickening CN III or higher
33
what is the Marcus Gunn phenomenon?
pupillodilation with light introduction
34
what does the swinging light test tell you if the test is positive?
retinal or CN II lesion with the sensory arc decreasing the amount of pupillary motor response
35
red reflex that is partially or completely blocked indicates
``` disease of translucent structures of eyes: cornea lens vitreous retinal pigment ```
36
what are the findings typically seen with papilledema?
blurred nerve fibers and cup tortuous, engorged veins and loss of venous pulsations at disc margin obliteration of cup disc elevation and edema
37
what is seen in 5% of population, usually blond caucasians that is hereditary and benign?
pseudopapilledema
38
inflammation of the optic nerve
optic neuritis
39
inflammation of the optic disc
papillitis
40
if inflammation is behind the optic disc and the fundus looks normal but the patient reports vision loss we would assume?
acute retrobulbar neuritis
41
what are 2 eye signs of arteriosclerosis?
venous engorgement distal to arterial crossing | light reflection off the artery- silver wiring
42
what are a collection of degenerative deposits that often appear in the fundus of elderly but don't have clinical significance
drusen bodies
43
where do the 3 peripheral sensory divisions of trigeminal have their nuclei?
gasserian (semilunar) ganglion
44
what is the cutaneous area over the angle of the jaw supplied by?
great auricular nerve of cervicoplexus (C2,C3)
45
the mandibular branch of trigeminal has a recurrent or meningeal branch that innervates what? this explains its association with head pain
dura of middle and anterior cranial fossa
46
what do the lateral pterygoids do?
right- move jaw tip to left | left- move jaw tip to right
47
when the ophthalmic division trigeminal is involved in a lesion what happens?
neuroparalytic keratitis- corneal inflammation and ulceration
48
what disorder is idiopathic, with sharp painful sensation in the 3 branches of trigeminal and what are the AKAs?
trigeminal neuralgia tic douloureux, fothergill's neuralgia
49
what lesion results in paralysis and denervation atrophy of mastication muscles?
LMN lesion of CN V anywhere from pontine nucleus to peripheral cranial nerve
50
what is a line of communication with the opposite cerebellum to allow for the coordination of planned motor functions
corticopontine fibers
51
what carries the sensory arc of the corneal reflex and where does it synapse?
CN V carries and synapses of CN VII motor nuclei causing eye to blink
52
the corneal blink reflex may be absent in the early stages of?
MS
53
what are the divisions of CN VII in the parotid gland?
temporal zygomatic upper buccal
54
what are the cervicofacial divisions of CN VII?
lower buccal mandibular cervical branches
55
what CN innervates the stapedius muscle?
CN VII
56
what supplies parasympathetic secretory and vasodilator impulses to the submaxillary, sublingual salivary and lacrimal glands as well as mucus membranes of mouth and tongue?
chorda tympani- branch of facial nerve
57
what is prosopoplegia?
peripheral facial paralysis
58
where is the lesion located in Bell's palsy?
lateral to geniculate ganglion
59
what are the common factors of peripheral CN VII paralysis?
``` flaccid paralysis (LMN) ipsilateral facial muscles distal to lesion site ```
60
what differentiates stroke from Bell's palsy?
stroke is central type paralysis- forehead is spared, eyes partially involved, neck and mouth fully involved
61
peripheral lesions in CN VII must be where to affect taste?
proximal to stylomastoid foramen
62
complete hemifacial paralysis without loss of taste on ipsilateral 2/3 tongue indicates what?
Bell's palsy
63
the vestibular division of CN VIII is connected to what other nerves for coordinating movement of eyes, head and neck in response to stimulation of semicircular canals?
CN III, IV, VI
64
a "short circuit" or abnormal impulse from what areas can result in nystagmus?
CN III, CN IV, VI and vestibular division of CN VIII
65
what can be the cause of hyperacusis?
CN VII- stapedius muscle or | centrally located problem
66
what is the term for visual perception of to and fro movements often accompanying nystagmus?
oscillopia- vestibular disease symptom
67
a loud noise from out of sight should cause patient to blink. what is the test and reflex?
malingering test | auditopalpebral reflex
68
CN IX motor fibers innervate what?
stylopharyngeus muscle- elevate larynx, pharynx soft palate
69
what area controls reflex of pupil and lens?
pretectum
70
what area controls head and eye movements?
superior colliculus