Cross-Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards

Question

What information is provided by a maximum elevation figure on a sectional chart? (USRGD)

Answer 1

The maximum elevation figure (MEF) represents the highest elevation, including terrain and other vertical obstacles (towers, trees, etc.), within a quadrant. MEF figures are depicted in thousands and rounded to the nearest hundred feet above mean sea level. The last two digits of the number are not shown. The chart legend also provides the highest terrain elevation for the entire chart.

Answer 2

When entering a traffic pattern, enter the pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg. Complete the turn to final at least 1⁄4 mile from the runway. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn (to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

Answer 3

Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless federal regulations or local procedures require otherwise.

Answer 4

A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance-from-clouds criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing.

Answer 5

Yes, operations to or from an airport in Class D airspace (airport traffic area) require communication with the tower even when operating to/from a satellite airport.

Answer 6

When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two-way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport.

Answer 7

Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, Class C and Class D surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas.

Answer 8

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area. b. Determine direction and flow of traffic. c. Join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signals. d. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.

Answer 9

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface will become applicable. Check the Chart Supplement U.S. for specifics.

Answer 10

In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation, and it is the pilot’s responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Part 91.

Answer 11

a. Runway designators—Runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north. b. Runway centerline marking—Identifies the center of the runway and provides alignment guidance during takeoff and landings; consists of a line of uniformly-spaced stripes and gaps. c. Runway aiming point marking—Serves as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft; two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe located on each side of the runway centerline and approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold. d. Runway touchdown zone markers—Identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500 feet increments; groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline. e. Runway side stripe markings—Delineate the edges of the runway and provide a visual contrast between runway and the abutting terrain or shoulders; continuous white stripes located on each side of the runway. f. Runway shoulder markings—May be used to supplement runway side stripes to identify pavement areas contiguous to the runway sides that are not intended for use by aircraft; painted yellow. g. Runway threshold markings—Used to help identify the beginning of the runway that is available for landing. Two configurations: either eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width.

Answer 12

Markings for taxiways are yellow and consist of the following types: a. Taxiway centerline—Single continuous yellow line; aircraft should be kept centered over this line during taxi; however, being centered on the centerline does not guarantee wingtip clearance with other aircraft or objects. b. Taxiway edge—Used to define the edge of taxiway; two types, continuous and dashed. c. Taxiway shoulder—Usually defined by taxiway edge markings; denotes pavement unusable for aircraft. d. Surface painted taxiway direction—Yellow background with black inscription; supplements direction signs or when not possible to provide taxiway sign. e. Surface painted location signs—Black background with yellow inscription; supplements location signs. f. Geographic position markings—Located at points along low visibility taxi routes; used to identify aircraft during low visibility operations.

Answer 13

a. Mandatory instruction signs—Red background/white inscription; denotes hazardous areas. b. Location signs—Black background/yellow inscription; used to identify either a taxiway or runway on which an aircraft is located. c. Direction signs—Yellow background/black inscription; identifies designation(s) of intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of intersection that pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of. d. Destination signs—Yellow background/black inscription; signs have arrow showing direction of taxi route to that destination. e. Information signs—Yellow background/black inscription; provide pilot information on such things as areas that cannot be seen by control tower, radio frequencies, noise abatement procedures, etc. f. Runway distance remaining signs—Black background with white numeral inscription; indicates distance (in thousands of feet) of landing runway remaining.

Answer 14

“Land And Hold Short Operations.” At controlled airports, air traffic control may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot-in-command determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the Available Landing Distance (ALD). Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program.

Answer 15

ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Chart Supplement U.S. and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide ALD data upon request.

Answer 16

The visual aids consist of a three-part system of yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage and, in certain cases, in-pavement lighting. Pilots are cautioned that not all airports conducting LAHSO have installed any or all of the LAHSO markings, signage, or lighting.

Answer 17

Runway holding position markings—indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when approaching a runway. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six or twelve inches apart, and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold. Runway holding position sign—located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that intersect other runways. These signs have a red background with a white inscription and contain the designation of the intersecting runway.

Answer 18

It is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Displacement of the threshold reduces the length of the runway available for landings. The portion of the runway behind it is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. A ten-foot-wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.

Answer 19

A tri-color visual approach slope indicator (VASI) normally consists of a single light unit projecting a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway. The visual glide path provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 NM from the runway threshold. Red: Below glidepath Amber: Above glidepath Green: On glidepath

Answer 20

The precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The row of light units is normally installed on the left side of the runway.

Answer 21

Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The useful range of the system is about four miles during the day and up to ten miles at night. Pulsating white light: Above glidepath Steady white light: On glidepath Steady red light: Slightly below glidepath Pulsating red light: Well below glidepath

Answer 22

a. Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting. b. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any “hot spots.” c. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS (if available) for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity, etc. d. Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport. e. Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route (complex intersections, crossing runways, etc.). f. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi.

Answer 23

A “hot spot” is a runway safety-related problem area on an airport that presents increased risk during surface operations. Typically, it is a complex or confusing taxiway/taxiway intersection or taxiway/runway intersection. The area of increased risk has either a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents due to a variety of causes, such as but not limited to: airport layout, traffic flow, airport marking, signage and lighting, situational awareness, and training. Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams as open circles or polygons designated as “HS 1”, “HS 2”, etc.

Answer 24

Pilots must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by non-flight-related matters unrelated to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft. Refraining from nonessential activities during ground operations is essential. Passengers should be briefed on the importance of minimizing conversations and questions during taxi as well as on arrival, from the time landing preparations begin until the aircraft is safely parked.

Answer 25

A common pitfall of pre-taxi and pre-landing planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions from ATC. Pilots need to follow the instructions that they actually receive. Short-term memory is of limited duration.

Answer 26

No; Aircraft must receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point to which to taxi, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. ATC is required to obtain a read back from the pilot of all runway hold short instructions.

Answer 27

a. The runway assignment b. Any clearance to enter a specific runway c. Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait

Answer 28

a. A current airport diagram should be available for immediate reference during taxi. b. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the “big picture.” c. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing. d. Use all available resources (airport diagrams, airport signs, markings, lighting, and ATC) to keep the aircraft on its assigned taxi route. e. Cross-reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you're on the assigned taxi route. f. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize “clear left, clear right.” g. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency. h. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt—Ask!

Answer 29

To the extent possible and consistent with aircraft equipment, operating limitations, and pilot procedures, pilots should illuminate exterior lights as follows: a. Engines running—Turn on the rotating beacon whenever an engine is running. b. Taxiing—Prior to commencing taxi, turn on navigation/position lights and anti-collision lights. c. Crossing a runway—All exterior lights should be illuminated when crossing a runway. d. Entering the departure runway for takeoff—All exterior lights (except landing lights) should be on to make your aircraft more conspicuous to aircraft on final and ATC. e. Cleared for takeoff—All exterior lights including takeoff/landing lights should be on. Note: If you see an aircraft in take-off position on a runway with landing lights ON, that aircraft has most likely received its take-off clearance and will be departing immediately.

Answer 30

Aircraft may be landing and/or taking off on more than one runway at the airport. Also, aircraft may be using an instrument approach procedure to runways other than the runway in use for VFR operations. The instrument approach runway may intersect the VFR runway. It is also possible that an instrument arrival may be made to the opposite end of the runway from which a takeoff is being made.

Answer 31

Listen on the appropriate frequency (CTAF) for inbound aircraft information and always scan the full length of the runway, including the final approach and departure paths, before entering or crossing the runway. Self-announce your position and intentions and remember that not all aircraft are radio-equipped.

Answer 32

No, the regulations do not specifically address this issue but do indicate that a person who is intoxicated (or becomes intoxicated) not be allowed on board an aircraft. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.

Answer 33

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft while having .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Answer 34

No person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot-in-command of an aircraft allow the operation of any portable electronic device on any of the following U.S.-registered aircraft: a. Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operator certificate or an operating certificate, or b. Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR.

Answer 35

a. Portable voice recorders b. Hearing aids c. Heart pacemakers d. Electric shavers e. Any other portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

Answer 36

For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, all available information, including: N OTAMs W eather reports and forecasts K nown ATC traffic delays R unway lengths at airports of intended use A lternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed F uel requirements T akeoff and landing distance data

Answer 37

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station (also, during takeoff and landing only, the shoulder harness, if installed).

Answer 38

Yes; each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing.

Answer 39

No; no person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer 40

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. This restriction does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with the “below 10,000 feet MSL” restriction: “No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots.”

Answer 41

Below 18,000 feet MSL: a. The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft. b. If there is no station within the area described above, the current reported altimeter of an appropriate available station. c. In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure. Note: If barometric pressure exceeds 31.00" Hg, set 31.00" (see AIM). At or above 18,000 feet MSL set to 29.92" Hg.

Answer 42

a. VFR conditions: No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed: • During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or • At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes. b. IFR conditions: No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts) to: • Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; • Fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and • Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. If an alternate is not required, complete the flight to the destination airport with a 45-minute reserve remaining.

Answer 43

Class C, D, or E Airspace (controlled airspace) Less than 10,000 feet MSL: Visibility: 3 statute miles Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal At or above 10,000 feet MSL: Visibility: 5 statute miles Cloud clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal Class G Airspace (uncontrolled airspace) 1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude): Day Visibility: 1 statute mile Cloud clearance: clear of clouds Night Visibility: 3 statute miles Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL: Day Visibility: 1 statute mile Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal Night Visibility: 3 statute miles Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL: Visibility: 5 statute miles Cloud clearance: 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal

Answer 44

Minimum altitudes are: a. Mountainous terrain—at least 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. Part 95 designates the location of mountainous terrain. b. Other than mountainous terrain—at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown.

Answer 45

Examples of operations where an ELT is not required are: a. Ferrying aircraft for installation of an ELT b. Ferrying aircraft for repair of an ELT c. Aircraft engaged in training flights within a 50-nautical mile radius of an airport.

Answer 46

In general, the regulations require aircraft to be equipped with Mode C transponders when operating: a. At or above 10,000 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia, excluding airspace below 2,500 feet AGL; b. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL; c. Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSL; d. Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AGL; e. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous United States ADIZ. Note: Civil and military aircraft should operate with the transponder in the altitude reporting mode and ADS-B Out transmissions enabled (if equipped) at all airports, any time the aircraft is positioned on any portion of an airport movement area.

Answer 47

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight— a. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; b. Over an open air assembly of persons; c. Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; d. Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; e. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or f. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

Answer 48

a. Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds: • A bank of 60° relative to the horizon; or • A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon. b. This regulation does not apply to: • Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or • Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a certified flight instructor or an Airline Transport Pilot.

Answer 49

No pilot of a civil aircraft may tow anything with that aircraft (other than under 91.309 “Towing gliders”) except in accordance with the terms of a certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.

Answer 50

a. Restricted category b. Limited category c. Experimental

Answer 51

Primary radar—A radar system in which a minute portion of a radio pulse transmitted from a site is reflected by an object and then received back at that site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control facility. Secondary radar—A radar system in which the object to be detected is fitted with a transponder. Radar pulses transmitted from the searching transmitter/receiver (interrogator) site are received in the transponder and used to trigger a distinctive transmission from the transponder. The reply transmission, rather than the reflected signal, is then received back at the transmitter/receiver site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control facility.

Answer 52

Airport surveillance radar (ASR) is approach control radar used to detect and display an aircraft’s position in the terminal area. ASR provides range and azimuth information but does not provide elevation data. Coverage of ASR can extend up to 60 miles.

Answer 53

Basic radar service—Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement. TRSA service—Radar sequencing and separation service for participating VFR aircraft in a TRSA. Class C service—This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR, and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport. Class B service—Provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s).

Answer 54

FSS and supplemental weather service locations are allocated frequencies for different functions; for example, in Alaska, certain FSSs provide Local Airport Advisory on 123.6 MHz or other frequencies that can be found in the Chart Supplement U.S. If you are in doubt as to what frequency to use, 122.2 MHz is assigned to the majority of FSSs as a common enroute simplex frequency.

Answer 55

Each pilot operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder maintained in accordance with 14 CFR §91.413 or an ADS-B transmitter must operate the transponder/transmitter, including Mode C/S if installed, on the appropriate Mode 3/A code or as assigned by ATC. Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate this equipment in the transmit mode at all times while airborne unless otherwise requested by ATC.

Answer 56

Less than 1,500 AGL; Military training routes with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by four-digit characters; e.g., IR1206, VR1207. MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by three-digit characters; e.g., IR206, VR207.

Answer 57

The FAA prefers users to file ICAO format flight plans for all flights. An ICAO format flight plan MUST be used when: a. A flight will enter international airspace, including Oceanic airspace controlled by FAA facilities. b. A flight expects routing or separation based on performance-based navigation (PBN), i.e., RNAV SIDs and STARs c. A flight will enter Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) airspace, i.e., FL290 or above. d. A flight expects services based on ADS-B. Note: The transition domestically to the international (ICAO) flight plan format is being developed. Check www.faa.gov for updates.

Answer 58

An abbreviated IFR flight plan is an authorization by ATC requiring pilots to submit only that information needed for the purpose of ATC. It is frequently used by aircraft which are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by an aircraft on the ground which desires to climb to VFR-On-Top conditions.

Answer 59

To prevent computer saturation in the en route environment, parameters have been established to delete proposed departure flight plans which have not been activated. Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time or Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT).

Answer 60

If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within 1⁄2 hour after your ETA, search and rescue procedures are started.

Answer 61

In addition to altitude or flight level, destination and/or route changes, increasing or decreasing the speed of the aircraft constitutes a change in flight plan. Therefore, anytime the average true airspeed at cruising altitude between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by ±5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater, ATC should be advised.

Answer 62

Defense VFR; VFR flights into a coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to file DVFR flight plans for security purposes. The flight plan must be filed before departure.

Answer 63

An Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) is an area of airspace over land or water in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft (except DOD and law enforcement aircraft) are required in the interest of national security.

Answer 64

Domestic ADIZ — located within the United States along an international boundary of the United States. Coastal ADIZ — located over the coastal waters of the United States. Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ) — located over the coastal waters of the State of Alaska. Land-based ADIZ — located over U.S. metropolitan areas, which is activated and deactivated as needed, with dimensions, activation dates and other relevant information disseminated via NOTAM.

Answer 65

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are as follows: Flight plan—An IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility. Two-way radio—An operating two-way radio is required. Transponder—Aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting (Mode C) capabilities. The transponder must be turned on and set to the assigned ATC code. Position reports—For IFR flights, normal position reporting. For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry. Aircraft position tolerances—Over land, a tolerance of ±5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point and within 10 NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Over water, a tolerance of ±5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point or point of penetration and within 20 NM from centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point.

Answer 66

Class A airspace—Generally, airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied. Class B airspace—Generally, airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers, (some resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft cleared as such receive separation services within the airspace. The visibility and cloud clearance requirement for VFR operations is 3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds. Class C airspace—Generally, airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. Class D airspace—Generally, airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain those procedures. Class E (controlled) airspace—Generally, if the airspace is not Class A, B, C, or D, and it is controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Examples include: Surface areas designated for an airport, extensions to a surface area, airspace used for transition, enroute domestic areas, Federal airways, offshore airspace areas. Class G (uncontrolled) airspace—Class G airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace.

Answer 67

Prohibited Area—For security or other reasons, aircraft flight is prohibited. Restricted Area—Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft, flights must have permission from the controlling agency, if VFR. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it. Military Operations Area—Designed to separate military training from IFR traffic. Permission is not required, but VFR flights should exercise caution. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it. Warning Area—Same hazards as a restricted area, it is established beyond the 3-mile limit of International Airspace. Permission is not required, but a flight plan is advised. Alert Area—Airspace containing a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. No permission is required, but VFR flights should exercise caution. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it. Controlled Firing Areas—CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted. National Security Areas—Airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR §99.7. Special Flight Rules Area—An area of airspace within which Special Federal Aviation Regulations (SFARs) apply. Examples include the Washington D.C. SFRA and the Grand Canyon SFRA. Established operating requirements and procedures to operate within an SFRA can be found in 14 CFR Part 93 and on the specific chart legend for that area. Note: Current and scheduled status information on special use airspace can be found on the FAA’s SUA website at sua.faa.gov. Exam Tip: Be prepared to explain the type of airspace your planned route of flight will take you through from departure to arrival at your destination. Know the required visibility, cloud clearance, and communication requirements at any point and altitude along your route of flight. Also, expect the “what if you’re here” questions concerning special use airspace, special VFR clearances, etc.

Answer 68

A temporary flight restriction (TFR) is a regulatory action issued via the U.S. NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. They may be issued due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or as a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. TFR information can be obtained from an FSS or on the internet at www.faa.gov. Exam Tip: On the day of your practical test, verify that a last-minute TFR hasn’t been issued for your area or along your planned route of flight.

Answer 69

A terminal radar service area (TRSA) consists of airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatory.

Answer 70

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on the same runway: stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it. b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on a parallel runway closer than 2,500 feet: consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path and note its touchdown point. c. Landing behind a larger aircraft on a crossing runway: cross above the larger aircraft’s flight path. d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, and land well before the rotation point. e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on a crossing runway: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point. If it is past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If the larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft’s flight path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection.

Answer 71

a. Departing behind a larger aircraft: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, rotate prior to larger aircraft’s rotation point. Continue climb above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of its wake. b. Intersection takeoffs on the same runway: be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, particularly upwind of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid a subsequent heading which will cross below the larger aircraft’s path. c. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch-and-go landing: ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before you take off or land. Because vortices settle and move laterally near the ground, the vortex hazard may continue to exist along the runway, particularly in light quartering wind situations. d. Enroute VFR (thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet): avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft’s path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking), adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

Answer 72

The pilot is responsible. Acceptance of instructions from ATC (traffic information, follow an aircraft, visual approach clearance), is acknowledgment that the pilot has accepted responsibility for his/her own wake turbulence separation.

Answer 73

Hydroplaning occurs when the tires are lifted off a runway surface by the combination of aircraft speed and a thin film of water present on the runway.

Answer 74

Dynamic—Occurs when there is standing water on the runway surface. Water about 1⁄10-inch deep acts to lift the tire off the runway. The minimum speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been determined to be about 8.6 times the square root of the tire pressure in pounds per square inch. Viscous—Occurs as a result of the viscous properties of water. A very thin film of fluid cannot be penetrated by the tire and the tire consequently rolls on top of the film. Viscous hydroplaning can occur at much slower speeds than dynamic hydroplaning but requires a smooth acting surface. Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning—Occurs when a pilot, during the landing roll, locks the brakes for an extended period of time while on a wet runway. The friction creates heat which, combined with water, creates a steam layer between the aircraft tire and runway surface.

Answer 75

Touchdown speed should be as slow as possible consistent with safety. After the nosewheel is lowered to the runway, moderate braking should be applied. If deceleration is not detected and hydroplaning is suspected, the nose should be raised and aerodynamic drag utilized to decelerate to a point where the brakes become effective.

Answer 76

Runway width illusion—Narrower than usual runway creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Runway and terrain slope illusion—Upsloping runway/terrain creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Downsloping runway/terrain has the opposite effect. Featureless terrain illusion—An absence of ground features creates illusion that aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Atmospheric illusions—Rain on windscreen creates illusion of greater height; atmospheric haze creates illusion of greater distance from runway; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.

Answer 77

Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Although horizontal back and forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots, each pilot should develop a comfortable scanning pattern and then adhere to it to ensure optimum scanning.

Answer 78

a. Before Takeoff—Before taxiing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach areas. b. Climbs and Descents—During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, make gentle banks left and right at a frequency that allows continuous visual scanning of the airspace. c. Straight and Level—During sustained periods of straight-and-level flight, execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals. d. Traffic Patterns—Entries into traffic patterns while descending should be avoided. e. Traffic at VOR Sites—Due to converging traffic, maintain sustained vigilance in the vicinity of VORs and intersections. f. Training Operations—Maintain vigilance and make clearing turns before a practice maneuver. During instruction, the pilot should be asked to verbalize the clearing procedures (call out clear “left, right, above, below”). High-wing and low-wing aircraft have their respective blind spots: For high-wing aircraft, momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look for traffic prior to commencing the turn; for low-wing aircraft, momentarily lower the wing.

Answer 79

A red light is positioned on the left wingtip, a green light on the right wingtip, and a white light on the tail. If both a red and green light of another aircraft are observed, and the red light is on the left and the green to the right, the airplane is flying in the same direction. Care must be taken not to overtake the other aircraft and to maintain clearance. If a red light is observed on the right and a green light to the left on another aircraft, then the airplane could be on a collision course.

Answer 80

No person may operate an aircraft during the period from sunset to sunrise unless the aircraft has lighted position lights.

Answer 81

The aircraft must: • Be clearly illuminated, • Have position lights, or • Be in an area marked by obstruction lights.

Answer 82

Aircraft equipped with an anti-collision light system are required to operate that light system during all types of operations (day and night). However, the anti-collision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Answer 83

a. White and green—lighted land airport b. *Green alone—lighted land airport c. White and yellow—lighted water airport d. *Yellow alone—lighted water airport e. Green, yellow, and white—lighted heliport f. White (dual peaked) and green—military airport *Note: “Green alone” or “yellow alone” beacons are used only in connection with a white-and-green, or white-and-yellow beacon display, respectively.

Answer 84

a. Aviation red obstruction lights—Flashing aviation red beacons and steady burning aviation red lights. b. High intensity white obstruction lights—Flashing high intensity white lights during daytime with reduced intensity for twilight and nighttime operation. c. Dual lighting—A combination of flashing aviation red beacons and steady burning aviation red lights for nighttime operation and flashing high intensity white lights for daytime operation.

Answer 85

Runway edge lights are white. On instrument runways, however, yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

Answer 86

The lights marking the ends of the runway emit red light toward the runway to indicate the end of the runway to a departing aircraft, and green light outward from the runway end to indicate the threshold to landing aircraft.

Answer 87

REILs are installed at many airfields to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold. REIL may be either omnidirectional or unidirectional facing the approach area.

Answer 88

Taxiway edge lights emit blue light and are used to outline the edges of taxiways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions.

Answer 89

Taxiway centerline lights are steady-burning, green light.

Answer 90

The pilot needs to check the A/FD and any NOTAMs to find out about available lighting systems, light intensities and radio-controlled light system frequencies.

Answer 91

The pilot activates radio-controlled lights by keying the microphone on a specified frequency. The following sequence can be used for typical radio-controlled lighting systems: a. On initial arrival, key the microphone seven times to turn the lights on and achieve maximum brightness; b. If the runway lights are already on upon arrival, repeat the above sequence to ensure a full 15 minutes of lighting; then c. The intensity of the lights can be adjusted by keying the microphone 7, 5, or 3 times within 5 seconds. Exam Tip: Be prepared to determine and explain the type and status of airport and runway lighting at your departure and destination airports

Answer 92

a. True airspeeds increase with altitude b. Winds aloft are stronger providing tailwind opportunities c. Capability to see and avoid thunderstorms d. Better visibility e. Less turbulence f. Above the weather instead of in it g. Reduced chance for icing h. Conflicts with other air traffic reduced

Answer 93

No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry: a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen. b. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at those altitudes. c. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer 94

Above Flight Level 250: At least a ten-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy 14 CFR §91.211, is available for each occupant of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization. Above Flight Level 350: At least one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL). Note: One pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below Flight Level 410 if two pilots are at the controls and each pilot has a quick donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face within 5 seconds. Also, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at altitudes above Flight Level 350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember’s station.

Answer 95

a. Operated under IFR and in compliance with an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace; b. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations; c. Flown by a pilot rated for instrument flight; and d. Equipped, when in Class A airspace, with: • A radio providing direct pilot/controller communication on the frequency specified by ATC in the area concerned; and • The applicable equipment specified in 14 CFR §91.215 (transponder regulations).

Answer 96

For flight at and above 24,000 feet MSL: if VOR navigational equipment is required (appropriate to the ground facilities to be used) no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 states and the District of Columbia at or above FL240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME) or a suitable RNAV system.

Answer 97

Enroute high altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL. This four-color chart series includes the jet-route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports, reporting points. These charts are revised every 56 days.

Answer 98

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: a. Flight control system malfunction b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties c. Turbine engine failure of structural components d. In-flight fire e. Aircraft collision in-flight f. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 g. Overdue aircraft (believed to be in an accident) h. Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft. i. Complete loss of information (excluding flickering) from more than 50 percent of an aircraft’s EFIS cockpit displays.

Answer 99

The operator shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1 or 6120.2, available from NTSB field offices or from the NTSB, Washington D.C., 20594: a. Within 10 days after an accident; b. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing. A report on an “Incident” for which notification is required as described shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the NTSB.

Answer 100

An aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

Answer 101

An aircraft incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Answer 102

Serious injury means any injury which: a. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received; b. Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose); c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage; d. Involves any internal organ; or e. Involves second- or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.

Answer 103

Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which normally requires major repair or replacement of the affected component.

Answer 104

Refer to the definition of “accident.” An aircraft accident can be substantial damage and/or injuries, and the NTSB always requires a report if this is the case.

Answer 105

The operator of an aircraft shall file any report with the field office of the Board nearest the accident or incident. NTSB contact information can be found at www.ntsb.gov.

Answer 106

a. Always lock your aircraft. b. Keep track of door/ignition keys and don’t leave keys in unattended aircraft. c. Use secondary locks (prop, tie down, throttle, and wheel locks) or aircraft disabler if available. d. Lock hangar when unattended.

Answer 107

a. Limitations on ramp access to people other than instructors and students b. Standards for securing aircraft on the ramp c. Securing access to aircraft keys at all times d. New auxiliary security items for aircraft (prop locks, throttle locks, locking tie downs) e. After-hours or weekend access procedures

Answer 108

If you determine that it’s safe, question the individual. If their response is unsatisfactory and they continue to act suspiciously: a. Alert airport or FBO management. b. Contact local law enforcement if the activity poses an immediate threat to persons or property. c. Contact the 866-GA-SECURE hotline to document the reported event.

Answer 109

Yes; The TSA has established several regulatory programs that include: a. Twelve Five Standard Security Program (TFSSP)—applies to aircraft with a MTOW of more than 12,500 lbs that offer scheduled or charter service and carry passengers or cargo. The program requires watch list matching of passengers, aircraft access control procedures, background checks for flight crews, and reporting procedures. b. Private Charter Standard Security Program (PCSSP)—applies to part 121, 125, and 135 charter aircraft operations in aircraft over 100,309 lbs MTOW or with a seating configuration of 61 or more seats; requires the same security measures as TFSSP, but also requires screening of passengers and accessible property. c. Alien Flight Student Program (AFSP)—requires background checks for foreign flight candidates seeking flight training in the United States. Additional security awareness training is also mandated for flight training providers.

Answer 110

A Security Identification Display Area (SIDA) is a portion of an airport specified in the airport security program in which security measures specified in 49 CFR Part 1542 are carried out. Movement through or into these areas is prohibited without airport-approved identification being displayed continuously. Pilots or passengers without proper identification that are observed entering a SIDA (ramp area) may be reported to TSA or airport security.

Cross-Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards

(134 cards)