Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

Question

How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for?

Answer 1

The pilot should reference the POH/AFM and supplements to determine the limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed. Most systems require that the avionics operations manual/handbook be onboard as a limitation of use.

Answer 2

No, you must specifically request them

Answer 3

3 satellites - yields a latitude and longitude position only 4 satellites - yields a latitude, longitude, and altitude position (3D) 5 satellites - 3D and RAIM 6 satellites - 3D and RAIM (isolates corrupt signal and removes from navigation solution)

Answer 4

Wide Area Augmentation System is a ground and satellite integrated navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from the GPS.

Answer 5

a. RAIM capability - Many VFR GPS receivers and all hand-held units have no RAIM alerting capability. Loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error cannot be displayed to the pilot by such receivers. b. Database currency - In many receivers, an updatable database is used for navigation fixes, airports, and instrument procedures. These databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use. c. Antenna location - In many VFR installations of GPS receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance. Handheld GPS receiver antenna location is limited to the cockpit or cabin only and is rarely optimized to provide a clear view of available satellites. Loss of signal, couples with a lack of RAIM capability, could present erroneous position and navigation information with no warning to the pilot.

Answer 6

provides pilots with a supplementary tool to assist with positional awareness while navigating visually in and aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers.

Answer 7

a. Get a preflight briefing consisting of the latest or most current weather, airport, and enroute NAVAID information b. Draw course lines and mark checkpoints on the chart c. Enter checkpoints on the log d. Enter NAVAIDs on the log e. Enter VOR courses on the log f. Enter altitude on the log g. Enter the wind and temperature on the log h. Measure the true course on the chart and enter it on the log. i. Compute the true airspeed and enter it on the log j. Compute the WCA and GS and enter it on the log k. Determine variation from chart and enter it on the log l. Determine deviation from compass correction card and enter it on the log m. Enter the compass heading on the log. n. Measure distances on the chart and enter them on the log o. Figure ETE and ETA and enter them on the log p. Calculate fuel burn and usage; enter them on the log q. Compute weight and balance r. Compute takeoff and landing performance s. Complete a Flight Plan Form t. File the Flight Plan with FSS

Answer 8

When a VFR flight plan is filed, it is held by FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time, then it is canceled.

Answer 9

Condition 1: Plenty of Fuel Straighten up and fly right, Fly a specific heading in a direction you believe is correct (or circle if unsure); don't wander aimlessly If you have been flying a steady compass heading and keeping a relatively accurate navigation log, it's not likely you'll have a problem locating your position If several VOR's are within reception distance, use them for a cross-bearing to determine the position or fly to the station - there's no doubt where you are then Use knowledge of your last known position, elapsed time, approximate wind direction, and ground speed, to establish how far you may have traveled since your last checkpoint Use this distance as a radius to draw a semicircle ahead of your last known position on the chart. If still unsure, loosen up the eyeballs and start some first-class pilotage. Look for something big. Often there will be linear figures such as rivers, mountain ranges, or prominent highways or railroads that can be used as easy references and thus find them of great value in fixing your approximate position. Condition 2: Low on fuel Get on the ground immediately

Answer 10

FAA's 4 C's Climb - higher altitude allows for better communication ability and better visual range Communication - Use 121.5 MHz if no other frequency's work. Confess - Once communications are established, let them know your problem Comply - Follow instructions

Answer 11

- After selecting the alternate, approximate the magnetic course to the alternate using a straightedge and a compass rose from a nearby VOR or an airway that closely parallels my direction from the alternate - I can use the straight edge and scale at the bottom to approximate a distance to the alternate. I can fine-tune this course and distance later, as time permits, with a plotter. - If time permits, I'll start my diversion over a prominent ground feature. However, in an emergency, I will divert promptly toward my alternate.

Answer 12

most common types are VHF. Channels vary from 118.0 to 136.975 MHz and is classified as 720 or 760, depending on the number of channels it can accommodate.

Answer 13

A majority are 121.6 to 121.9

Answer 14

A CTAF (common traffic advisory frequency) is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower.

Answer 15

Non Government communication facility that provides airport information at certain airports.

Answer 16

Automatic Terminal Information System

Answer 17

Use the MULTICOM frequency 122.9

Answer 18

FSS has assigned frequencies for their different functions. If in doubt for what frequency to use, use 122.2 for common enroute simplex frequency at most FSS's.

Answer 19

Remote communications outlet, an unmanned communications facility controlled by ATC personnel. Provides ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports.

Answer 20

Two ways a. ask the FSS briefer for the preflight weather briefing b. Consult the communications section under flight service for the airport of departure

Answer 21

indicates FSS frequencies

Answer 22

This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies.

Answer 23

No frequencies on top of box indicate that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. NAVAIDs will have "no voice" symbol.

Answer 24

Indicate the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site

Answer 25

Navaids that have HIWAS capability are depicted on sectional charts with an H in the upper right corner of the identification box.

Answer 26

(Alaska only) A transcribed weather broadcast is available. A TWEB is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information that is broadcast on L/MF and VOR facilities for pilots.

Answer 27

a. PIC is directly responsible, and is the final authority for the operations of the aircraft b. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency c. Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon request from the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the administrator

Answer 28

No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft: a. within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage; b. while under the influence of alcohol c. while using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety or d. while having an alcohol concentration of .04 percent or more in a blood or breath specimen

Answer 29

No. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in the aircraft.

Answer 30

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

Answer 31

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Answer 32

Yes, pilot must familiarize with all available information concerning that flight.

Answer 33

For an IFR flight or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport NOTAMS Weather Reports and forecasts Known ATC traffic delays Runway lengths at airports of intended use Alternatives available if planned flight cannot be completed Fuel Requirements Takeoff and Landing distance data

Answer 34

Each person on board a U.S. registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing. However a person who has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.

Answer 35

No pilot may take off a U.S. registered civil aircraft unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed. The pilot in command shall ensure that all persons on board have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness, if installed, before movement of the aircraft on the surface, takeoff or landing.

Answer 36

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crew member shall keep his/her seatbelt fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and landing this includes shoulder harnesses, if installed, unless it interferes with other required duties.

Answer 37

a. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard b. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation c. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire in formation flight

Answer 38

``` Balloons Gliders Airships Airplanes Rotorcraft Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right of way over all other engine driven aircraft. ```

Answer 39

An aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic.

Answer 40

Converging - aircraft on right has the right of way Approaching head on - both aircraft shall alter course to right Overtaking - aircraft being overtaken has the right of way; pilot or the overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right

Answer 41

Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right of way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

Answer 42

No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed or more than 250 knots (288 MPH).

Answer 43

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over an congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, below an altitude of 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000ft of the aircraft.

Answer 44

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

Answer 45

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Answer 46

All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2000ft above the surface.

Answer 47

When the barometric pressure is 31.00 Hg or less, each person operating an aircraft must maintain the cruising altitude of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft. If there is no station within this area, the current report altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00 Hg, consul the aeronautical information manual for correct procedures.

Answer 48

Use the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.

Answer 49

No pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance unless: a. an amended clearance has been obtained b. an emergency exists, c. or in response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

Answer 50

Two actions are required of you as PIC: a. Each pilot in command who, in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction must notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible b. Each pilot in command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC (on the ground responsibility)

Answer 51

a. Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums; b. Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and c. A clearance to land is received

Answer 52

Arriving aircraft receiver inoperative: a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area b. Determine direction and flow of traffic c. Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals d. At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern e. Watch tower for light gun signals Arriving aircraft transmitter inoperative a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area b. Determine direction and flow of traffic c. Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information d. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals e. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Night Time, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights Arriving aircraft transmitter and receiver inoperative a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area b. Determine direction and flow or traffic c. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals d. Acknowledge light signals as noted above

Answer 53

Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall: a. in the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right b. in the case of an aircraft departing an airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93

Answer 54

Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

Answer 55

No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

Answer 56

During the day, you must be able to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.

Answer 57

When operating above 3000 feet AGL but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0 to 179, fly at an odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180 to 359, fly at an even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

Answer 58

Emergency Locator Transmitter - radio transmitter attached to the aircraft structure which operates from its own power source on 121.5. it aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward Sweeping audio town 2-4 times a second.

Answer 59

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft unless there is attached to the airplane an automatic type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition. Several exceptions exist, including the following: a. Aircraft engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50 nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations begin b. Aircraft engaged in design and testing c. New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation and delivery d. Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations

Answer 60

a. When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 hour | b. When 50% of the battery's useful life has expired

Answer 61

a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL: for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen b. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL: for the entire flight time at those altitudes, the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen c. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL: each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen

Answer 62

a. over congested areas b. Over an open air assembly c. Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E boundaries d. Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of a federal airway e. Below an altitude of 1,500 AGL f. When flight visibility is less than 3 miles

Answer 63

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in the aircraft's attitude, abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration

Answer 64

No person may execute the following maneuvers unless each occupant is wearing a parachute: a. bank angle of 60 or more b. nose-up or nose-down pitch of 30 relative to the horizon Regulation does not apply to: a. test pilots for pilot certification b. spins and other flight maneuvers requiring for any certificate or rating when given instruction

Answer 65

Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.

Answer 66

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must operate that aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR).

Answer 67

The pilot must be at least a private pilot with an instrument rating.

Answer 68

a. Two way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the frequency assigned b. A mode C altitude encoding transponder c. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations

Answer 69

Class A airspace is not specifically charted.

Answer 70

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside down wedding cakes), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.

Answer 71

No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless: a. The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate b. The pilot in command holds a recreational pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.101; or for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94 c. The pilot in command holds a sport pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.325; or the requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in 14 CFR 61.94 d. The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94 or 61.95 of this chapter, as applicable Certain Class B airspace areas do not allow pilot operations to be conducted to or from the primary airport, unless the pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate

Answer 72

a. An operable two way radio capable of communications with ATC on the appropriate frequencies for that area b. A mode C altitude encoding transponder c. If IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system

Answer 73

Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area.

Answer 74

VFR flight operations must be conducted clear of clouds with at least 3 statute miles flight visibility.

Answer 75

Class B airspace is charted on sectional charts, IFR enroute low altitude, and terminal area charts. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top.

Answer 76

VFR pilots will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace.

Answer 77

The pilot in command is responsible.

Answer 78

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.

Answer 79

No more than 200 knots

Answer 80

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4000 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operation control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

Answer 81

5 NM radius 4000 feet above airport elevation 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1200 feet to 4000 feet outer area radius 20 NM

Answer 82

A student pilot certificate

Answer 83

a. A two way radio | b. Automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment with Mode C capability

Answer 84

Each person must establish two way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer 85

If a controller responds to a rado call with, (aircraft call sign) standby, radio communications have been established.

Answer 86

Each person must establish and maintain two way radio communications with the ATC facilities having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

Answer 87

VFR flight operations within Class C airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontal to clouds.

Answer 88

A solid magenta line is used to depict Class C airspace.

Answer 89

When two way radio communications and radar contact are established, all VFR aircraft are: a. sequenced to the primary airport b. provided Class C services within the Class C airspace and the outer area c. Provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on a workload permitting basis. This can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates

Answer 90

Basic Radar Service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established TRSA service - radar sequencing and separation service for VFR aircraft in a TRSA Class C service - provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between aircraft and sequences of VFR arrivals to the primary airport Class B service - provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between aircraft and sequences of VFR arrivals to the primary airport What are the various terminal radar services available to VFR aircraft?

Answer 91

a. At or above 10,000ft MSL above the 48 contiguous states or DC. b. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000ft MSL c. Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000ft MSL d. Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200ft AGL e. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the U.S. ADIZ

Answer 92

no more than 200 knots at or below 2500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles

Answer 93

extends upward from the surface to 2500 feet above airport elevation.

Answer 94

Each person must establish two way radio communication with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer 95

Each person must establish and maintain two way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

Answer 96

Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. Class E airspace extensions begin at the surface and extend up to the overlying controlled airspace. The extensions provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilot's operating under VFR. Surface area arrival extensions become part of the surface area dn are in effect during the same times as the surface area

Answer 97

VFR flight operations within Class D airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below, 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontal to clouds

Answer 98

blue segmented lines

Answer 99

No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft.

Answer 100

no more than 200 knots

Answer 101

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable.

Answer 102

No; some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports normally begins at 700 feet or 1200 AGL and can be determined form visual aeronautical charts

Answer 103

Controlled airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers Class A, B, C, D, and E

Answer 104

a. Surface designated for an airport where a control tower is not in operation b. Extension to a surface area c. Airspace used for transition d. Enroute domestic areas e. Federal airways and low-altitude RNAV routes f. Offshore airspace areas g. Unless designated at a lower altitude h. Airspace above FL600

Answer 105

a. minimum pilot certification - student pilot certificate b. No specific equipment requirements in Class E c. No specific requirements for arrival or through flight in Class E

Answer 106

The surface area airspace will change to either a Class E surface area or Class G airspace.

Answer 107

Class E transition areas extended upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1200 feet AGL and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. Class E transition areas exist to help separate arriving and departing IFR traffic from VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity.

Answer 108

Yes. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2500 feet AGL.

Answer 109

Most of the airspace in The United States is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends from 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL (18,000 feet is the floor of Class A airspace). Class E airspace can also extends down to the surface or 700 feet AGL.

Answer 110

Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, C, and D airspace are depicted by a magenta segmented line.

Answer 111

Class G airspace is typically the airspace very near the ground (1,200 feet or less), beneath class E airspace and between class B-D cylinders around towered airstrips. Radio communication is not required in class G airspace, even for IFR operations. Class G is completely uncontrolled.

Answer 112

unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer 113

Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL

Answer 114

If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway.

Answer 115

The main difference which distinguishes Class G airspace from the rest is the flight visibility/cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it.

Answer 116

Class C, D, or E airspace less than 10,000 feet MSL: visibility: 3 statute miles Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal at or above 10,000 feet MSL: visibility: 5 statute miles cloud clearance: 1000 feet below, 1000 feet above 1 statute mile Class G 1200 feet or less above the surface Day Visibility: 1 statute mile cloud clearance: clear of clouds Night visibility: 3 statue mile cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal more than 1200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL: Day visibility: 1 statute miles cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal Night visibility: 3 statute miles cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal More than 1200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL: visibility: 5 statute miles cloud clearance: 1000 feet below, 1000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal

Answer 117

1000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. Except as provided in 14 CFR 91.157 (special VFR), no person may: a. operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1000 feet b. Take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an areas, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport unless ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.

Answer 118

No, with one exception. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC prior to operating within a Class B, C, D, or E surface area provided the flight can remain clear of clouds with at least one statute mile ground visibility if takeoff or landing or, one statute mile flight visibility for operations within Class B - E surface areas.

Answer 119

A VFR pilot may request and be given a clearance to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and E surface areas and some Class B and C surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight will not delay IFR operations.

Answer 120

When a control tower is located within a Class B, C, or D surface area, requests for clearances should be made to the tower. In a Class E surface area, a clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center

Answer 121

Special VFR operations by fixed wing aircraft are prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.

Answer 122

An area on the surface on the earth in which the flight of aircraft is prohibited

Answer 123

An area on the surface within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions.

Answer 124

No person may operate within a restricted, contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission to of the using or controlling agency. Normally no operations are permitted in a prohibited area and prior permission must always be obtained before operating within a restricted area.

Answer 125

airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the US coast, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Answer 126

Military Operating Area consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic. Pilot operating VFR should use extreme caution and should contact FSS within 100 miles of the area to obtain real-time info concerning the MOA hours of operation.

Answer 127

Informs nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. All activities within the Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations.

Answer 128

Controlled firing areas (CFAs) contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Answer 129

airspace at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to avoid flying through a depicted NSA.

Answer 130

A SFRA is an area of airspace within which Special Federal Regulations apply.

Answer 131

They are found on IFR or visual charts.

Answer 132

They can look on the back of the TAC of that specific airspace.

Answer 133

routes used for by the military for conducting low-altitude, high speed training. Routes above 1,500 AGL are flown under IFR (3 digits). Below 1,500 AGL is VFR (4 digits)

Answer 134

Terminal Radar Service Area is an airspace rounding the designated airport where ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis.

Answer 135

TRSA do not fit into any U.S . airspace classes. The primary airport of the TRSA, however, is a Class D

Answer 136

TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional and terminal area charts with a solid black line and attitudes for each segment. The class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line.

Answer 137

Air Defense Identification Zone, and area of airspace over land or water, the location and control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security. ADIZ locations are: Domestic - located within U.S. along an international boundary Coastal - located over coastal waters of U.S. Distant Early Warning Identification Zone - located over coastal waters of Alaska Land-based ADIZ - located over U.S. metropolitan areas

Answer 138

``` Flight plan - IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed Two-way radio Transponder Position reports Aircraft position tolerances ```

Answer 139

``` Vertical dimensions - 18,000 feet MSL up to and include FL600 Operations permitted - IFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance Minimum pilot qualifications - instrument rating Two way radio communications - yes VFR minimum visibility - N/A VFR minimum distance from clouds - N/A Aircraft separation - All Conflict resolution - N/A Traffic advisories - N/A Safety advisories - Yes ```

Answer 140

Vertical dimensions - surface to 10,000 feet MSL Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance Minimum pilot qualifications - private/student Two way radio communications - yes VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles VFR minimum distance from clouds - clear of clouds Aircraft separation - All Conflict resolution - Yes Traffic advisories - Yes Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 141

Vertical dimensions - surface to 4000 feet AGL Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all Minimum pilot qualifications - student rating Two way radio communications - yes VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR and runway operations Conflict resolution - Between IFR and VFR operations Traffic advisories - Yes Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 142

Vertical dimensions - surface to 2500 feet AGL Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all Minimum pilot qualifications - student rating Two way radio communications - yes VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR and runway operations Conflict resolution - no Traffic advisories - workload permitting Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 143

Vertical dimensions - none except for 18,000 feet MSL Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR Minimum pilot qualifications - student certificate Two way radio communications - yes for IFR VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR Conflict resolution - no Traffic advisories - workload permitting Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 144

Vertical dimensions - surface to the overlying controlled airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL Operations permitted - IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites - none Minimum pilot qualifications - student certificate Two way radio communications - no VFR minimum visibility - 1 statute miles VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal Aircraft separation - none Conflict resolution - no Traffic advisories - workload permitting Safety advisories - Yes

Answer 145

Operator shall immediately notify the nearest NTSB office of an aircraft or any of the following: a. Flight control system malfunction b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties c. Inflight fire d. Aircraft collision inflight e. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed 25,000 f. Overdue aircraft g. Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft h. Complete loss of information from more than 50% of the aircraft's EFIS cockpit displays

Answer 146

Occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations

Answer 147

An occurrence associate with the operation of the aircraft in which any person suffers death or a serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives subsequent damage

Answer 148

a. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours b. Result in a fracture of any bone c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage d. Involves any internal organ e. Involves second or third degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body.

Answer 149

Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.

Answer 150

Operator shall file any report with the field office of the board nearest the accident or incident

Answer 151

Within 10 days after an accident When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing Incident reports should only be filed if requested by an authorized representative

Answer 152

The FAA will not use reports submitted to NASA under the aviation safety reporting program in any enforcement action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program.

Answer 153

Visual approach slope indicator (VASI) - is a system of lights so arranged to provide visual descent guidance information during the approach to the runway. Red over red - below glide path Red over white - on glide path White over White - above glide path

Answer 154

``` The precision approach path indicator uses light units similar to VASI, but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. Four white lights - high Three white one red - slightly high Two white two red - on glide path One white three red - slightly low Four red lights - low ```

Answer 155

In Class B, C, D, and E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1000 feet.

Answer 156

a. Mandatory instruction sign - red background/white inscription; denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or a prohibited area b. Location sign - black background/yellow inscription/yellow border; do not have arrows; used to identify a taxiway or runway location, the boundary of the runway, or identify an ILS critical area c. Direction sign - yellow background/black inscription; identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection that a pilot would expect to run onto or hold short of d. Destination sign - yellow background/black inscription and also contain arrows; provides information on locating runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation areas e. Information sign - yellow background/black inscription; used to provide the pilot with information on areas that can't be seen from the control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures f. Runway distance remaining sign - black background/white numeral inscription; indicates the distance of the remaining runway in thousands of feet

Answer 157

Markings for runways are white. Markings for taxiways, areas not intended for use by aircraft (closed and hazardous areas), and holding positions (even if they are on a runway) are yellow.

Answer 158

Runway threshold markings - These come in two configurations. They either consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width. A threshold marking helps identify the beginning of the runway available for landing Displaced threshold - A threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. A displaced threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction. A ten foot wide white placed threshold. White arrows are located and displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. Runway hold position markings - For taxiways, these markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto the runway. They are also installed on runways only if the runway is normally used by air traffic control for land, hold short operations. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. Temporarily closed runways and taxiways - provides a visual indication to pilots that a runway/taxiway is temporarily closed. Yellow crosses are placed on the runway only at each end of the runway. Closed taxiways are blocked with barricades or may utilize a yellow cross at the entrance to the taxiway. Permanently closed runways and taxiways - For runways and taxiways which are permanently closed, the lighting circuits will be disconnected. The runway threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are obliterated and yellow crosses are placed at each end of the runway and at 1000 foot intervals.

Answer 159

a. At an airport with a full time or part time UNICOM station in operation, an advisory may be obtained which will usually include wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMs b. Many airports are now providing completely automated weather, radio check capability and airport advisory information on an automated UNICOM system. Availability of the automated UNICOM will be published in the chart supplement U.S. and approach charts c. At those airports where these services are not available, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designated to provide traffic pattern information. The segmented circle system consists of the following components: The segmented circle The wind direction indicator (wind sock, cone, or tee) The landing direction indicator (a tetrahedron) Landing strip indicators Traffic pattern indicators

Answer 160

When approaching for landing, all turns must be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right.

Answer 161

Unless otherwise established, 1000 feet AGL is the recommended traffic pattern altitude. At most airports and military air bases, traffic pattern altitudes for propeller driven aircraft generally extend from 600 feet to as high as 1500 feet AGL. Also, traffic pattern altitudes for military turbojet aircraft sometimes extend up to 2500 feet AGL

Answer 162

A pilot should plan to enter the traffic pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45 degree turn (to the left when in a left hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

Answer 163

The chart supplement U.S.

Answer 164

An air route traffic control center is a facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during the en route phase of flight. Air route surveillance radar allows them the capability to detect and display an aircraft's position while en route between terminal areas. When equipment capabilities and controller workload permit, certain advisory/assistance service may be provided to VFR aircraft (VFR flight following). Frequencies may be obtained from FSS or the chart supplement U.S. Also, IFR enroute charts have ARTCC sector frequencies depicted. If departing from an airport with a control tower, you can request the appropriate frequency from them.

Answer 165

1200 - VFR operations 7500 - Hijack 7600 - Communications failure 7700 - Emergency

Answer 166

When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, C, and D surface areas, unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call up should be made about 15 miles from the airport. Also, not all airports with an operating control tower will have Class D airspace. These airports do not have weather reporting, which is a requirement for surface based controlled airspace. Pilots are expected to use good operating practices and communicate with the control tower.

Answer 167

Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, C, and D, surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, C, and D surface areas.

Answer 168

``` You should take the local time (converted to military time) and add the time differential to convert to UTC. Eastern Standard Time - add 5 hours Central Standard Time - add 6 hours Mountain Standard Time - add 7 hours Pacific Standard Time - add 8 hours Alaska Standard TIme - add 9 hours Hawaii Standard Time - add 10 hours ```

Answer 169

Arriving aircraft - ATIS, approach control, control tower, ground control Departing aircraft - ATIS, clearance delivery (if required for the surrounding airspace, ground control, control tower, departure control

Answer 170

A notice to airmen is a notice filed with an aviation authority to alert aircraft pilots of potential hazards along a flight route or at a location that could affect the safety of the flight.

Answer 171

a. NOTAMs - Information that requires wide dissemination via telecommunication and pertains to en route navigational aids, civil public use airports listed in the AFD, facilities, services, and procedures b. FDC NOTAMs - Flight information that is regulatory in nature including, but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage c. POINTER NOTAMs - issued by a flight service station to highlight or point out another NOTAM; such as an FDC NOTAM. These NOTAMs assist users in cross referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier d. SAA NOTAMs - are issued when special activity airspac will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule. e. MILITARY NOTAMS - pertain to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS.

Answer 172

RWY, TWY, RAMP, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, U unverified, O other

Answer 173

A Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) is a type of Notices to Airmen (NOTAM). A TFR defines an area restricted to air travel due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. The text of the actual TFR contains the fine points of the restriction.

Answer 174

a. Flight service station b. Notice to airmen publication - printed NOTAMs c. DUATs vendors d. Internet website e. Broadcast flight information services

Answer 175

No (with one exception). Unlike, IFR flight plans, VFR flight plans are not usually required, but they're highly recommended. Remember VFR flight plans help emergency workers find you if you crash. If you never file and open a VFR flight plan, no one will look for you.

Answer 176

DVFR flight plan (defense visual flight rules flight plan) A flight plan filed for a VFR (visual flight rules) aircraft that intends to operate in airspace within which the ready identification, location, and control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security.

Answer 177

do not assume that the control tower will automatically close your flight plan for you because ATC does not always know whether a particular VFR aircraft is on a flight plan

Answer 178

one half hour

Answer 179

Wake turbulence is a disturbance in the atmosphere that forms behind an aircraft as it passes through the air.

Answer 180

All aircraft generate turbulence and associated wingtip vortices. In general, avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft, especially at low altitudes. Also of concern is the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

Answer 181

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway - stay ato or above the larger aircraft final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it. b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, when parallel runway is closer than 2500 feet - consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft final approach flight path, and note its touchdown point. c. Landing behind a larger aircraft, crossing runway - Cross above the larger aircraft's flight path. d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway - Note the larger aircraft's rotation point, and land well prior to rotation point e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft, crossing runway - Note the larger aircraft's rotation point. If past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft's flightpath. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection. f. Departing behind large aircraft - Note the larger aircraft's rotation point and rotate prior to the larger aircraft's rotation point. Continue climbing above the larger aircraft's climb path until turning clear of the larger aircraft's wake. Avoid subsequent headings that will cross below and behind a larger aircraft. g. Intersection takeoffs, same runway - Be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, especially of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid subsequent heading which will cross below a larger aircrat's path. h. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch and go landing - Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground. Because of this, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a larger aircraft has executed a low approach, missed approach or a touch and go landing, particularly in light quartering wind conditions. You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before your takeoff or landing i. En route VFR (thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet) - Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft's path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking) adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

Answer 182

Runway width illusion - A narrower than usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. A wider than usual runway can have the opposite effect, with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway. Runway and terrain slopes illusion - An upsloping runway, upsloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. A downsloping runway, downsloping approach terrain, or both, can have the opposite effect. Featureless terrain illusion - An absence of ground features, as when landing over water, darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. Atmospheric illusions - Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach.

Answer 183

LAHSO is an acronym for land and hold short operations. At controlled airports, ATC may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersection runway, an intersection taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot in command determines the aircraft can safely land and stop within the available landing distance. Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance is they determine it will compromise safety or if weather is below basic VFR conditions.

Answer 184

Special notices in the chart supplement and U.S. terminal procedures publication

Answer 185

a. Before takeoff - Prior to taxiing onto a runway for landing area in preparation for takeoff, pilots should scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach areas b. Climb and descents - During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks left and right at a frequency that allows continuous visual scanning of the airspace. c. Straight and level - During sustained periods of straight and level flight, a pilot should execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals. d. Traffic patterns - Entries into traffic patterns while descending should be avoided. e. Traffic at VOR sites - due to converging traffic, sustained vigilance should be maintained in the vicinity or VORs and intersections f. Training operations - Vigilance should be maintained and clearing turns should be made prior to a practice maneuver. During instruction, the pilot should be asked to verbalize the clearing procedures (call out clear left, right, above, and below). High wing and low wing aircraft have their respective blind spots. High wing aircraft should momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look for traffic prior to commencing the turn. Low wing aircraft should momentarily lower the wing.

Answer 186

Unmanned aircraft systems (UAS, also called drones) cannot operate in controlled airspace without obtaining a waiver from the FAA. However, it is possible I might see drones in my area. Drones must fly below 400 feet AGL, can only operate in daylight hours, and must stay clear of clouds.

Answer 187

a. Communications - misunderstanding the given clearance; failure to communicate effectively b. Airport knowledge - failure to navigate the airport correctly; unable to interpret airport signage c. Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation - failure to maintain situational awareness

Answer 188

a. Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting b. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any hot spots c. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity d. Conduct a pre taxi/pre landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport e. Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route f. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi

Answer 189

A hot spot is a runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airport.

Answer 190

Pilots must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by non flight related matters unrelated to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft.

Answer 191

If the pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or for any reason confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing, a request may be made for progressive taxi instructions, which include step by step routing directions.

Answer 192

A common pitfall of pre taxi and pre landing planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions from ATC.

Answer 193

It helps pilots not forget the instruction.

Answer 194

a. The runway assignment b. Any clearance to enter a specific runway c. Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait

Answer 195

a. A current airport diagram should be available for immediate reference during taxi b. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the big picture c. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing d. Use all available resources to keep the aircraft on its assigned taxi route e. Cross reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you're on the assigned taxi route f. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize clear left, clear right g. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency h. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt - ask

Answer 196

To the extent possible and consistent with aircraft equipment, operating limitations, and pilot procedures, pilots should illuminate exterior lights as follows: a. Engines running - Turn on the rotating beacon whenever an engine is running b. Taxiing - Prior to commencing taxi, turn on navigation/position lights and anti collision lights c. Crossing a runway - All exterior lights should be illuminated when crossing a runway d. Entering the departure runway for takeoff - All exterior lights (except landing lights) should be on to make your aircraft more conspicuous to aircraft on final and ATC e. Cleared for takeoff - All exteriors lights, including takeoff/landing lights should be on

Answer 197

Aircraft may be landing and/or taking off on more than one runway at the airport. Also, aircraft may be using an instrument approach procedure to runways other than the runway in sue for VFR operations. The instrument approach runway may intersect the VFR runway. It is also possible that an instrument arrival may be made to the opposite end of the runway from which a takeoff is being made.

Answer 198

No not without ATC approval

Answer 199

Listen on the appropriate frequency (CTAF) for inbound aircraft information and always scan the full length of the runway, including the final approach and departure paths, before entering or crossing the runway. Self announce your position and intentions and remember that not all aircraft are radio equipped.

Answer 200

more than 90 seconds

Answer 201

a. Always lock your aircraft b. Keep track of door/ignition keys and don't leave keys in unattended aircraft c. Use secondary locks or aircraft disabler if available d. Lock hanger when unattended

Answer 202

a. Limitations on ramp access to people other than instructors and students b. Standard for securing aircraft on the ramp c. Securing access to aircraft keys at all times d. New auxiliary security items for aircraft e. After hours or weekend access procedures

Answer 203

a. Aircraft with unusual modifications or activity b. Unfamiliar persons loitering for extended periods in the vicinity of parker aircraft c. Anyone making threats d. Events or circumstances that do not fit the pattern of lawful, normal activity at an airport e. Pilots appearing to be under the control of others

Answer 204

If you determine that it's safe, question the individual. If their response is unsatisfactory and they continue to act suspiciously: a. Alert airport or FBO management b. Contact local law enforcement if the activity poses an immediate threat to persons or property c. Contact the 866-GA-SECURE hotline to document the reported event

Answer 205

TSA controls it and it is for security

Answer 206

It is a set of federally endorsed guidelines that offers an extensive list of options, ideas, and suggestions for the airport operator, sponsor, tenant and or user to choose from when considering security enhancements for GA facilities.

Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

(234 cards)