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Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide > Human Factors > Flashcards

Human Factors Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair function of the brain and other organs

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2
Q

Where does hypoxia usually occur?

A

Night vision deterioration can occur as low as 5,000. Other effects usually do not occur until 12,000ft. From 12,000 - 15,000, other significant effects begin to occur and only get worse when higher than 15,000ft.

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3
Q

What factors can make a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia?

A

Carbon monoxide, lowered hemoglobin, certain medication, alcohol and other drugs, extreme heat or cold, fever, and anxiety

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4
Q

How can hypoxia be avoided?

A

enrich inspired air with oxygen from an approved oxygen system, and by maintaining cabin pressure. Use supplemental oxygen above 10,000 ft during the day and 5,000 at night

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5
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

abnormal increase in volume of air breathed through the lungs. Results in a significant decrease in the CO content of the blood

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6
Q

What symptoms can a pilot expect from hyperventilation?

A

symptoms such as light-headedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling, coolness.

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7
Q

How can a hyperventilating condition be reversed?

A

Conditions can be reversed after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought back to normal

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8
Q

What is carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

CO is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. When inhaled, can significantly and quickly reduce ability of the blood to carry oxygen.

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9
Q

How does carbon monoxide poisoning occur and what symptoms should a pilot be alert for?

A

Most heaters in light aircraft work by air flowing over the manifold, where CO can escape into the cabin. Pilots should be alert for headache, drowsiness, or dizziness while using heater.

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10
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot suspects CO poisoning?

A

Immediately shut off heaters and open air vents

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11
Q

What is the cause of motion sickness, and what are the symptoms?

A

Motion sickness is caused by continued stimulation of the inner ear, which controls the sense of balance. Symptoms are progressive and include loss of appetite, saliva collecting in the mouth, nausea, disorientation, headaches, and possible vomiting.

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12
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot or his passenger suffers from motion sickness?

A

open up air vents, loosen the clothing, use supplemental oxygen, and keep eyes on a point outside the airplane.

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13
Q

What is ear block?

A

Basically, it’s what happens when your ears pop during a steep climb or descent due to the difference in pressure. It can cause severe pain and loss of hearing that can last from several hours to several days.

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14
Q

What action can be taken to prevent ear block in flight?

A

Yawning, swallowing, tensing muscles in the throat or the combination of closing the mouth, pinching the nose and attempting to blow through the nostrils.

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15
Q

What are the regulations for flight after alcohol consumption and blood alcohol level?

A

No flying until 8 hours after alcohol consumption

Must have a level of 0.04 or less.

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16
Q

For a pilot who has been taking an over-the counter cold medication, how do the various environmental factors the pilot is exposed to inflight after the drug’s physiological impact on the pilot?

A

Even if a drug doesn’t affect someone on the ground, it can still affect them at relatively low altitudes due to the changes in concentration of atmospheric gases in blood.

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17
Q

What regulations apply and what common sense should prevail concerning use of drugs and medication?

A

Regulation prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety. Only fly with medication if the medication had been approved by the FAA.

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18
Q

Discuss the effects of nitrogen excess during scuba diving upon a pilot passenger in flight.

A

Decompression sickness can occur if you do not wait before flying
Flight altitudes up to 8,000
- Wait at least 12 hours after diving not in a controlled ascent
- Wait at least 24 hours after diving in a controlled ascent

Flight altitudes above 8,000ft
- Wait at least 24 hours after any dive

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19
Q

If you are sick and receive prescribed meds, can you resume flying, or first see an FAA Airman Medical Examiner?

A

14 CFR Part 61.53 requires that all pilots voluntarily self-ground anytime:

a. They know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would deem them unable to meet the requirements for a medical certificate.
b. They are taking a medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that would result in being unable to meet the requirements for a medical certificate.

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20
Q

Can you operate an aircraft while taking OTC medications for an ongoing condition?

A

The safest rule is to take no medication while flying, except with the advice of your AME

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21
Q

Define “single-pilot resource management” (SRM)

A

the art and science of managing all resources available to a single pilot to ensure that the successful outcome of the flight is never in doubt.

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22
Q

What are examples of the skills necessary for effective SRM?

A

concepts of aeronautical decision making (ADM), risk management (RM), task management (TM), automation management (AM), controlled flight into terrain (CFIT), awareness, and situational awareness (SA).

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23
Q

What practical application provides a pilot with an effective method to practice SRM?

A

The “FIVE P” checklist:
The Plan, the Plane, the Pilot, the Passengers, and the Programming
Based on the idea that the pilot has essentially five variables that impact his or her environment that influences a pilots decision making

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24
Q

Explain the use of the “FIVE P” model

A

Plan - weather, route, publications, ATC reroutes/delays, fuel onboard/remaining
Plane - mechanical status, automation status, database currency, backup systems
Pilot - illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating
Passengers, pilots/nonpilots, nervous or quiet, experienced or new, business or pleasure
Programming - autopilot, GPS, MFD/PFD; anticipate likely reroutes/clearances.

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25
Q

When is the use of the “FIVE P” checklist recommended?

A

concept relies on the pilot to adopt a scheduled review of the critical variables at points in flight where decisions are most likely to be effective, such as preflight, pre-takeoff, etc. Can also be used in emergency situations.

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26
Q

Define “aeronautical decision making”

A

ADM is the systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances

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27
Q

Explain the basic steps in the aeronautical decision making process

A

a. define the problem
b. choose a course of action
c. implement the decision
d. evaluate the outcome

28
Q

What two models are commonly used when practicing aeronautical decision making?

A

The DECIDE and the 3P model

29
Q

Describe the DECIDE model

A

Detect a change needing attention
Estimate the need to counter or react to a change
Choose the most desirable outcome for the flight
Identify actions to successfully control the change
Do something to adapt to the change
Evaluate the effect of the action countering the change

30
Q

How is the 3P model different from the DECIDE model?

A

3P is a continuous loop of the pilot’s handling of hazards. DECIDE model and naturalistic decision making result from the 3P process

31
Q

Name five hazardous attitudes that can affect a pilot’s ability to make sound decisions and properly exercise authority.

A

Anti-authority - Follow the rules-they are usually right
Invulnerability - It could happen to my
Impulsivity - Think first-not so fast
Macho - Taking chances is foolish
Resignation - I can make a difference, I am not helpless

32
Q

What is the first step towards neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

A

After recognizing and labeling a thought as hazardous, then stating the corresponding antidotes is the first step.

33
Q

Define “risk management”

A

a decision making process that identifies hazards, assesses the degree of the risk, and determine the best course of action

34
Q

What is the definition of hazard?

A

a present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event such as an accident

35
Q

What are several examples of aviation hazards?

A

a. a nick in the propeller blade
b. improper refueling of an aircraft
c. pilot fatigue
d. use of unapproved hardware on aircraft
e. weather

36
Q

Define risk

A

the future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated

37
Q

How can the use of “PAVE” checklist during flight panning to help you to assess risk?

A

PIC - general health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, currency
Aircraft - airworthiness, equipment, performance capability
enVironment - weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, conditions
External pressures - meetings, people waiting at destination, desire to impress someone etc.

38
Q

Explain the use of personal minimums checklist and how it can help a pilot control at risk?

A

Takes things on the smart and safe side in terms of pilot experience, where a pilot will set limitations that are unique to the individual’s current level of experience.

39
Q

What is one method you can use to control and maintain risk?

A

P - experience/recency
A - fuel reserves VFR day/night, aircraft performance, aircraft equipment
V - airport conditions, weather
E - allowance for delays, diversion, cancelation, alternate plans, personal equipment available for alternate plans

40
Q

Explain the use of the IMSAFE checklist to determine personal risks

A

Illness - Do I have any symptoms?
Medication - Have I been taking prescription or OTC drugs?
Stress - Am I under psychological pressure from my job? Do I have money, family or health problems?
Alcohol - Have I been drinking within 8 hours? Within 24 hours?
Emotion - Am I fully recovered from any extremely upsetting event?

41
Q

Describe how the 3P model can be used for practical risk management?

A

Offers simple, practical, and systematic approach that can be used in all phases of flight
Perceive - the hazards for a flight, which are present events, objects, or circumstances that could contribute to an undesired future event. Think through circumstances related to the PAVE risk categories. Fundamental question to ask is “what could hurt me, my passengers, or my aircraft?”
Process - the hazards by evaluating their impact on flight safety. Through the Consequences of each hazard, Alternatives available, Reality of the situation, the External pressures (CARE) that might influence their analysis
Perform - by implementing the best course of action. Transfer, Eliminate, Accept, Mitigate (TEAM)

42
Q

Explain how often a pilot should use the 3P model of ADM throughout a flight

A

Once a pilot has completed the 3P process and selected a course of action, the process begins again because the circumstances brought by the course of action require analysis. The process is a continuous loop of perceiving, processing, and performing.

43
Q

Define the term “task management”

A

the process by which pilots manage the many concurrent tasks that must be performed to safely and efficiently operate an aircraft

44
Q

What are several factors that can reduce a pilot’s ability to manage workload efficiency?

A

Environmental Conditions - temperature and humidity, noise, vibrations, and lack of oxygen
Physiological Stress - fatigue, lack of physical fitness, sleep loss, missed meals, and illness
Psychological stress - social or emotional factors, can also be related to the mental workload, such as analyzing a problem, navigating an aircraft, or making decisions.

45
Q

What are several options that a pilot can employ to decrease workload and avoid becoming overloader?

A

Stop, think, slowdown, and prioritize. Tasks such as locating an item on a chart or setting on a frequency may be delegated to another pilot or passenger; an autopilot, if available, may be used; or ATC may be enlisted to provide assistance.

46
Q

What is one method of prioritizing tasks to avoid an overload situation?

A

During any situation, and especially in an emergency, remember the phase “aviate, navigate, and communicate”

47
Q

How can tasks be completed in a timely manner without causing a distraction from flying?

A

By planning, prioritizing, and sequencing task, a potential work overload situation can be avoided. As experience is gained, a pilot learns to recognize future workload requirements and can prepare for high workload periods during times of low workload.

48
Q

Why are pilots encouraged to use checklists?

A

The checklist is an aid to the memory and helps to ensure that critical items necessary for the safe operation of aircraft are not overlooked or forgotten. They provide a standardized method for verifying aircraft configuration and a logical sequence for accomplishing tasks inside and outside the cockpit.

49
Q

What are two common methods of checklist usage?

A

Do-Verify Method - checklist is used in a variable sequence without a preliminary challenge. After all checklist items are completed, the checklist is looked over to verify everything is completed

Challenge-Do-Verify Method - pilot/crewmember making a challenge before an action is initiated, taking the action, then verifying that the action had been accomplished

50
Q

What are several examples of common errors that can occur when using a checklist?

A

a. Missed Items
b. Items incorrectly performed
c. Uses checklist for the the wrong phase of flight
d. Too much time spent with head down, reading checklist and compromising safety
e. Checklist not readily accessible in cockpit
f. Emergency/abnormal procedures checklist not readily available
g. Memory items accomplished but not confirmed with checklist

51
Q

In what phases of flight should a prepared checklist be used?

A

Preflight, Before engine start, Engine Starting, Before Taxi, Before Takeoff, After takeoff, Cruise, Decent, Before landing, After landing, Engine Shutdown and securing

52
Q

What are several recommended methods for managing checklist accomplishments?

A

a. pilot should touch/point at each control, display or switch
b. Verbally state the desired status of the checklist item
c. When completer announce that “checklist is complete”

53
Q

What are immediate action items?

A

an action that must be accomplished so expeditiously that time is not available for the pilot/crewmember to refer to a manual or checklist

54
Q

Define situational awareness

A

the accurate perception and understanding of all factors and condition within the five fundamental risk elements that affect safety before, during, and after the flight

55
Q

What are some of the elements inside and outside the aircraft that a pilot must consider to maintain situational awareness?

A

Inside - status of aircraft systems, pilot, and passengers

Outside - awareness of where aircraft is in relation to terrain, traffic, weather, and airspace

56
Q

What are several factors that reduce situational awareness?

A

Fatigue, distractions, unusual or unexpected events, complacency, high workload, unfamiliar situations, and inoperative equipment

57
Q

When flying a technically advanced aircraft (TAA), what are several procedures that help ensure that situational awareness is enhanced?

A

Always double-check the system and use verbal callouts.

58
Q

What additional procedures can be used for maintaining situational awareness in technically advanced aircraft?

A

a. perform verification checks of all programming prior to departure
b. Check flight routing - ensure routing matches planned routing
c. Always verify waypoints
d. Make use of all onboard nav equipment, use VOR to backup GPS< etc.
e. Match use of automated system with pilot proficiency - stay within personal limitations
f. Plan a realistic flight route to maintain situational awareness - ATC doesn’t always give you direct routing
g. Be ready to verify computer data entries - incorrect keystrokes can lead to loss of situational awareness

59
Q

A majority of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) accidents have been attributed to what factors?

A

a. Lack of pilot currency
b. Loss of situational awareness
c. Pilot distraction and breakdown of SRM
d. Failure to comply with minimum safe altitudes
e. Breakdown in effective ADM
f. Insufficient planning, especially for the decent and arrival segments

60
Q

A pilot can decrease the likelihood of a CFIT accident at the destination by identifying what factors prior to flight?

A

Factors such as airport location, runway lighting, weather/daylight conditions, approach specification, ATC capabilities and limitations, type of operation, departure procedures, controller/pilot phraseology, and crew configuration should all be considered prior to flight

61
Q

Describe several operational techniques that will help you avoid a CFIT accident?

A

a. Maintain situational awareness
b. adhere to safe takeoff and departure procedures
c. Familiarize yourself with surrounding terrain features and obstacles
d. Adhere published routes and minimum altitudes
e. Fly a stabilized approach
f. Understand ATC clearances and instructions
g. Don’t become complacent

62
Q

What does “automation management” refer to?

A

demonstrates ability to control and navigate and aircraft by means of the automated system installed in the aircraft

63
Q

In what three must a pilot be proficient when using advance avionics or any automated system?

A

Pilot must know what to expect, how to monitor the system for proper operation, and be prepared to promptly take appropriate action it the system does not perform as expected

64
Q

What is the most important aspect of managing an autopilot/FMS?

A

Knowing at all times which modes are engaged, which modes are armed to engage, and being capable of verifying that armed functions engage at the appropriate time.

65
Q

At a minimum, the pilot flying with advanced avionics must know how to manage what three primary items?

A

The course deviation indicator (CDI), the navigation source, and the autopilot

66
Q

Automation management is a good place to practice callout technique. What are standard callouts?

A 
Examples:
"Power Set"
"Airspeed Alive"
"Rotate"
"Positive Rate-gear up"
"Localizer Alive"
"Glideslope active"
"Nav source verified"
"Approach mode armed"
"Approach mode active"
"Final approach fixed"

Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide (8 decks)

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