Cumulative 2 Flashcards
(146 cards)
1
Q
Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is consumed but not used to produce new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?
A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels.
B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular respiration.
C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs for thermoregulation.
D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat as a result of cellular respiration consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.
A
D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat as a result of cellular respiration
consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.
2
Q
Consider the food chain of grass-grasshopper-mouse-snake-hawk. About how much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100 percent) is available to the hawk?
A) 0.01%
B) 0.1%
C) 1%
D) 10%
A
A) 0.01%
3
Q
If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps
involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be accurate?
A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can.
B) The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals.
C) Seal populations are larger than fish populations.
D) Fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat.
A
D) Fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat
4
Q
A porcupine eats 3,000 J of plant material. Of this, 2,100 J is indigestible and is eliminated as feces, 800 J are used in cellular respiration, and 100 J are used for growth and reproduction. What is the approximate production efficiency of this animal?
A) 0.03%
B) 3%
C) 11%
D) 33%
A
C) 11%
5
Q
Which of the following locations are major reservoirs for carbon in the carbon cycle?
A) the ocean, atmosphere, and fossilized and live plant and animal biomass
B) the atmosphere
C) fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas)
D) sediments and sedimentary rocks
A
A) the ocean, atmosphere, and fossilized and live plant and animal biomass
6
Q
Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling?
A) Phosphorus is the limiting nutrient that most widely affects biomass production.
B) The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks.
C) The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide for the past million years.
D) The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem
A
B) The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks
7
Q
Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by ________.
A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia
B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil
C) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb
D) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds
A
C) converting ammonium to nitrate
8
Q
The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment revealed that ________.
I) deforestation increased water runoff
II) nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high
III) calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) only I and II
A
D) only I and II
9
Q
Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient-poor soils?
A) Tropical bedrock contains little phosphorous.
B) Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
C) Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber.
D) The cation exchange capacity of the soil is reversed as a result of logging.
A
C) Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber
10
Q
How can biodiversity affect the way we decontaminate industrial sites?
I) Bacteria have been found to be able to detoxify certain chemicals; perhaps there are more.
II) Trees produce sawdust, which can be used to soak up chemicals.
III) Species evolving in contaminated areas could adapt and detoxify the area.
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) only II and III
A
A) only I
11
Q
The first step in ecosystem restoration is to ________.
A) restore the physical structure
B) restore native species that have been extirpated due to disturbance
C) remove competitive invasive species
D) remove toxic pollutants
A
A) restore the physical structure
12
Q
The goal of restoration ecology is to ________.
A) replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem for that area
B) return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state
C) manage competition among species in human-altered ecosystems
D) prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status
A
B) return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state
13
Q
The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to a more natural state is known as ________.
A) landscape ecology
B) conservation ecology
C) restoration ecology
D) resource conservation
A
C) restoration ecology
14
Q
Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?
A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
C) dredging a river bottom to remove contaminated sediments
D) adding fertilizer to soil poor in nutrients to increase plant growth
A
A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
15
Q
Acid precipitation lowered the pH of soil in a terrestrial ecosystem that supported a diverse community of plants and animals. The decrease in pH eliminated all nitrogen-fixing bacteria populations in the area. Which prediction most accurately reflects the impact this will have on
the community?
A) Since phosphorus can replace nitrogen as an essential nutrient, the impact will be minimal.
B) Plants can obtain the nitrogen necessary for growth from the atmosphere, but bacterial communities will be negatively impacted.
C) Primary producers will suffer from nitrogen deficiency and the entire community will experience a decrease in carrying capacity.
D) The decrease in pH actually increases the availability of soil nutrients, so other nutrients that were less available cause an increase in primary production and an increase in biomass at other
trophic levels.
A
C) Primary producers will suffer from nitrogen deficiency and the entire community will experience a decrease in carrying capacity
16
Q
Darwin and Wallace’s theory of evolution by natural selection was revolutionary because it ________.
A) was the first theory to refute the ideas of special creation
B) proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time
C) dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations
D) was the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time
A
C) dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized importance of variation and change in populations
17
Q
The Linnaeus classification system grouped organisms by ________.
A) linear hierarchy of the scala naturae
B) increasingly more general categories
C) increasingly more complex categories
D) environmental location
A
B) increasingly more general categories
18
Q
Fossils found in strata reveal that ________.
A) older strata carry fossils that differ greatly from living organisms
B) geologic changes occur quickly on Earth
C) unused body parts decrease in size
D) innate drive to complexity of life
A
A) older strata carry fossils that differ greatly from living organisms
19
Q
Prior to the work of Lyell and Darwin, the prevailing belief was that Earth is ________.
A) a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging
B) a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change
C) millions of years old, and populations rapidly change
D) millions of years old, and populations are unchanging
A
A) a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging
20
Q
Which of the following statements best explains why modification or change in an organ or tissue during the lifetime of an individual is not inherited?
A) Characteristics acquired during an organism’s life are generally not passed on through genes.
B) Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits.
C) Only favorable adaptations have survival value.
D) Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.
A
A) Characteristics acquired during an organism’s life are generally not passed on through genes
21
Q
When Cuvier considered the fossils found in the vicinity of Paris, he concluded that the extinction of species ________.
A) does not occur, but evolution does occur
B) and the evolution of species both occur
C) and the evolution of species do not occur
D) occurs, but that there is no evolution
A
D) occurs, but that there is no evolution
22
Q
For which one of the following observations were both Lamarck’s hypothesis and Darwin’s hypothesis in complete agreement?
A) Use and disuse of organs determines their size in progeny.
B) Gradual evolutionary change explains why organisms are well-suited to their environments.
C) Acquired characteristics are inherited.
D) More complex species are descended from less complex species.
A
B) Gradual evolutionary change explains why organisms are well-suited to their environments
23
Q
If x indicates the fossils of two closely related species, neither of which is extinct, then their remains may be found in how many of these strata?
A) one stratum
B) two strata
C) three strata
D) four strata
A
B) two strata
24
Q
A
25
The cow Bos primigenius (which is bred for meat and milk) has a smaller brain and larger eyes than closely related wild species of ungulates. These traits most likely arose by ________.
A) natural selection, because these traits evolved in the population over time
B) natural selection, because these traits were not consciously selected by humans
C) artificial selection, because changes in these traits co-occurred with human selection for high milk output and high muscle content
D) artificial selection, because these animals differ from their close relatives and common ancestor
C) artificial selection, because changes in these traits co-occurred with human selection for high milk output and high muscle content
26
Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea, breeders have created the strains known as Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. Therefore, which of the following statements is correct?
A) In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these different varieties.
B) Heritable variation is low in wild mustard—otherwise this wild strain would have different characteristics.
C) Natural selection is rare in wild populations of wild mustard.
D) In wild mustard, most of the variation is due to differences in soil or other aspects of the environment.
A) In this wild mustard, there is heritable variation to permit these different varieties
27
What are adaptations?
A) geologic changes over time
B) rocks containing fossils
C) inherited characteristics of organisms that enhance their survival
D) descent with modification from a common ancestor
C) inherited characteristics of organisms that enhance their survival
28
Which of these conditions are always true of populations evolving due to natural selection?
Condition 1: The population must vary in traits that are heritable.
Condition 2: Some heritable traits must increase reproductive success.
Condition 3: Individuals pass on most traits that they acquire during their lifetime.
A) Condition 1 only
B) Condition 2 only
C) Conditions 1 and 2
D) Conditions 2 and 3
C) Conditions 1 and 2
29
A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these statements explains why the pigweed reappeared?
A) The herbicide company lost its triazine formula and started selling poor-quality triazine.
B) Natural selection caused the pigweed to mutate, creating a new triazine-resistant species.
C) Triazine-resistant pigweed has less-efficient photosynthesis metabolism.
D) Triazine-resistant weeds were more likely to survive and reproduce.
D) Triazine-resistant weeds were more likely to survive and reproduce
30
Which one of the following statements best defines artificial selection?
A) Process that occurs when individuals inherit traits that enable them to survive and reproduce
B) Process where humans decide which plants and/or animals will not breed
C) Process of human directed breeding aimed to produce selective traits in selected species
D) Process that favors beneficial mutations
C) Process of human directed breeding aimed to produce selective traits in selected species
31
After the drought of 1977, researchers hypothesized that on the Galápagos Island Daphne Major, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. A tourist company sets up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes) so that tourists can get a better look at the finches. Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on this island?
A) evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time, until all birds have relatively large, deep beaks
B) evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time, until all birds have relatively small, pointy beaks
C) increased variation in beak size and shape over time
D) no change in beak size and shape over time
C) increased variation in beak size and shape over time
32
The following question is based on information from Frank M. Frey, "Opposing Natural Selection from Herbivores and Pathogens May Maintain Floral-Color Variation in Claytonia virginica (Portulacaceae)," Evolution 58(11), 2004: 2426-37.
Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary from white, to pale pink, to bright pink. Slugs prefer to eat pink-flowering over white-flowering plants (due to chemical differences between the two), and plants experiencing severe herbivory are more likely to die. The bees that pollinate this plant also prefer pink to white flowers, so that Claytonia with pink flowers have greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with white flowers. A researcher observes that the percentage of different flower colors remains stable in the study population from year to year. Given no other information, if the researcher removes all slugs from the study population, what do you expect to happen to the distribution of flower colors in the population over time?
A) The percentage of pink flowers should increase over time.
B) The percentage of white flowers should increase over time.
C) The distribution of flower colors should not change.
D) The distribution of flower colors should randomly fluctuate over time.
A) The percentage of pink flowers should increase over time
33
Which statement illustrates the connection between natural selection and overreproduction of a population?
A) Populations vary in their inherited traits.
B) Species produce more offspring than can survive in the environment.
C) Individuals with inherited traits that promote survival tend to have more surviving offspring.
D) Individuals with traits that do not enhance survival cannot reproduce.
C) Individuals inherited traits that promote survival tend to have more surviving offspring
34
Darwin used the phrase "descent with modification" to explain ________.
A) unity of life
B) descent of all organisms from a single, ancient ancestor
C) that habitat differences stimulate change in organisms
D) evolution of the unity and diversity of life
D) evolution of the unity and diversity of life
35
Which of the following statements describe evolution?
A) Individuals evolve in response to their environment.
B) The match between organism and their environment decreases.
C) Natural selection chooses the most popular trait.
D) Quick changes occur in an individual's phenotype.
A) Individuals evolve in response to their environment
36
Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events under the influence of natural selection?
1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals.
2. A change occurs in the environment.
3. Genetic frequencies within the population change.
4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
A) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
B) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
C) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
D) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
A) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
37
Which of the following factors could cause a surge in population size?
A) a decrease in available food
B) an increase in the number of predators
C) better eyesight evolves in the population
D) decreased camouflage evolves in the population
C) better eyesight evolves in the population
38
Which of the following statements describe the effect of evolution on a population?
A) increasingly better match between a population and its environment
B) increased genetic variation among individuals in a population
C) increased variation among individuals in a population
D) increased sexual reproduction in a population
A) increasingly better match between a population and its environment
39
Which of Darwin's ideas had the strongest connection to his reading of Malthus's essay on human population growth?
A) descent with modification
B) variation among individuals in a population
C) struggle for existence
D) that the ancestors of the Galápagos finches had come from the South American mainland
C) struggle for existence
40
If Darwin had been aware of genes and their typical mode of transmission to subsequent
generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement?
A) If natural selection can change gene frequency in a population over generations, given enough time and genetic diversity, then natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones.
B) If an organism's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more fit, then it will
be able to pass these genes on to its offspring.
C) If an organism acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by, another organism, then a new genetic species will result.
D) A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete, if inherited by future generations, will produce a new species.
A) If natural selection can change gene frequency in a population over generations, given enough time and genetic diversity, then natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones
41
Which one of the following observations did Darwin first make during his discovery of evolution?
A) The ability of individuals to survive and reproduce is not equal.
B) There is variation in inherited traits.
C) Individuals who reproduce more leave more offspring.
D) The unequal ability to reproduce leads to the accumulation of favorable traits in a population.
B) There is a variation in inherited traits
42
Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are classified in the genus Loxodonta, and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which statement should be true?
A) Species X and Y are not related to species Z.
B) Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with species Z.
C) Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is alive today.
D) Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection.
B) Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with species Z
43
In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators of large, adult algae-eating fish (in other words, they locate their prey by sight). The population of algae-eaters experiences predatory pressure from pike-cichlids. Which of the following is least likely to result in the algae-eater population in future generations?
A) selection for drab coloration of the algae-eaters
B) selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night)
C) selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young
D) selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes
C) selection for lager female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young
44
Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should ________.
A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive
B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins
C) determine if hair length is heritable
D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate
C) determine if hair length is heritable
45
Fossils of Thrinaxodon, a species that lived during the Triassic period, have been found in both South Africa and Antarctica. Thrinaxodon had a reptile-like skeleton and laid eggs, but small depressions on the front of its skull suggest it had whiskers and, therefore, fur. Thrinaxodon may have been warm-blooded. The fossils of Thrinaxodon are consistent with the hypothesis that ________.
A) fossils found in a given area look like the modern species in that same area
B) the environment where it lived was very warm
C) mammals evolved from a reptilian ancestor
D) Antarctica and South Africa separated after Thrinaxodon went extinct
C) mammals evolved from a reptilian ancestor
46
Many crustaceans (for example, lobsters, shrimp, and crayfish) use their tails to swim, but crabs have reduced tails that curl under their shells and are not used in swimming. This is an example of ________.
A) convergent evolution
B) a homologous structure
C) natural selection
D) a vestigial trait
D) a vestigial trait
47
Scientific theories ________.
A) are nearly the same things as hypotheses
B) are supported by, and make sense of, many observations
C) cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once
D) are predictions of future events
B) are supported by, and make sense of, many observations
48
DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have prevented this evolution of DDT resistance in insect pests?
A) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time.
B) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.
C) None of the insect pests would have genetic variations that resulted in DDT resistance.
D) DDT application should have been continual.
C) None of the insect pests would have genetic variations that resulted in DDT resistance
49
If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would happen in environments that lack antibiotics?
A) These genes would be maintained in case the antibiotics appear.
B) These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.
C) These bacteria would try to make the cost worthwhile by locating and migrating to microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present.
D) The number of genes conveying antibiotic resistance would increase in these bacteria.
B) These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes
50
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the bones in the wing of a bird?
A) bones in the hind limb of a kangaroo
B) chitinous struts in the wing of a butterfly
C) bony rays in the tail fin of a flying fish
D) bones in the flipper of a whale
D) bones in the flipper of a whale
51
Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, which develop from similar embryonic tissues. These structural similarities are an example of ________.
A) homology
B) convergent evolution
C) the evolution of common structure as a result of common function
D) the evolution of similar appearance as a result of common function
A) homology
52
Over long periods of time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses?
A) Natural selection cannot account for losses, but accounts only for new structures and functions.
B) Natural selection accounts for these losses by the principle of use and disuse.
C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits.
D) The ancestors of these organisms experienced harmful mutations that forced them to lose these structures.
C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits
53
Which of the following evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? All organisms ________.
A) require energy
B) use essentially the same genetic code
C) reproduce
D) show heritable variation
B) use essentially the same genetic code
54
Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a
similar way to perform about the same function. Which of the following would suggest that the
relationship more likely represents homology instead of convergent evolution?
A) The two species live at great distance from each other.
B) The two species share many proteins.
C) The structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
D) Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.
B) The two species share many proteins
55
What must be true of any organ described as vestigial?
A) It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor.
C) It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
D) It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor
56
Pseudogenes are ________.
A) composed of RNA, rather than DNA
B) the same things as introns
C) unrelated genes that code for the same gene product
D) nonfunctional vestigial genes
D) nonfunctional vestigial genes
57
It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that ________.
A) island forms are descended from mainland forms
B) common environments are inhabited by the same organisms
C) island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools
D) the island forms and mainland forms are converging
A) island forms are descended from mainland forms
58
Given what we know about evolutionary biology, we expect to find the largest number of endemic species in which of the following geological features, which have existed for at least a few million years?
A) an isolated ocean island in the tropics
B) an extensive mountain range
C) a grassland in the center of a large continent, with extreme climatic conditions
D) a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast
A) an isolated ocean island in the tropics
59
The greatest number of endemic species is expected in environments that are ________.
A) easily reached and ecologically diverse
B) isolated and show little ecological diversity
C) isolated and ecologically diverse
D) easily reached and show little ecological diversity
B) isolated and show little ecological diversity
60
About thirteen different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the thirteen species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus
Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction?
A) They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea.
B) Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree
finch species.
C) They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree finches.
D) The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the
chances of hybridization between two tree finch species.
B) Their genomes should be more similar to each other than they share with the tree finches
61
The legless condition that is observed in several groups of extant reptiles is the result of ________.
A) their common ancestor having been legless
B) a shared adaptation to an arboreal (living in trees) lifestyle
C) several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other
D) individual lizards adapting to a fossorial (living in burrows) lifestyle during their lifetimes
C) several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other
62
The various taxonomic levels (for example, phyla, genera, classes) of the hierarchical classification system differ from each other on the basis of ________.
A) how widely the organisms assigned to each are distributed throughout the environment
B) their inclusiveness
C) the relative genome sizes of the organisms assigned to each
D) morphological characters that are applicable to all organisms
B) their inclusiveness
63
If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?
A) A and D
B) B and D
C) B and C
D) D and E
D) D and E
64
Carolus Linnaeus believed that species remained fixed in the form in which they had been created. Linnaeus would have been uncomfortable with ________.
A) a hierarchical classification scheme
B) taxonomy
C) phylogenies
D) nested, increasingly inclusive categories of organisms
C) phylogenies
65
The best classification system is that which most closely ________.
A) unites organisms that possess similar morphologies
B) conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices
C) reflects evolutionary history
D) reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes
C) reflects evolutionary history
66
Some beetles and flies have antler-like structures on their heads, much like male deer. The existence of antlers in beetle, fly, and deer species with strong male-male competition is an example of ________.
A) convergent evolution
B) similarity due to shared ancestry
C) homology
D) parsimony
A) convergent evolution
67
The term convergent evolution is most applicable to which of the following features?
A) the legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards
B) the five-digit condition of human hands and bat wings
C) the fur that covers Australian moles and North American moles
D) the bones of bat forelimbs and the bones of bird forelimbs
A) the legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards
68
If, someday, an archaean cell is discovered whose rRNA sequence is more similar to that of humans than the sequence of mouse rRNA is to that of humans, the best explanation for this apparent discrepancy would be ________.
A) homology
B) convergent evolution
C) common ancestry
D) retro-evolution by humans
B) convergent evolution
69
Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous structures?
A) eyelessness in the Australian mole and eyelessness in the North American mole
B) owl wing and hornet wing
C) bat wing and bird wing
D) bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
D) bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
70
Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). If the molecular data best reflect the evolutionary history of these two groups, then the morphological similarities of these two species is most likely due to ________.
A) the inheritance of acquired characteristics
B) sexual selection
C) possession of analogous (convergent) traits
D) possession of shared primitive characters
C) possession of analogous (convergent) traits
71
The importance of computers and of computer software to modern systematics is most closely linked to advances in ________.
A) light microscopy
B) radiometric dating
C) fossil discovery techniques
D) molecular genetics
D) molecular genetics
72
The common ancestors of birds and mammals were very early (stem) reptiles, which almost certainly possessed three-chambered hearts (two atria, one ventricle). Birds and mammals, however, are alike in having four-chambered hearts (two atria, two ventricles). The four-chambered hearts of birds and mammals are best described as ________.
A) structural homologies
B) vestiges
C) structural analogies
D) the result of shared ancestry
C) structural analogies
73
Imagine that a phylogeny was developed for a group of mammals based on bone structure. Which of the following statements would be a reasonable prediction about a phylogeny for the same group of species based on similarities and differences in the structure of a particular enzyme?
A) The same phylogeny would be unlikely.
B) The same phylogeny would be predicted.
C) No prediction could be made.
D) The amino acid sequence would be identical in all species.
A) The same phylogeny would be unlikely
74
Which of the following would be most useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a taxon?
A) morphological data from fossil and living species
B) a knowledge of color patterns in fossil and living species
C) a knowledge of mutation rates in modern species
D) morphological data from fossil species
D) morphological data from fossil species
75
Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids. She gives you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily. What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily?
A) to serve as an outgroup
B) to see if the lily is a cryptic orchid species
C) to see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters
D) to demonstrate likely homoplasies
A) to serve as an outgroup
76
Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for applying the principle of maximum parsimony in constructing phylogenetic trees?
A) Parsimony allows the researcher to "root" the tree.
B) Similarity due to common ancestry should be more common than similarity due to convergent evolution.
C) The molecular clock validates the principle of parsimony.
D) The outgroup roots the tree, allowing the principle of parsimony to be applied
B) Similarity due to common ancestry should be more common than similarity due to convergent evolution
77
Which of the following statements is accurate with regard to a phylogeny, as represented by a phylogenetic tree?
A) Descendant groups (branches) from the same node likely share many derived characters.
B) A monophyletic group can be properly based on convergent features.
C) The ancestral group often has all the derived characters of the descendant species.
D) Shared ancestral characters are excellent traits to use in developing a phylogeny.
A) Descendant groups (branches) from the same node likely share many derived characters
78
Which of the following is (are) problematic when the goal is to construct phylogenies that accurately reflect evolutionary history?
A) polyphyletic taxa
B) paraphyletic taxa
C) monophyletic taxa
D) polyphyletic taxa and paraphyletic taxa
D) polyphyletic taxa and paraphyletic taxa
79
Phylogenetic trees constructed from evidence from molecular systematics are based on similarities in ________.
A) morphology
B) the pattern of embryological development
C) biochemical pathways
D) mutations to homologous genes
D) mutations to homologous genes
80
There is some evidence that reptiles called cynodonts may have had whisker-like hairs around their mouths. If true, then hair is a shared ________.
A) derived character of mammals, even if cynodonts continue to be classified as reptiles
B) derived character of all vertebrates and not of the mammal clade
C) ancestral character of the all vertebrates, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals
D) derived character of mammals, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals
D) derived character of mammals, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals
81
In a comparison of birds and mammals, having four limbs is ________.
A) a shared ancestral character
B) a shared derived character
C) a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals
D) an example of analogy rather than homology
A) a shared ancestral character
82
To apply the principle of maximum parsimony to construction of a phylogenetic tree, ________.
A) choose the tree that assumes all evolutionary changes are equally probable
B) choose the tree in which the branch points are based on as many shared derived characters as possible
C) choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, either in DNA sequences or morphology
D) choose the tree with the fewest branch points
C) choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, either in DNAA sequences or morphology
83
If you were using cladistics to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, which of the following would be the best outgroup?
A) lion
B) domestic cat
C) wolf
D) leopard
C) wolf
84
Concerning growth in genome size over evolutionary time, which of these is least associated with the others?
A) orthologous genes
B) gene duplications
C) paralogous genes
D) gene families
A) orthologous genes
85
Eukaryotes that are not closely related and that do not share many anatomical similarities can still be placed together on the same phylogenetic tree by comparing their ________.
A) plasmids
B) mitochondrial genomes
C) homologous genes that are poorly conserved
D) homologous genes that are highly conserved
D) homologous genes that are highly conserved
86
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of ________.
A) archaeans and bacteria
B) fungi and animals
C) chimpanzees and humans
D) sharks and dolphins
C) chimpanzees and humans
87
The lakes of northern Minnesota are home to many similar species of damselflies of the genus Enallagma. These species have apparently undergone speciation from ancestral stock since the last glacial retreat about 10 thousand years ago. Sequencing which of the following would probably be most useful in sorting out evolutionary relationships among these closely related species?
A) conserved regions of nuclear DNA
B) mitochondrial DNA
C) amino acids in proteins
D) ribosomal RNA
B) mitochondrial DNA
88
Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology? Dogs and wolves ________.
A) have very similar morphologies
B) belong to the same order
C) are both members of the order Carnivora
D) share a very recent common ancestor
D) share a very recent common ancestor
89
The reason that paralogous genes can diverge from each other within the same gene pool, whereas orthologous genes diverge only after gene pools are isolated from each other, is that ________.
A) having multiple copies of genes is essential for the occurrence of sympatric speciation in the wild
B) paralogous genes can occur only in diploid species, thus they are absent from most prokaryotes
C) polyploidy is a necessary precondition for the occurrence of sympatric speciation in the wild
D) having an extra copy of a gene permits modifications to the copy without loss of the original gene product
D) having an extra copy of a gene permits modifications to the copy without loss of the original gene product
90
The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is ________.
A) a large number of base pairs
B) being acted upon by natural selection
C) a reliable average rate of mutation
D) a recent origin by a gene-duplication event
C) a reliable average rate of mutation
91
Molecular clocks are more reliable when ________.
A) the surrounding pH is close to 7.0
B) most mutations of highly conserved DNA sequences should have no functional effect
C) the DNA codes for amino acid sequences whose side groups (or R groups) have a neutral pH
D) a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection
D) a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection
92
Which of the following would, if it had acted upon a gene, prevent this gene from acting as a reliable molecular clock?
A) neutral mutations
B) genetic drift
C) mutations within introns
D) natural selection
D) natural selection
93
Based on cladistics, which eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and, therefore, unacceptable?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
D) Protista
94
Which eukaryotic kingdom includes members that are the result of endosymbioses that included an ancient aerobic bacterium and an ancient cyanobacterium?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
A) Plantae
95
A large proportion of archaeans are extremophiles, so called because they inhabit extreme environments with high acidity, salinity, and/or temperature. Such environments are thought to have been much more common on primitive Earth. Thus, modern extremophiles survive only in places that their ancestors became adapted to long ago. Which of the following is, consequently, a valid statement about modern extremophiles, assuming that their habitats have remained relatively unchanged?
A) Among themselves, they should share relatively few ancestral traits, especially those that enabled ancestral forms to adapt to extreme conditions.
B) On a phylogenetic tree whose branch lengths are proportional to the amount of genetic change, the branches of the extremophiles should be shorter than the non-extremophilic archaeans.
C) They should contain genes that originated in eukaryotes that are the hosts for numerous species of bacteria.
D) They should currently be undergoing a high level of horizontal gene transfer with non-extremophilic archaeans.
B) On a phylogenetic tree whose branch lengths are proportional to the amount of genetic change, the branches of the extremophiles should be shorter than the non-extremophilic archaeans.
96
Use the following information to answer the question.
Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated "chromatophores." The chromatophores are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.A crucial photosynthetic gene of the cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chromatophore is called psaE. This gene is present in the nuclear genome of the cercozoan, but is not in the genome of the chromatophore. This is evidence of ________.
A) reciprocal mutations in the chromatophore and nuclear genomes
B) horizontal gene transfer from bacterium to eukaryotes
C) genetic recombination involving a protist and an archaean
D) transduction by a phage that infects both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
B) horizontal gene transfer from bacterium to eukaryotes
97
What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?
A) mtDNA
B) rRNA genes
C) morphological
D) ecological
B) rRNA genes
98
Which of the following statements is accurate, at least according to our present knowledge?
A) Eukaryotes acquired nuclear genes only in the distant past; these genes can allow survival in anaerobic environments.
B) Genes from prokaryotes have been acquired by some eukaryotes; these genes can allow survival in extreme environments.
C) Prokaryotes acquired genes from eukaryotes many times; these genes can allow survival in extreme environments.
D) Prokaryotes acquired genes from fungi; these genes can allow the digestion of cellulose.
B) Genes from prokaryotes have been acquired by some eukaryotes; these genes can allow survival in extreme environments
99
If additional DNA sequence evidence shows that yeast genes for synthesizing proteins are more similar to protein-synthesizing genes in bacteria than those in archaea, a modern
systematist would ________.
A) redraw the phylogeny to show eukaryotes sharing a more recent common ancestor with bacteria than archaea
B) redraw the phylogeny to show more recent common ancestry between archaea and yeast than between eukaryotes and archaea
C) retain the phylogeny that shows a more recent common ancestor between eukaryotes and archaea
D) retain the phylogeny that shows a more recent common ancestor between bacteria and archaea
A) redraw the phylogeny to show eukaryotes sharing a more recent common ancestor with bacteria than archaea
100
Which of the following statements about horizontal gene transfer is accurate?
A) Horizontal gene transfer was quite common in the early stages of evolution of life on Earth.
B) Horizontal gene transfer among organisms does not occur today.
C) Horizontal gene transfer moves only genes that play a role in metabolism.
D) Horizontal gene transfer occurs only among closely related organisms.
A) Horizontal gene transfer was quite common in the early stages of evolution of life on Earth
101
The kingdom Monera was dismantled because of which of the following reasons?
A) Some Monera contained nuclei in their cells.
B) The Monera, as originally constituted, contained both plants and animals.
C) The Monera, as originally constituted, was monophyletic.
D) Some, but not all, of the organisms in Monera contained DNA sequences that were similar to those of eukaryotes
D) Some, but not all, of the organisms in Monera contained DNA sequences that were similar to those of eukaryotes
102
If you pound a nail into a tree 1 meter off the ground and come back to find it in 25 years, it will be _____
A. 1 meter off the ground and more deeply embedded in the tree.
B. more than 1 meter off the ground and more deeply embedded in the tree.
C. more than 1 meter off the ground and the same depth in the tree.
D. 1 meter off the ground and the same depth in the tree.
E. less than 1 meter off the ground but at the same depth in the tree.
A
103
Suppose S. Duterte completely removed the bark from around one meter above the base of a mango tree but was stopped by her father. The leaves retained their normal appearance for several weeks, but the tree eventually died. The tissue(s) that S. Duterte left functional was (were) the _____.
A. phloem
B. cortex
C. companion and sieve-tube members
D. xylem
E. cork cambium
D.
104
The vascular system of a three-year-old eudicot stem consists of
A. 3 rings of xylem and 3 of phloem.
B. 2 rings of xylem and 1 of phloem.
C. 2 rings of xylem and 2 of phloem.
D. 3 rings of xylem and 2 of phloem.
E. 3 rings of xylem and 1 of phloem
E
105
For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship.
(A) the number of vessel elements in a eudicot root cap
(B) the number of vessel elements in a eudicot stem
A. Item (A) is less than item (B).
B. there is no relationship between the pair of items
C. Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B).
D. Item (A) may stand in more than one relations to item (B).
E. Item (A) is greater than item (B).
A
106
_______ is the white blood cell that gives rise to macrophages while _______ is the mature white blood cell that produces antibodies
A. Lymphocyte; mast cell
B. Lymphocyte; plasma cell
C. Monocyte; mast cell
D. Monocyte; plasma cell
E. Eosinophil; basophil
D
107
Given the following:
1. Position of nucleus/nuclei
2. Number/s of nucleus/nuclei
3. Type of control
4. Presence of striations
Which criterion/criteria is/are used to distinguish cardiac from skeletal muscles?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 2 & 3 only
E. 1 & 4 only
A.
108
Given the following:
I - the number of neuroglial cells in the brain tissue
II - the number of nerve cells in the brain tissue
A. II is greater than I
B. I is not related to II
C. I is equal to II
D. I is greater than II
E. I is in several relationships to II
D
109
How can squamous epithelium, which have a high surface area to volume ratio both facilitate diffusion and prevent damage from abrasion?
A. Single layer of squamous epithelia facilitate gas, nutrient or waste exchange whereas stratified layers provide protection and are replaceable following damage
B. Single layer of squamous epithelia facilitate only exchange of gases by diffusion whereas stratified layers provide protection and are replaceable following damage
C. Single layer of squamous epithelia facilitate gas, nutrient or waste exchange whereas stratified layers provide protection and are not replaceable following damage
D. Stratified layer of squamous epithelia facilitate gas, nutrient or waste exchange whereas single layer provide protection and are replaceable following damage
A
110
Stomata are usually found in higher numbers on the abaxial surface of a leaf. Demonstrate why this is the case by explaining the advantage of such an arrangement.
A. The abaxial surface receives more sunlight and water evaporates faster by transpiration
B. The adaxial surface receives more sunlight and water evaporates faster by transpiration
C. Presence of stomata on the abaxial surface ensures that no or very little water is lost due to guttation
D. Herbivores are more likely to not eat leaves with stomata on the abaxial surface
B
111
Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?
A. collenchyma
B. meristems
C. parenchyma
D. sclerenchyma
D
112
Which cells are no longer capable of carrying out the process of DNA transcription?
A. xylem parenchyma and tracheids
B. xylem parenchyma and vessels
C. xylem and sieve tube elements
D. companion cells and sieve tube elements
C
113
Given:
I - the velocity of nerve impulse in naked axon
II - the velocity of nerve impulse in myelinated axon
A. I is greater than II
B. I is not related to II
C. II is greater than I
D. I is equal to II
C
114
Columnar epithelial cells, which are typically found in a single layer arrangement, are found along the digestive tract. What is the role of the columnar epithelial cells in digestion
A. Columnar epithelial cells secrete enzymes like salivary enzymes like ptyalin which aid in digestion by the breakdown of carbohydrates in the body
B. Columnar epithelial cells secrete mucus for lubrication as well as anti microbial agents in the digestive tract
C. Columnar epithelial cells help in the propulsion of food by peristalsis in the digestive tract of the body
D. Columnar epithelial cells absorb material from the lumen of the digestive tract to prepare the material for entry into the body
D
115
In vertebrates cartilage is found in fetal bone, ears, and intervertebral discs, whereas bone is found in the skeleton. What are the similarities between cartilage and bone?
A. Both are types of connective tissues in the body that have originated from the endoderm
B. Both consists of bone marrow and have organic matrix material that provides strength and flexibility
C. Both are types of connective tissues in the body and cells of both are known as chondrocytes
D. Both are types of connective tissues in the body and have organic matrix material that provides strength and flexibility
D
116
Given the following, classify the goblet cell.
1. unicellular gland
2. multicellular gland
3. mucus secreting
4. serous secreting
5. holocrine
6. merocrine
7. apocrine
A. 1, 3, 5
B. 1, 3, 6
C. 1, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 6
B
117
Which of the following statements about hormones that promote homeostasis is incorrect?
A. A stimulus causes an endocrine cell to secrete a particular hormone.
B. The hormone travels in the bloodstream to target cells.
C. Specific receptors bind with the hormone.
D. This response feeds back to promote the release of more hormone.
E. Signal transduction brings about a response in the target cell.
D
118
Which of the following statements about the adrenal gland is correct?
A. At all times, the anterior portion secretes ACTH, while the posterior portion secretes oxytocin
B. At all times, the adrenal gland monitors calcium levels in the blood and regulates calcium by secreting the two antagonistic hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
C. During stress, TSH stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to secrete acetylcholine.
D. During stress, the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta cells of the islets secrete glucagon.
E. During stress, ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla.
E
119
The same hormone has considerably different effects in different species. The hormone thyroxine in humans, for example stimulates metabolism, but in frogs it induces metamorphism from tadpole to adult frog. Why?
A. The structure of protein receptors in the target tissues differ.
B. The chemical composition of the hormone is actually slightly different.
C. The chemical structure of the hormone will result to signal transduction pathway at the target cell.
D. The origin of the hormone makes a difference in the effect the hormone has on target tissues.
E. Metamorphosis is caused by a change in body metabolism.
A
120
Which of the following is not part of homeostasis promotion or maintenance?
A. Secretin promotes an increase in the pH of the duodenum.
B. Signal transduction brings about a response in the target cell.
C. A hormone is involved in a positive feedback loop.
D. A stimulus causes an endocrine cell to secrete a particular hormone, which decreases the stimulus.
E. A hormone acts in an antagonistic way with another hormone.
C
121
Which of the following statements about hormones is correct?
A. Steroid hormones affect the synthesis of proteins to be exported from the cell, whereas peptide hormones affect the synthesis of proteins that remain in the cell.
B. Steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA.
C. Steroid and peptide hormones produce different effects but use the same biochemical mechanisms.
D. Steroid and peptide hormones produce the same effects but differ in the mechanisms that produce the effects.
E. Steroid hormones affect the synthesis of proteins, whereas peptide hormones affect the activity of proteins already present in the cell.
E
122
Congenital hypothyroidism is the severe deficiency of thyroid hormone in newborns. Since this hormone sends a negative feedback to the hypothalamus, what do you expect the hypothalamus and pituitary gland response to be? What will be the expected levels of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?
A. Increased TRH and increased TSH levels
B. Decreased TRH and increased TSH levels
C. Decreased TRH and decreased TSH levels
D. Increased TRH and decreased TSH levels
E. No effect on the TRH and TSH levels
A
123
Action of parathormone in response to low calcium levels includes all of the following except
A. Stimulates conversion of vitamin D in the kidney
B. Increases calcium & phosphate reabsorption in the intestines
C. Increases calcium reabsorption
D. Increases bone resorption
E. Increases phosphate reabsorption
E
124
Responses of body’s effectors to high temperature include
A. Contraction of arrector pili muscle
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Adrenal glands secrete adrenaline
D. Vasodilation
E. Goose bumps
D
125
All of the following help regulate blood glucose level except
A. Glucagon stimulates the conversion of glycogen to glucose
B. Insulin promotes conversion of glucose to glycogen
C. Glucagon stimulates the conversion of pyruvic acid to glucose
D. Insulin promotes conversion of pyruvic acid to glucose
E. Insulin promotes conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
D
126
Diuretics like coffee, tea and alcoholic beverages result to increase urine output. This is attributed to
A. more water is reabsorbed from the urine
B. opening of aquaporin channels at the collecting ducts
C. decrease secretion of vasopressin
D. low blood water potential
E. increase secretion of ADH
C
127
Which of the following statements about plant hormones is false?
A. Cytokinins promote cell division.
B. Gibberellins stimulate cell enlargement.
C. Abscisic acid generally promotes growth.
D. Ethylene contributes to the aging of plants.
E. The growth of plants in nature is probably regulated by a combination of growth-stimulating and growth-inhibiting hormones.
C
128
Cells elongate in response to auxin. All of the following are part of the acid growth hypothesis except
A. The turgor pressure of the cell exceeds the restraining pressure of the loosened cell wall, and the cell takes up water and elongates.
B. Auxin stimulates proton pumps in cell membranes.
C. Lowered pH results in the breakage of cross-links between cellulose microfibrils.
D. The wall fabric becomes looser (more plastic).
E. Auxin-activated proton pumps stimulate cell division in meristems.
E
129
You are part of a desert plant research team trying to discover crops that will be productive in arid climates. You discover a plant that produces a guard cell hormone under water-deficit conditions. Most likely the hormone is
A. salicylic acid.
B. 2, 4-D.
C. IAA.
D. ABA.
E. GA.
D
130
Why do coleoptiles grow toward light?
A. Gibberellins are destroyed by light.
B. Auxin moves away from the light to the shady side.
C. Gibberellins move away from the light to the shady side.
D. Auxin synthesis is stimulated in the dark.
E. Auxin is destroyed by light.
B
131
Cutting the sweet potato tops or shoot apices (talbos) result to bushy camote plant. This is attributed to _____________ due to the hormone ______________
A. lateral growth; gibberellin
B. lateral growth; cytokinin
C. apical dominance; auxin
D. lateral growth; auxin
E. apical dominance; gibberellin
C
132
Annual plants like rice, corn, banana illustrate which of the following?
A. semelparous
B. emigration
C. dispersion
D. iteroparous
E. cohort
A
133
A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?
I. inhabiting the same general area
II. individuals belonging to the same species
III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion
A. I, II, III are all correct
B. II and III only
C. None of the choices is correct
D. I and II only
E. I and III only
D
134
A populationʹs carrying capacity
A. may change as environmental conditions change.
B. increases as growth rate decreases.
C. generally remains constant over time.
D. can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model.
E. increases as growth rate increases.
A
135
Which of the following characterizes relatively r - selected populations?
A. intensive parenting
B. few offspring
C. slow maturation
D. a high intrinsic rate of increase
E. offspring with good chances of survival
D
136
Consider several human populations of equal size and net reproductive rate, but different in age structure. The population that is likely to grow the most during the next 30 years is the one with the greatest fraction of people in which age range?
A. 30 to 40 years
B. 10 to 20 years
C. 40 to 50 years
D. 20 to 30 years
E. 50 to 60 years
B
137
This project hopes to solve Metro Manila’s water requirements but will lead to environmental destruction and the displacement of indigenous peoples in more than 230 hectares of the Sierra Madre mountain range.
A. Kaliwa Dam Project
B. Angat Dam Expansion Project
C. Chico River Project
D. Kanan Dam Project
E. Angat-Ipo-La Mesa Dam system,
A
138
Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?
A. Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.
B. Evolution tends to increase competition between related species.
C. Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
D. The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
E. Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
A
139
Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees?
A. protocooperation
B. facilitation
C. commensalism
D. parasitism
E. mutualism
D
140
Which of the following examples best describes an ecological community?
A. The interactions of all the plant and animal species inhabiting a 2 hectare forest.
B. The intraspecific competition of members of a goby population inhabiting a stream during a given year.
C. The material cycling and energy transformations between the biotic and abiotic components of a grassland.
D. The various species of Mytilus competing for resources in an intertidal zone.
E. The interactions of the various plant and animal species of park, excepting the decomposers.
A.
141
Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they
A. reduce the number of disruptions in the community.
B. allow immigration of other predators.
C. competitively exclude other predators.
D. prey on the communityʹs dominant species.
E. prey only on the least abundant species in the community.
D
142
What is the most important role of photosynthetic organisms in an ecosystem?
A. recycling energy from other tropic levels
B. absorbing solar radiation
C. producing organic detritus for decomposers
D. converting inorganic compounds into organic compounds
E. dissipating heat
D
143
A secondary consumer, such as a snake, receives what percent of the energy fixed by primary producers in a typical field ecosystem?
A. 0.01%
B. 0.1%
C. 1%
D. 90%
E. 10%
C
144
Which of the following is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into the Laguna de Bay?
A. turnover
B. greenhouse effect
C. biological magnification
D. eutrophication
E. depletion of atmospheric ozone
D
145
This is National Geographic’s global initiative aimed at raising awareness about the crisis to reduce the amount of single-use plastic reaching the ocean.
A. The “Ocean Cleanup” project
B. The “Planet Soup” project
C. The “Planet or Plastic?” exhibition
D. The “Planet Plastic” exhibition
E. The "Planet Earth" project
C
146
You have a friend who lost 7 kg (about 15 pounds) of fat on a ʺlow carbʺ diet. How did the fat leave her body?
A. It was released as CO2 and H2O.
B. It was converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat.
C. It was converted to urine and eliminated from the body.
D. It was broken down to amino acids and eliminated from the body.
E. Chemical energy was converted to heat and then released.
A
