Human Factors Flashcards

1
Q

What regulations apply to medical certification?

A

Part 67—Medical Standards and Certification

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2
Q

As a flight crewmember, you discover you have high blood pressure. You are in possession of a current medical certificate. Can you continue to exercise the privileges of your certificate? (AIM 8-1-1)

A

No; the regulations prohibit a pilot who possesses a current medical certificate from performing crewmember duties while the pilot has a known medical condition or an increase of a known medical condition that would make the pilot unable to meet the standards for the medical certificate.

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3
Q

Are flight crewmembers allowed the use of any medications while performing required duties? (AIM 8-1-1)

A

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety. The safest rule is not to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA.

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4
Q

Are there any over-the-counter medications that could be considered safe to use while flying? (AIM 8-1-1)

A

No; pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both prescribed and over-the-counter medications, as well as by the medical conditions for which they are taken. Many medications have primary effects that may impair judgment, memory, alertness, coordination, vision, and the ability to make calculations. Also, any medication that depresses the central nervous system can make a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia.

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5
Q

What are several factors that may contribute to impairment of a pilot’s performance? (AIM 8-1-1)

A

I llness

M edication

S tress

A lcohol

F atigue

E motion

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6
Q

What is hypoxia? (AIM 8-1-2)

A

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs.

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7
Q

Give a brief explanation of the four forms of hypoxia. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Hypoxic—the result of insufficient oxygen available to the body as a whole. The reduction in partial pressure of oxygen at high altitude is an example for pilots.

Hypemic—the blood is unable to transport a sufficient amount of oxygen to the cells; the result of oxygen deficiency in the blood, rather than a lack of inhaled oxygen, CO2 poisoning is an example.

Stagnant—this results when the oxygen-rich blood in the lungs is not moving. It can result from shock, the heart failing to pump blood effectively, a constricted artery, and with excessive acceleration of gravity (Gs).

Histotoxic—inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen; it can be caused by alcohol and other drugs.

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8
Q

Where does hypoxia usually occur, and what symptoms should one expect? (AIM 8-1-2)

A

Although a deterioration in night vision occurs at a cabin pressure altitude as low as 5,000 feet, other significant effects of altitude hypoxia usually do not occur in the normal healthy pilot below 12,000 feet. From 12,000 feet to 15,000 feet of altitude, judgment, memory, alertness, coordination, and ability to make calculations are impaired, and headache, drowsiness, dizziness and either a sense of well-being or belligerence occur.

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9
Q

What factors can make a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia? (AIM 8-1-2)

A

a. Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes

b. Anemia (lowered hemoglobin)

c. Certain medications

d. Small amounts of alcohol

e. Low doses of certain drugs (antihistamines, tranquilizers, sedatives, analgesics, etc.)

Also, extreme heat or cold, fever, and anxiety increase the body’s demand for oxygen, and hence its susceptibility to hypoxia.

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10
Q

How can hypoxia be avoided? (AIM 8-1-2, FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Hypoxia is prevented by heeding factors that reduce tolerance to altitude, by enriching the inspired air with oxygen from an appropriate oxygen system, and by maintaining a comfortable, safe cabin pressure altitude. For optimum protection, pilots are encouraged to use supplemental oxygen above 10,000 feet during the day, and above 5,000 feet at night. If supplemental oxygen is not available, a fingertip pulse oximeter can be very useful in monitoring blood O2 levels.

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11
Q

What is hyperventilation? (AIM 8-1-3)

A

Hyperventilation is an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, and it can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. This results in a significant decrease in the carbon dioxide content of the blood. Carbon dioxide is needed to automatically regulate the breathing process.

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12
Q

What symptoms can a pilot expect from hyperventilation? (AIM 8-1-3)

A

As hyperventilation “blows off” excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, and coolness, and react to them with even greater hyperventilation. Incapacitation can eventually result from uncoordination, disorientation, and painful muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur

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13
Q

How can a hyperventilating condition be reversed? (AIM 8-1-3)

A

The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought back to normal. The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.

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14
Q

What is “ear block”? (AIM 8-1-2)

A

As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases during ascent, the expanding air in the middle ear pushes open the Eustachian tube and escapes down to the nasal passages, thereby equalizing in pressure with the cabin pressure. But this is not automatic during descent, and the pilot must periodically open the Eustachian tube to equalize pressure. An upper respiratory infection or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion around the Eustachian tube to make equalization difficult. Consequently, the difference in pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin can build to a level that holds the Eustachian tube closed, making equalization difficult if not impossible. An ear block produces severe pain and loss of hearing that can last from several hours to several days.

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15
Q

How is ear block normally prevented from occurring? (AIM 8-1-2)

A

Ear block can normally be prevented by swallowing, yawning, tensing muscles in the throat or, if these do not work, by the combination of closing the mouth, pinching the nose closed and attempting to blow through the nostrils (Valsalva maneuver). It is also prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition

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16
Q

What is spatial disorientation? (FAA-H-8083-15)

A

What causes spatial disorientation? (FAA-H-8083-15)

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17
Q

What is the cause of motion sickness, and what are its symptoms? (FAA-P-8740-41)

A

Motion sickness is caused by continued stimulation of the inner ear, which controls the pilot’s sense of balance. The symptoms are progressive. First, the desire for food is lost. Then, saliva collects in the mouth and the person begins to perspire freely. Eventually, the person becomes nauseated and disoriented, and may have a headache and a tendency to vomit. If the air sickness becomes severe enough, the pilot may become completely incapacitated.

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18
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot or passenger suffers from motion sickness? (FAA-P-8740-41)

A

If suffering from airsickness while piloting an aircraft, open up the air vents, loosen clothing, use supplemental oxygen, and keep the eyes on a point outside the airplane. Avoid unnecessary head movements. Then cancel the flight and land as soon as possible.

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19
Q

What regulations apply, and what common sense should prevail, concerning the use of alcohol? (AIM 8-1-1)

A

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic beverage or while under the influence of alcohol. However, due to the slow destruction of alcohol, a pilot may still be under its influence 8 hours after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. Therefore, an excellent rule is to allow at least 12 to 24 hours from “bottle to throttle,” depending on the amount of alcoholic beverage consumed.

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20
Q

What is carbon monoxide poisoning? (AIM 8-1-4)

A

Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. When breathed, even in minute quantities over a period of time, it can significantly reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Consequently, effects of hypoxia occur.

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21
Q

How does carbon monoxide poisoning occur, and what symptoms should a pilot be alert for? (AIM 8-1-4)

A

Most heaters in light aircraft work by air flowing over the manifold. Use of these heaters while exhaust fumes are escaping through manifold cracks and seals is responsible for several nonfatal and fatal aircraft accidents from carbon monoxide poisoning each year. A pilot who detects the odor of exhaust or experiences symptoms of headache, drowsiness, or dizziness while using the heater should suspect carbon monoxide poisoning.

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22
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot suspects carbon monoxide poisoning? (AIM 8-1-4)

A

A pilot who suspects this condition exists should immediately shut off the heater and open all air vents. If symptoms are severe, or they continue after landing, the pilot should seek medical treatment.

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23
Q

Discuss the effects of nitrogen excesses from scuba diving upon a pilot or passenger in flight. (AIM 8-1-2)

A

pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression sickness due to evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a serious inflight emergency. The recommended waiting times before flight are as follows:

Flight altitudes up to 8,000 feet:

a. Wait at least 12 hours after a dive that did not require a controlled ascent.

b. Wait at least 24 hours after a dive in which a controlled ascent was required.

Flight altitudes above 8,000 feet:

a. Wait at least 24 hours after any scuba dive.

Note: The recommended altitudes are actual flight altitudes above mean sea level and not pressurized cabin altitudes. This takes into consideration the risk of decompression of the aircraft during flight.

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24
Q

For a pilot who has been taking an over-the-counter (OTC) cold medication, how do the various environmental factors the pilot is exposed to in flight affect the drug’s physiological impact on the pilot? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Drugs that cause no apparent side effects on the ground can create serious problems at relatively low altitudes. Even at typical general aviation altitudes, the changes in concentrations of atmospheric gases in the blood can enhance the effects of seemingly innocuous drugs and result in impaired judgment, decision-making, and performance.

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25
Q

Define the term “single-pilot resource management.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Single-pilot resource management (SRM) is the art and science of managing all the resources (both on board the aircraft and from outside sources) available to a single pilot (prior to and during flight) to ensure that the successful outcome of the flight is never in doubt. SRM helps pilots learn to execute methods of gathering information, analyzing it, and making decisions.

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26
Q

What practical application provides a pilot with an effective method to practice SRM? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

The “Five P” checklist consists of “the Plan, the Plane, the Pilot, the Passengers, and the Programming.” It is based on the idea that the pilot has essentially five variables that impact his or her environment and that can cause the pilot to make a single critical decision, or several less critical decisions, that when added together can create a critical outcome.

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27
Q

Explain the use of the “Five P” model to assess risk associated with each of the five factors. (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

At key decision points, application of the 5P checklist should be performed by reviewing each of the critical variables:

Plan—weather, route, publications, ATC reroutes/delays, fuel onboard/remaining

Plane—mechanical status, automation status, database currency, backup systems

Pilot—illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating

Passengers—pilots/non-pilots, nervous or quiet, experienced or new, business or pleasure

Programming—autopilot, GPS, MFD/PFD; anticipate likely reroutes/clearances; questions to ask—What is it doing? Why is it doing it? Did I do it?

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28
Q

When is the use of the “Five P” checklist recommended? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

The “Five P” concept relies on the pilot to adopt a scheduled review of the critical variables at points in the flight where decisions are most likely to be effective. These key decision points include preflight, pre-takeoff, hourly or at the midpoint of the flight, pre-descent, and just prior to the final approach fix (or, for VFR operations, just prior to entering the traffic pattern). They also should be used anytime an emergency situation arises.

29
Q

Define the term “aeronautical decision making.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Aeronautical decision making (ADM) is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances. The two most commonly used models for practicing ADM are the DECIDE model and the 3P model.

30
Q

The DECIDE model of decision-making involves which elements? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

D etect a change needing attention.

E stimate the need to counter or react to a change.

C hoose the most desirable outcome for the flight.

I dentify actions to successfully control the change.

D o something to adapt to the change.

E valuate the effect of the action countering the change.

31
Q

How is the 3P model different from the DECIDE model of ADM? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

The 3P process is a continuous loop of the pilot’s handling of hazards. The DECIDE model and naturalistic decision-making focus on particular problems requiring resolution. Therefore, pilots exercise the 3P process continuously, while the DECIDE model and naturalistic decision-making result from the 3P process.

32
Q

What regulations apply, and what common sense should prevail, concerning the use of alcohol? (AIM 8-1-1)

A

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic beverage or while under the influence of alcohol. However, due to the slow destruction of alcohol, a pilot may still be under its influence 8 hours after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. Therefore, an excellent rule is to allow at least 12 to 24 hours from “bottle to throttle,” depending on the amount of alcoholic beverage consumed.

33
Q

How will you use the 3P model to recognize and mitigate risks throughout a flight? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Once a pilot has completed the 3P decision process and selected a course of action, the process begins again because the circumstances brought about by the course of action requires analysis. The decision-making process is a continuous loop of perceiving, processing and performing.

34
Q

Name five hazardous attitudes that can affect a pilot’s ability to make sound decisions and properly exercise authority. (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Attitude/Antidote
Anti-authority (“Don’t tell me.”)/Follow the rules—they are usually right.
Impulsivity (“Do it quickly.”)/Think first—not so fast.
Invulnerability (“It won’t happen to me.”)/It could happen to me.
Macho (“I can do it.”)/Taking chances is foolish.
Resignation (“What’s the use?”)/I can make a difference; I am not helpless.

35
Q

Define the term “risk management.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Risk management is a decision-making process designed to systematically identify hazards, assess the degree of risk, and determine the best course of action. It is a logical process of weighing the potential costs of risks against the possible benefits of allowing those risks to stand uncontrolled.

36
Q

What is the definition of a “hazard”? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

A hazard is a present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event such as an accident.

37
Q

What are several examples of aviation hazards? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

a. A nick in the propeller blade

b. Improper refueling of an aircraft

c. Pilot fatigue

d. Use of unapproved hardware on aircraft

e. Weather

38
Q

What is the definition of “risk”? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

Risk is the future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated.

39
Q

How can the use of the “PAVE” checklist during flight planning help you to assess risk? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Use of the PAVE checklist provides pilots with a simple way to remember each category to examine for risk during flight planning. The pilot divides the risks of flight into four categories:

Pilot-In-Command—general health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, currency

Aircraft—airworthiness, equipment, performance capability

enVironment—weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, conditions

External pressures—meetings, people waiting at destination, desire to impress someone, etc.

40
Q

Explain the use of a “personal minimums” checklist and how it can help a pilot control risk. (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

One of the most important concepts that safe pilots understand is the difference between what is “legal” in terms of the regulations, and what is “smart” or “safe” in terms of pilot experience and proficiency. One way a pilot can control the risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category. These are limits unique to that individual pilot’s current level of experience and proficiency

41
Q

What is one method you can use to identify risk before departure? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

One way a pilot can limit exposure to risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category. These are limits unique to that individual pilot’s current level of experience and proficiency.

Pilot—experience/recency (takeoffs/landings, hours in make/model), physical/mental condition (IMSAFE)

Aircraft—fuel reserves, VFR day/night, aircraft performance (W&B, density altitude, etc.), aircraft equipment (avionics familiarity, charts, survival gear)

EnVironment—airport conditions (runway condition/length), weather (winds, ceilings, visibilities)

External pressures—allowance for delays, diversion, cancellation, alternate plans, personal equipment available for alternate plans (phone numbers, credit cards, medications)

42
Q

Explain the use of a personal checklist such as “I’M SAFE” to determine personal risks. (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Personal, self-assessment checklists assist pilots in conducting preflight checks on themselves, reviewing their physical and emotional states that could have an effect on their performance. The “I’M SAFE” checklist reminds pilots to consider the following:

I llness—Do I have any symptoms?

M edication—Have I been taking prescription or over-the-counter drugs?

S tress—Am I under psychological pressure from my job? Do I have money, family, or health problems?

A lcohol—Have I been drinking alcohol within 8 hours? Within 24 hours?

F atigue—Am I tired and not adequately rested?

E motions—Am I fully recovered from any extremely upsetting events?

43
Q

Describe how the 3P model can be used for practical risk management. (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

The Perceive, Process, Perform (3P) model for risk management offers a simple, practical, and systematic approach that can be used during all phases of flight. To use it, pilots will:

Perceive the hazards for a flight, which are present events, objects, or circumstances that could contribute to an undesired future event. Think through circumstances related to the PAVE risk categories. The fundamental question to ask is, “what could hurt me, my passengers, or my aircraft?”

Process the hazards by evaluating their impact on flight safety. Think through the Consequences of each hazard, Alternatives available, Reality of the situation, and External pressures (CARE) that might influence their analysis.

Perform by implementing the best course of action. Transfer (Can the risk decision be transferred to someone else? Can you consult someone?); Eliminate (Is there a way to eliminate the hazard?); Accept (Do the benefits of accepting risk outweigh the costs?); Mitigate (What can you do to reduce the risk?) (TEAM)

44
Q

Explain how often a pilot should use the 3P model of ADM throughout a flight. (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Once a pilot has completed the 3P decision process and selected a course of action, the process begins again because the circumstances brought about by the course of action require analysis. The decision-making process is a continuous loop of perceiving, processing and performing.

45
Q

Define the term “task management.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Task management is the process by which pilots manage the many, concurrent tasks that must be performed to safely and efficiently operate an aircraft.

46
Q

What are several factors that can reduce a pilot’s ability to manage workload effectively? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Environmental Conditions—temperature and humidity extremes, noise, vibration, and lack of oxygen.

Physiological stress—fatigue, lack of physical fitness, sleep loss, missed meals (leading to low blood sugar levels), and illness.

Psychological stress—Social or emotional factors, such as a death in the family, a divorce, a sick child, or a demotion at work. This type of stress may also be related to mental workload, such as analyzing a problem, navigating an aircraft, or making decisions.

47
Q

What are several options that a pilot can employ to decrease workload and avoid becoming overloaded? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Stop, think, slow down, and prioritize. Tasks such as locating an item on a chart or setting a radio frequency may be delegated to another pilot or passenger; an autopilot, if available, may be used; or ATC may be enlisted to provide assistance.

48
Q

What is one method of prioritizing tasks to avoid an overload situation? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

During any situation, and especially in an emergency, remember the phrase “aviate, navigate, and communicate.”

49
Q

How can tasks be completed in a timely manner without causing a distraction from flying? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

By planning, prioritizing, and sequencing tasks, a potential work overload situation can be avoided. As experience is gained, a pilot learns to recognize future workload requirements and can prepare for high workload periods during times of low workload.

50
Q

What are two common methods of checklist usage? (Order 8900.1)

A

a. Do-Verify (DV) method—consists of the checklist being accomplished in a variable sequence without a preliminary challenge. After all of the action items on the checklist have been completed, the checklist is then read again while each item is verified. The DV method allows the pilot/flight crew to use flow patterns from memory to accomplish a series of actions quickly and efficiently.

b. Challenge-Do-Verify (CDV) method—consists of a pilot/crewmember making a challenge before an action is initiated, taking the action, and then verifying that the action item has been accomplished. The CDV method is most effective in two-pilot crews where one crewmember issues the challenge and the second crewmember takes the action and responds to the first crewmember, verifying that the action was taken.

51
Q

What are several examples of common errors that can occur when using a checklist?

A

a. Checklist items are missed because of distraction or interruption (by passengers, ATC, etc.).

b. Checklist items are incorrectly performed (hurrying checklist; reading item but not verifying or setting).

c. Failure to use the appropriate checklist for a specific phase of flight.

d. Too much time is spent with head down, reading the checklist and compromising safety.

e. Checklist is not readily accessible in cockpit.

f. Emergency/abnormal procedures checklist is not readily available.

g. Memory items are accomplished but not confirmed with the checklist.

52
Q

What are several recommended methods for managing checklist accomplishment? (Order 8900.1)

A

a. The pilot should touch/point at each control, display or switch.

b. Verbally state the desired status of the checklist item.

c. When complete, announce that “____ checklist is complete.”

53
Q

What are “immediate action” items? (Order 8900.1)

A

An immediate action item is an action that must be accomplished so expeditiously (in order to avoid or stabilize a hazardous situation) that time is not available for the pilot/crewmember to refer to a manual or checklist. Once the emergency has been brought under control, the pilot refers to the actual checklist to verify that all immediate action items were accomplished. Only after this is done should the remainder of the checklist be completed.

Exam Tip: Demonstrate use the appropriate checklists throughout the test, especially while on the ground during preflight, before taxi, before takeoff and after landing. The evaluator will be watching for this. While inflight, in situations where use of a checklist would be unsafe or impractical, completion of the checklist items first and then a review of the appropriate checklist would be appropriate.

54
Q

Discuss the importance of understanding the procedure for the positive exchange of flight controls. (FAA-H-8083-6)

A

On flights with more than one pilot in the cockpit, accidents occur due to a lack of communication or a misunderstanding as to who actually has control of the aircraft. When control of the aircraft is transferred between two pilots, it is important to acknowledge this exchange verbally. The pilot relinquishing control of the aircraft should state, “You have the flight controls.” The pilot assuming control of the aircraft should state, “I have the flight controls,” and then the pilot relinquishing control should restate, “You have the flight controls.” Following these procedures reduces the possibility of confusion about who is flying the aircraft at any given time.

55
Q

Define the term “situational awareness.” (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Situational awareness (SA) is the accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the four fundamental risk elements (Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures) that affect safety before, during, and after the flight.

56
Q

What are some of the elements inside and outside the aircraft that a pilot must consider to maintain situational awareness? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Inside the aircraft—the status of aircraft systems, pilot, and passengers

Outside the aircraft—awareness of where the aircraft is in relation to terrain, traffic, weather, and airspace

57
Q

What are several factors that reduce situational awareness? (FAA-H-8083-15)

A

Factors that reduce SA include fatigue, distractions, unusual or unexpected events, complacency, high workload, unfamiliar situations, and inoperative equipment.

58
Q

When flying a technically advanced aircraft (TAA), what are several procedures that help ensure that situational awareness is enhanced, not diminished, by the automation? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Two basic procedures are to always double-check the system and to use verbal callouts. At a minimum, ensure the presentation makes sense. Was the correct destination fed into the navigation system? Callouts, even for single-pilot operations, are an excellent way to maintain situational awareness as well as manage information.

59
Q

What additional procedures can be used for maintaining situational awareness in technically advanced aircraft? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

a. Perform verification checks of all programming prior to departure.

b. Check the flight routing—ensure all routing matches the planned route of flight.

c. Always verify waypoints.

d. Make use of all onboard navigation equipment—use VOR to backup GPS, and vice versa.

e. Match the use of the automated system with pilot proficiency—stay within personal limitations.

f. Plan a realistic flight route to maintain situational awareness—ATC doesn’t always give you direct routing.

g. Be ready to verify computer data entries—incorrect keystrokes can lead to loss of situational awareness.

60
Q

A majority of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) accidents have been attributed to what factors? (AC 61-134)

A

a. Lack of pilot currency

b. Loss of situational awareness

c. Pilot distractions and breakdown of SRM

d. Failure to comply with minimum safe altitudes

e. Breakdown in effective ADM

f. Insufficient planning, especially for the descent and arrival segments

61
Q

A pilot can decrease the likelihood of a CFIT accident at the destination by identifying what risk factors prior to flight? (FAA-H-8083-16)

A

Factors such as airport location, runway lighting, weather/daylight conditions, approach specifications, ATC capabilities and limitations, type of operation, departure procedures, controller/pilot phraseology, and crew configuration should all be considered prior to flight.

62
Q

Describe several operational techniques that will help you avoid a CFIT accident. (AC 61-134)

A

a. Maintain situational awareness at all times.

b. Adhere to safe takeoff and departure procedures.

c. Familiarize yourself with surrounding terrain features and obstacles.

d. Adhere to published routes and minimum altitudes.

e. Fly a stabilized approach.

f. Understand ATC clearances and instructions.

g. Don’t become complacent.

63
Q

What is the “sterile cockpit rule” and how can adherence to this rule prevent CFIT accidents? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Commonly known as the “sterile cockpit rule,” 14 CFR §121.542 (and §135.100) require flight crewmembers to refrain from nonessential activities (eating, chatting, reading a newspaper, etc.) during critical phases of flight. Critical phases of flight are all ground operations involving taxi; takeoff and landing; and all other flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight. A series of accidents caused by flight crews who were distracted from their flight duties during critical phases of flight caused the FAA to propose the rule. While the regulation grew out of accidents in the airline industry, it holds true for the entire aviation community. Pilots can improve flight safety significantly by reducing distractions during critical phases of flight.

64
Q

What does the term “automation management” refer to? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Automation management is the demonstrated ability to control and navigate an aircraft by means of the automated systems installed in the aircraft. It includes understanding whether and when to use automated systems, including, but not limited to, the GPS and the autopilot.

Exam Tip: To assist in management of the aircraft during the practical test, the applicant is expected to demonstrate automation management skills by utilizing installed, available, or airborne equipment such as autopilot, avionics and systems displays, and/or the flight management system (FMS). The evaluator is expected to test the applicant’s knowledge of the systems that are installed and operative during both the oral and flight portions of the practical test.

65
Q

In what three areas must a pilot be proficient when using advanced avionics or any automated system? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The pilot must know what to expect, how to monitor the system for proper operation, and be prepared to promptly take appropriate action if the system does not perform as expected.

66
Q

What is the most important aspect of managing an autopilot/FMS? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Knowing at all times which modes are engaged, which modes are armed to engage, and being capable of verifying that armed functions (e.g., navigation tracking or altitude capture) engage at the appropriate time.

67
Q

At a minimum, the pilot flying with advanced avionics must know how to manage what three primary items? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The course deviation indicator (CDI), the navigation source, and the autopilot.

68
Q

Explain what is meant by the term “automation bias” and discuss how it can increase risk. (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

Automation bias is the relative willingness of a pilot to trust and use automated systems. By failing to monitor the systems and failing to check the results of the processes of those systems, the pilot becomes increasingly detached from aircraft operation, which significantly increases risk.

69
Q

Automation management is a good place to practice the standard callout procedures. What are standard callouts? (FAA-H-8083-16)

A

To assist in maintaining situational awareness, professional flight crews often use standard callouts. For example, the non-flying pilot may call 2,000 and 1,000 feet prior to reaching an assigned altitude. The callout may be “two to go” and “one to go.” Single-pilot operations can also benefit from this practice by adopting standard, set callouts that can be used in the different segments of a flight. Examples of standard callouts are: “Power Set”, “Airspeed Alive”, “Rotate”, “Positive Rate—Gear Up”, “Localizer Alive”, “Glideslope Alive”, “Nav Source Verified”, “Approach Mode Armed”, “Approach Mode Active”, “Final Approach Fix”, etc.