cumulative quizzes and cases Flashcards
our client, Alice, owns the following four different diversified mutual funds:
Growth fund $45,000
Emerging market fund$14,000
Government bond fund $50,000
Corporate bond fund$35,000
Alice is concerned about overall portfolio risk. She is concerned about standard deviation and other factors. Due to a recent inheritance, she has additional money to invest. To which among her currently held mutual funds do you suggest she add money?
The emerging market fund currently represents is the smallest percentage of the portfolio allocation and likely has the lowest correlation coefficient relative to the other funds. Reducing correlation coefficient would reduce the portfolio’s overall risk. The correlation coefficient to be highly important for the exam. (Somewhat subjective.)
When, if ever, can a corporation that issues qualified stock options (ISOs) receive a tax deduction for the ISOs?
A.Never
B. Always
C. Yes, if the ISO is disqualified
D. Yes, if the ISO is qualified
E. Yes, if no more than $100,000 worth of ISO stock is granted that vests in a specific year
Yes, if the ISO is disqualified
The correct answer is C.
If the stock that was acquired under the option (right to buy) is sold before the two year /one year holding period, the excess of the fair market value of the shares at the time of exercise over the exercise price is treated as compensation to the option holder. That creates a corresponding deduction for the issuing corporation
ou are a CFP ® certificant. Your client, Sam Watson is confused by the menu of “K plan” alternatives [401(k) type plans] offered by his employer, Fleopatra Medicated Dog Shampoos, Inc. Which of the following can you accurately share with Sam about differences between these plans?
I. For traditional and safe harbor 401(k) plans, elective deferral contributions are limited to $20,500 in 2022; for SIMPLE 401(k) arrangement, the maximum elective deferral is $14,000.
II. Traditional 401(k) plans must pass both the ADP and ACP tests; Alternatively, SIMPLE or safe harbor 401(k) plans require contributions at a level that is deemed to satisfy the nondiscrimination requirement.
III. In Traditional 401(k) plans the employer has the option of not providing matching contributions; safe harbor 401(k) plans are generally required to provide a matching contribution that is equivalent to 4% of participant compensation; SIMPLE 401(k) plans can satisfy requirements with a 3% match.
IV. Traditional 401(k) plans can permit a vesting schedule for matching contributions; SIMPLE and safe harbor plans must provide 100 % immediately.
All the statements are true. Where does the 4% safe harbor come from? The statutory contribution using a match is $1/$1 on the first 3% employee deferral and $.50/$1 on the next 2% employee deferral 3% + 1/2 of 2% is 4%. Please reference the prestudy for information. It’s a picky question - answer.
Following the death of the grantor (trustmaker) which of the following strategies should be the most effective to reduce GSTT?
A. An irrevocable trust
B. A revocable trust
C. A reverse QTIP
D. A dynasty trust
C
The decedent can still use the GSTT exemption when the reverse QTIP is elected by the executor (after death). The dynasty trust is generally implemented before death.
The CFP Board urges certificants to avoid the practice of borrowing from or lending to clients. Which of the following factors would generally be considered by the Board of Professional Review?
I. Whether the CFP® certificant is a financial planning practitioner
II. Whether the client is a family member of the planner or a financial institution
III. Whether the terms and conditions of the loan are reasonable and fair to the client
IV. Whether the client lent from his/her own account
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. II, III
D. III, IV
E. All of the above
B. II, III, IV
Borrowing and lending between the planner and clients who are not family members can compromise the financial planning relationship.
Todd wants to defer the distributions from the money purchase plan in which he participates for as long as possible. He works for RJ, Inc. RJ wants him to continue working for it beyond the plan’s stated retirement age 65. If he continues to work beyond 72 and contribute to the plan, what is the latest time when he can take his first distribution and not be penalized?
A. When he attains age 72
B. By April 1st of the year after he turns 72
C. When he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
D. By April 1st of the year following the year when he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
D. By April 1st of the year following the year when he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
Todd is a rank-and file-participant in the money purchase plan and clearly not a 5% owner. Thus, he may delay his required beginning date (RBD) from the plan until April 1 of the year following the year when he retires from service with this employer.
When you met with John and Jodi Adams for your regular monitoring meeting, they provided you with information about new developments in their lives. After you congratulate them they ask you to help them prioritize the reasons for making changes to the original financial plan that you wrote for them. How would you rank the changes listed below in order of importance from highest to lowest?
- They inherited money from Jody’s mother
- Jody is expecting a second child in 2 months
- John just received new job promotion which entails a move to an adjacent state (50 miles away).
- The adjacent state has a high state income tax
They are already in order :)
Identify the most important and the least important reasons to modify the original plan. The Adams’s will need a plan for the inherited money. The state level income tax differential is likely to be small. If the Adams’s itemize, it may produce an itemized deduction. Because the new baby is a second child, they have already considered the financial planning that accompanies parenting. (In ranking questions, identifying the “most” and “least” generally leads you to the answer: The middle choices are often too similar to differentiate.
John Jefferson has a current net worth of $10 million. When John’s wife died 5 years ago, on her death bed, she made John promise that he would cater to their son, John Jr.’s wants and needs under all circumstances. John is dismayed that Junior never made it past his sophomore year of college ultimately flunking out. Junior has not been able to keep a job. Now, at age 30, Junior has decided at to go back to that same college to complete his degree. Under its liberalized admissions policy, the school has agreed to his re-enrollment. At this point in time, which among the strategies below would you recommend that John Sr. implement for Junior’s education costs?
John Jefferson Sr. can l pay the full tuition (exempt gift) for Junior as long as the check is made out to the school. He may also gift $16,000 for other college expenses. John made a promise. There is not enough time to make the tax deferral associated with the 529 plan meaningful. The Coverdell ESA requires distribution when the beneficiary attains age 30 and Junior is already that age. A 2503(b) trust only distributes income, it may not be enough to cover Junior’s college costs.
Dennis Hart explains to you that he wants a reasonable level of income but also some long-term growth. If you believe that he can address both of his investment objectives, which of the following securities would you suggest to Dennis?
A. Convertible bonds
B. Preferred stocks
C. Blue chip stocks
D. Corporate commercial paper
A. Convertible bonds
Most logical investors will accept a lower interest rate in exchange for the potential price appreciation from converting the bond if the prices of the issuers’ stocks rise above the bond’s conversion price. Preferred stock is regarded as a fixed income investment with little growth potential. Many blue-chip stocks distribute small dividends and they can be skipped in a profit-less year.
Smokestack Inc. voluntarily terminated its defined benefit plan. Your client, Homer Connors, age 61, has been a long-time employee of Smokestack, Inc. and a participant in this pension. The “termination” has made Homer quite anxious. What might you tell Homer that may make him feel less anxious?
A. The 10% penalty (59½ year rule) will not apply to distributions.
B. The account balance must be rolled over into an IRA account.
C. Homer is 100% vested.
D. The plan is fully funded. There is no need to worry.
The correct answer is C.
The 10% penalty will not be imposed on Homer because he is over age 59½ and is a possible answer. The plan is fully funded at normal retirement age, not necessarily at a premature termination. Homer would get the account balance that is attributable to him and be fully vested.
Mrs. Smith, age 80, is comparing different investment portfolios. The thought of losing principal makes her very uncomfortable. While she would appreciate some income from her investments, that is a secondary concern. After listening to her carefully, which of the following portfolios would you suggest?
A. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% long-term bonds
B. 50% bank issued CDs, 50% long-term investment grade corporate bonds
C. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% investment grade short-term bonds
D. 10% money market mutual funds, 40% bank issued CDs, 50% investment grade long-term bonds
C. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% investment grade short-term bonds
Due to their high durations, the long-term bonds carry significant principal risk if interest rates rise. The short-term bonds (80%) along with only 10% in quality common stock seems reasonable given her fear of principal loss and desire for income.
Bill, a CPA, charges his clients a fee when he prepares their income tax returns. If the client is in a high tax bracket, he advises them to invest in municipal bonds and tax deferred annuities. Which of the following should Bill do?
A. Register as an investment advisor
B. Obtain a securities license (series 7)
C. Do both A and B
D. Continue to make investment suggestions when appropriate.
D. Continue to make investment suggestions when appropriate.
The advice is incidental to the CPA’s occupation. He isn’t selling any products (prepares taxes)
Te following irrevocable trusts are producing annual income. From which of the trusts below will the income not be taxable to the grantor?
A. Trust income is retained to discharge a legal obligation of the grantor.
B. Trust income is retained then used to pay premiums on life insurance on the life of the grantor.
C. Trust income is distributed to the grantor for 5 years, and then distributed to another trust beneficiary.
D. Trust income is distributed to the grantor until death, and then distributed to the other trust beneficiary(s).
E. Trust income is accumulated for later distribution to the other trust beneficiary(s).
E. Trust income is accumulated for later distribution to the other trust beneficiary(s).
The income will be taxed to the trust. The grantor has no beneficial enjoyment. The other answers violate the grantor trust rules that make the income taxable to the grantor.
CFP® certificant offers advice on specific mutual funds and charges a fee for this advice. Which of the following is true?
A. The CFP® certificant can distribute a business card printed with both CFP® and RIA following her name.
B. If the CFP® certificant is securities licensed (Series 7), the licensee will not have to register as a registered investment adviser.
C. If the CFP® certificant is an Investment Adviser Representative, then the licensee will not have to register individually.
D. The CFP® certificant will not have to complete additional registrations.
C. If the CFP® certificant is an Investment Adviser Representative, then the licensee will not have to register individually.
The CFP ®certificant will have to register individually as an adviser or as an Investment Adviser Associate through an advisory firm.
Harry and Pat Nelson (highest tax bracket, married, filing jointly) have a daughter, Pam age 12. As of today they have failed to save for Pam to attend a 4-year university. Under the circumstances, which of the following investments makes the most sense and why?
A.
A series of taxable zero coupon bonds owned by Pam (UTMA account) because they can provide the right amount of money when it will be needed and would be taxed at Pam’s tax rate
B. A S&P 500 Index fund owned by Pam (UTMA account) because it generally provides the highest inflation-adjusted return and is taxed at long-term capital gains rates
C. A series of laddered CDs owned by Harry and Pat because they can provide appropriate funds at correct times and have virtually no principal risk.
D. A single premium variable life insurance policy on Pam’s life because growth is tax-deferred and Pam can remove funds as needed for college through policy loans.
B. A S&P 500 Index fund owned by Pam (UTMA account) because it generally provides the highest inflation-adjusted return and is taxed at long-term capital gains rates
Consider the relatively short time horizon. The time horizon for this question could be 6-10 years. Also consider the advantage to paying low taxes. The S&P 500 index fund will be tax efficient and probably grow. Yes, kiddie tax could apply, but the ultimate tax rate would be a maximum of 20% (dividends and capital gains) rather than as ordinary income.
Answer A is wrong because the zero coupon bonds produce phantom income. You may have picked A as an answer. NOTE: I think that if the time horizon to college was 4 years, then A or C could have worked. This is the best answer and somewhat subjective.
Answer C is wrong because the CD earnings will be taxed at parents rates rather than Pam’s over $2,200.
Answer D is wrong because distributions will be taxable (MEC) and subject to a 10% penalty.
2:1 stock split
twice as many shares
Sally donates several bags of old clothes to the Salvation Army. Which statement below best reflects the documentation that Sally would need in order to claim a charitable income tax deduction?
A. Deduction of up to $250 does not require a receipt.
B. Deduction of $250 but less than $1,000 must be documented.
C. The deduction is the lesser of fair market value or the donor’s basis (substantiated).
D. The deduction is limited to basis (unsubstantiated).
C. The deduction is the lesser of fair market value or the donor’s basis (substantiated).
For charitable gifts of less than $250, a dated receipt is proof for purposes of an income tax deduction. The receipt should c include a description of the property. A written receipt would list the items donated with a corresponding value. Sally should keep records showing the fair market value and her cost basis. For charitable gifts exceeding $250 Sally must substantiate the deduction by written acknowledgement from the charity. Cash donations up to $300 single/$600 joint do not have to be documented for 2021 if you take the standard deduction.
IRA and AGI
deductible, but look at income phase out
Paul Harding, CFP® has been traveling often to see his elderly mother whose health is failing. With each trip, he is not sure how long he will be away. He recently completed writing a plan for Mr. and Mrs. Walters, who are new clients. The Walters are very eager to get their plan underway and call often for a presentation/recommendation appointment. After briefing an intern on the plan he wrote for the Walters, Harding tells the intern to set up an appointment with the Walters and tells the intern to present the plan. In this situation, which action applies to Harding?
A. Harding violated the Duty of Confidentiality under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
B. Harding violated the Duty of Professionalism under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
C. Harding violated the Duty to comply with the law under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
D. Harding Adhered to the CFP ®Code of Ethics.
B. Harding violated the Duty of Professionalism under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
Allowing an intern to present a plan to clients without supervision clearly violates the Duty of Professionalism. Sharing information within a firm generally does not violate the Confidentiality Principle if it is necessary for a business reason and all parties understand that client confidentiality is still honored beyond that the firm. For example, a planner assigning an assistant to enter client data into financial planning software would not violate confidentiality.
If a taxpayer is subject to AMT, which of the following could reduce the AMT payable?
I. Exercise nonqualified stock options
II. Take short-term capital gains
III. Delay until next year the payment of a property tax bill
IV. Exercise and sell an ISO in the year of exercise
all
Increasing taxable income (Answers I and II) for regular tax purposes until it reduces or eliminates AMT exposure. Delaying certain itemized deductions such as medical expenses, charitable gifts and local property tax creates more regular income. An ISO exercise adds to AMT income, but that addition is nullified by a disqualifying disposition such as a sale in the year of exercise).
odd is the CFO for a 20 person insurance company, XYZ Inc. Due to two employees who had to go out on medical leave, XYZ Inc. is considering disability benefits. XYZ, Inc. received two proposals from a disability insurance carrier. The first is that each employee will have an individual policy with a maximum benefit of 50% of salary capping at or $5,000 per month. The second is a group policy. The insurance company provided an explanation of the difference to the employees. Because the individual policies have more liberal definitions of total disability and base premiums on the age of the insured, XYZ management has indicated that there is a maximum premium they will pay per month. Todd’s illustration indicates he would have to pay about 30% of the premium for the individual policy. How would you analyze his situation and help him make a recommendation for XYZ?
I. Under the individual plan if he was disabled, 30% of the benefits would be tax-free. Under the group, all the benefits would be taxable. Thus, he should elect an individual plan.
II. Under the group insurance, XYZ would pay the entire premium. Although the benefits would be taxable, he has a low probability of being disabled. He should choose the group plan.
III. Under the individual plan he would get a more liberal definition of total disability. This is the most important consideration when buying a disability policy. He should elect an individual plan.
IV. The group plan would entail simpler underwriting. The individual plan would subject Todd to financial and medical underwriting. He should elect the group plan.
I, III
Although the premium for the individual policy would come from Todd’s pocket, the individual policy would provide a more generous definition of total disability and produce partially tax-free benefits.
Brad and Gloria Prior are married. Brad, age 71, and Gloria, age 69, have retired on his pension of $48,000 per year and their Social Security retirement payments. Brad is an adjunct instructor at the local community college and is paid $10,000 per year. How much can the Priors contribute to Roth IRAs in the current year?
A. $ -0-
B. $5,500
C. $6,500
D. $10,000
E. $13,000
D. $10,000
Dr. McGillicutty, a 50-year-old divorced dentist, has incorporated his practice as a personal service corporation. He is interested in increasing employee retention. He has approached you with the following for the new tax year. Dr. McGillicutty’s corporation currently provides a 401(k) plan. The practice only matches $.50 on a dollar of elective deferral up to 3% of eligible compensation. As a result of this formula and employee turnover, the doctor has been limited in the amount he can contribute as a key employee. If he elects to adopt a pension plan in lieu of the 401 (k), which of the statements is true regarding his benefits?
A. He will be able to contribute 25% of his salary if he elects a money purchase plan.
B. He will be able to deposit $230,000 (2021) if he elects a defined benefit pension plan.
C. The money purchase and defined benefit plan will be covered by the PBGC.
D. If he elects a defined benefit plan and becomes concerned about guaranteeing benefits, the practice could later switch to a cash balance plan.
E. Money purchase and profit-sharing plans are subject to the minimum funding standards.
D. If he elects a defined benefit plan and becomes concerned about guaranteeing benefits, the practice could later switch to a cash balance plan.
If the doctor adopts a defined benefit plan then has concerns about guaranteed benefits, the practice can switch to a cash balance plan. Profit sharing (401k) plans are not subject to the minimum funding standard. Money purchase has a contribution limit of $61,000 (2022). Without his salary being given this statement, this statement could be false. In answer B, the statement uses the word deposit rather than benefit. $245,000 is the maximum benefit (2022).
George Hallas owns 80% and his daughter, Georgina 20% of Hallas, Inc. (a corporation). Hallas, Inc. grosses approximately $20 million in a typical year. George and his daughter also own a general partnership worth $5 million. George owns a $3 million life insurance policy outright under which he is the named insured. He wants to remove the life insurance policy from his estate. What do you recommend?
A. Sell the policy to the corporation for buy-sell purposes.
B. Sell the policy to the partnership for buy-sell purposes.
C. Transfer the policy to the partnership for buy-sell purposes.
D. Gift the policy to his daughter.
D. Gift the policy to his daughter.
If the corporation owns the policy, the proceeds may be considered in valuing the decedent’s interest for federal estate tax purposes unless there is valid agreement fixing the price that would reflect an arms-length sale to an unrelated party (questionable because the buyer and seller are daughter and father, respectively. Answers B and C create a similar problem. When George dies the partnership dissolves. The ownership of the policy after that point would be uncertain and possibly flow through to George’s estate.
Coverdell Education Saving Plans permit tax free withdrawals for which of the following qualified education expenses (including elementary and secondary education expenses) tax- free?
I. Academic tutoring
II. Special needs services
III. Books
IV. Room and board
V. Uniforms as required
A. None of the above
B. All of the above
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II
E. III
All these items are eligible for tax free withdrawals from Coverdell Education Savings Accounts. These expenses may reflect both elementary and secondary education.
Childhood pals Stu and Lou had always wanted to spend time together, so shortly after graduating high school, they opened a hamburger joint called Good Guys Burgers. The business has been successful over the past forty some years and has grown into a chain of 33 stores. Stu and Lou estimate that the business is worth $9 million and plan to engage a business valuation specialist to peg an accurate fair market value for the business. Stu and Lou, now in their early sixties, recently had their first discussion about business succession planning. Although Stu has a son, Mark, in his late twenties, Mark tours with a rock band and has no interest in stepping into his father’s shoes. Lou has no children and his wife has serious health problems so she could not assume his business responsibilities if Lou dies. On the advice from their insurance agent, Lou and Stu decide to enter into an insurance-funded cross purchase death buy/ sell agreement. Each owner acquires life insurance on the other. If this agreement is executed and funded and Lou dies, who, if anyone, would experience a stepped-up basis relative to the buy/sell transaction?
Both Lou’s estate and surviving owner Stu both experience basis step up. Lou’s estate gets an increase in basis to date-of-death fair market value (unless the AVD was selected which is not indicated in the data) due to the postmortem sale. Stu receives basis step up due to contributing additional capital (the life insurance death benefit) to the business (Good Guys Burgers) to buy out Lou’s equity in the business.
Pension contributions are based on compensation. Which of the following is generally considered to be compensation to an employee?
I. Salary
II. Bonus
III. Business expense reimbursement
IV. Incentive stock options
V. Contributions to a deferred compensation plan
A. All of the above
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, II
E. I, IV
D. I, II
Salaries and bonuses are clearly compensation. A reimbursement pays the employee back for business expenses incurred but is not compensation. An ISO is a right to buy the employer’s stock and is not compensation. However, if the ISO becomes disqualified because the stock is exercised and sold in the same calendar year, the employee may be required to recognize any profits as compensation. Deferred compensation is not treated as compensation until it is constructively received. For tax purposes, compensation is considered current when it is paid no later than 2½ months after the year in which it is earned. For a more-than-50% owner, the compensation must be paid by year end. Deferred compensation is not compensation for tax purposes until it is constructively received.
Holly, the daughter of Mr. and Mrs. Golightly, is going to college. She plans to get her Masters at a state university. Unfortunately, due to economic conditions, her parents never set up a 529 plan or other education related arrangement. Holly may qualify for some state merit scholarships. Her parents, both professionals, earn well over $80,000 each, but spend most of what they make. Which of the following college tax and funding strategies may generate federal income tax credits for undergraduate as well as graduate education?
A. American Opportunity Credit
B. Lifetime Learning Credit
C. Coverdell (ESA)
D.PLUS
E. None of the above
The correct answer is E.
The American Opportunity Credit may be available for the undergraduate years, but not for the graduate years. The Lifetime Learning Credit is subject to an AGI phaseout. The Coverdell ESA and PLUS loans do not generate federal income tax credits.
Barry retired a few years ago from Belmont, Inc. at age 65. He is turning age 72 at the beginning of this year. He is planning to return to work at Belmont toward the end of the year on a full-time basis. Barry has the following types of retirement accounts not all of which come through his current employer. From which of the following accounts does Barry have to take a mandatory distribution by April 1st of next year?
I. Simple IRA
II. SEP IRA
III. Roth IRA
IV. Traditional IRA
V. Belmont 401(k) plan (account from retirement at age 65)
A. All of the above
B. I, II, IV, V
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, IV
E. I, II
The correct answer is B.
A minimum distribution is required for the year in which the participant attains age 72. Considering the way the question is worded, Barry still will be retired when he reaches age 72 (middle of the year). He will be back to work at the end of the year and may not be eligible to participate in the 401(k) until the following year.
Sadly, doctors have diagnosed your client, Sam as being terminally ill with heart disease. He sold his $250,000 face value life insurance policy to a qualified viatical settlement company for $175,000 a year ago. In the past few weeks, Sam was invited to participate in a clinical trial of a new medicine that will prolong his life for 5-10 years. The medicine appears to be working effectively for Sam. How is the $175,000 that Sam received on the viatical sale affected?
A. Sam will now have to recognize taxable income of $175,000.
B. Sam will be required to return the $175,000 to the viatical settlement company within the next 90 days.
C. The viatical settlement company will regret this particular transaction.
D. The viatical settlement company can return the policy to Sam per the original settlement agreement.
C. The viatical settlement company will regret this particular transaction.
The viatical company’s return will suffer if Sam lives too long. Sam is not affected.
Which of the following statements is true a regarding a QPRT if the grantor dies during the retained-interest term?
A. The value of the remaining term will return to the grantor’s gross estate.
B. It leaves the grantor’s estate with no greater tax liability than had the QPRT had not been established.
C. The applicable credit amount plus any gift tax actually paid on the original transfer are lost.
D. The present value of the retained income interest is brought back into the gross estate.
B. It leaves the grantor’s estate with no greater tax liability than had the QPRT had not been established.
The full value of the home generally reflecting date of death FMV is brought back into the gross estate. Let’s say you transferred a home worth $1 million under a 10-year QPRT. Had the QPRT never been established the estate would have the same tax exposure because the property would appear in the gross estate at FMV.
Mr. Sims purchased a $500,000 life policy in 1987 paying a single premium of $50,000. The contract cash value has grown to $110,000. He has decided to surrender the contract this year. Which of the following is true?
A. $50,000 of the $110,000 will be income tax free; the remaining $60,000 will be subject to tax at ordinary income tax rates.
B. $50,000 of the $110,000 will be income tax free; the remaining $60,000 will be subject to tax at capital gains rate.
C. $60,000 will be subject to tax at ordinary income tax rates plus a 10% penalty.
D. $110,000 will be subject to tax at ordinary income tax rates.
A. $50,000 of the $110,000 will be income tax free; the remaining $60,000 will be subject to tax at ordinary income tax rates.
The policy is not a MEC; therefore, the cash value in excess of basis ($50,000) will be subject to tax at ordinary income tax rates, but not the 10% penalty. 2022 35-years is 1987. The policy was acquired before MEC rules took effect in 1988.
John and Carol had their financial liabilities decrease from $250,000 of debt to $200,000. This occurred because of the following. They used cash flow to pay off $20,000 of credit card debt.They sold stock with a basis of $70,000 at a loss of $20,000 and used the proceeds to buy a new car. They paid off their $12,000 auto loan. Their only other debt has been their home mortgage. It was a $175,000 mortgage taken out some years ago (30-year / 8%). Based on the above information, how much principal reduction happened to the mortgage?
A. $12,000
B. $18,000
C. $20,000
D. $28,000
E. $30,000
B. $18,000
net change in liabilities 50
- less credit card payment 20
-less auto loan payments 12
The sale of the stock at a loss is a wash. The new car replaces the stock as an asset. Their Statement of Financial Position would have shown the stock at FMV, rather than at basis. The auto loan would have to be paid using cash flow. There is no other possibility. The loss would affect their taxes.
Arthur, age 63 regrets retiring early. He’s single and bored. Arthur found a job at Walmart as a greeter. The job will pay $15,000 per year. Arthur doesn’t need the money because he is currently receiving $6,000 per month from his former employer’s money purchase pension plan plus early Social Security retirement benefits of $1,000 per month. Arthur lives in a comfortable apartment, has full medical coverage and makes no charitable contributions. He normally claims the standard deduction. Which of the following is true if he takes the job with Walmart?
A. He will remain in a 22-24% income tax bracket.
B. He should find a job that pays him more than the minimum wage ($15.00/hour).
C. The impact of the earned income will be a very marginal increase in income tax.
D. His Social Security Retirement benefits could be reduced because of his earned income.
A. He will remain in a 22-24% income tax bracket.
Arthur will be in the 22-24% bracket. If he works the same hours for better pay, Arthur will exceed the 1-2 rule ($19,560) which would reduce his current Social Security retirement benefits. For now, Arthur remains with Walmart.
An U.S. investor owns German bonds. What will make the bonds increase in value?
A. A decrease in the value of the Euro
B. An increase in European interest rates
C. A stronger U.S. dollar
D. A decline in U.S. interest rates
D. A decline in U.S. interest rates
If a U.S. investor owns securities denominated in a foreign currency, that individual would profit if the dollar declined (devalued) or the value of the foreign currency rose (revalued). An increase in European interest rates would decrease the value of German bonds. If U.S. interest rates decline, the value of the dollar will decline.
Terrie Cross and Brenda Davis have decided to close their business. They had entered into a cross-purchase buy sell agreement funded with life insurance policies. Both Terrie and Brenda are married. How should they handle the ownership of their policies at this point?
A. Each should purchase her own policy from the other owner.
B. They should maintain the current ownership arrangements of the insurance policies.
C. Terrie should sell Brenda’s policy to Brenda’s husband, and Brenda should sell Terrie’s policy to Terrie’s husband.
D. They should change to an entity buy sell agreement.
A. Each should purchase her own policy from the other owner.
After the business closes, it is reasonable that each owner then owns the policy on her own life. Because the business is closed, there is no reason to maintain the current arrangement of ownership of the policies. Answers C and D trigger “transfer for value”.
Mr. Smith is subject to the AMT. Which of the following can reduce his AMT payable?
A. Exercising more nonqualified stock options
B. Assuming a larger mortgage
C. Purchasing more municipal bonds (private activity)
D. Buying an oil and gas partnership
E. Purchasing more public purpose bonds
A. Exercising more nonqualified stock options
Mrs. Baker, age 72, establishes an irrevocable trust. She transfers $15 million into the trust with income to her daughter for life. Her daughter, Jane, is 30 years old. When Jane dies, the remainder will go to Jane’s two children, who are currently ages 6 and 7. Jane is divorced. Because she never received alimony payments, Jane depends on the income from the trust to pay her bills. When Jane dies who will be liable for the GSTT due?
A. Mrs. Baker
B. Jane
C. Jane’s two children
D. The trustee from trust property
D. The trustee from trust property
This situation reflects a taxable termination. The trustee must pay any GST tax owed on a transfer to a skip person or skip persons. Only the two grandchildren are skip persons.
A few years ago John and Jim started a business J&J, Inc. as an S corp. Despite a sluggish economy, the company has grown at a rapid rate. J&J has focused on selling shoes to men with small feet. At the time the business was formalized they entered into an entity buy sell agreement funded with life insurance policies on each owner. However, with John produces more of the income than does his partner Jim. This reflects Jim’s personality; he is uncomfortable around most people. Therefore, Jim handles the administration of the business. John now believes that he can outsource the administrative work and decrease the overall expense of the business. Because of this John wants to and sever ties with J&J and start his own company with lower overhead and thus substantially higher revenues. He believes he can do this by selling all sizes of shoes rather than shoes only to men with small feet. His research shows that this will greatly increase the size of his market. Upon learning of John’s plans, Jim went into business with new co-owner Scott. They too will form an S corporation, J&S Inc. This time Scott and Jim will implement a cross purchase buy sell agreement. Jim does not want to manufacture shoes of all sizes due to the inherent cost of production.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the situation if Jim is looking to use his current life insurance policy owned by J&J, Inc. to fund the new Cross Purchase Buy Sell with Scott?
I. Jim’s Policy Owned by J&J can be acquired by Scott to fund the Cross Purchase Agreement for J&S, Inc.
II. If Scott and Jim enter into an Entity purchase buy sell agreement J&S Inc. could buy Jim’s policy from J&J Inc. and there would not be a transfer for value tax exposure.
III. If J&S was established as a C corporation and the policy was transferred to Scott the death benefits would avoid federal income taxation if Jim lived for at least 3 years.
IV. Because the policy has only been in force for 2 years, Jim would have to wait 1 more year. Before he could remove the policy from J&J Inc. to avoid inclusion in his gross estate.
V. John could buy his policy from J&J Inc. and this would not trigger transfer for value rules.
I, II, V
Statement I is correct. It is permissible although it would create a transfer for value issue. Statement II is correct because a corporation in which the insured is a shareholder can purchase the policy without triggering transfer for value rules. Statement III is not correct, there will still be tax due to transfer for value regardless of how much longer Jim Lives. Statement IV confuses two different rules. Statement V is correct because John can buy his own policy.
stock bonus and social secuity
can be intergrated!
only esops and 401ks with no matching contributions can’t
Under an IRC Section 6166 election, which is the following is true?
I. It may only be elected if the client dies owning a business.
II. It cannot be elected if the business owned by the taxpayer was operated as a sole proprietorship.
III. During the first 4 years the estate is only required to pay interest on any estate tax owed due to the death of the client.
IV. The gross estate must include an interest classified as “closely held” business interest (s), the value of which exceeds 50% of the gross estate.
V. A Section 6166 election allows for installment payment of estate taxes over 10 equal installments beginning 4 years after the client’s death.
I, III, V
A Section 6166 election is available for deceased taxpayers who owned one or more sole-proprietorship business interests. The aggregate holdings in closely held business must represent 35% of the adjusted gross estate. The 2% interest rate only applies to a limited dollar amount of estate tax owed. While the remainder of the estate tax due also qualifies for interest only payments, the rate of interest may be higher than 2%.
Your client, Byron Sheridan, died recently at the age of 83. He is married to Virginia, age 83. Byron enjoyed managing his investments and diversified his invested assets among several asset classes. When Byron died, he held the asset listed below. Which of them would be eligible for a step up in basis?
A. A $100,000 CD now worth $105,000 (acquired 5 years ago).
B. A municipal bond purchased at a discount ($95,000) two years ago now having a date of death FMV of $100,000
C. Stock purchased 6 months ago for $50,000 that created a $10,000 STCL.
D. An annuity purchased 10 years ago for $100,000 having a date of death FMV of $115,000.
A municipal bond purchased at a discount ($95,000) two years ago now having a date of death FMV of $100,000
The municipal bond was held for the long- term and is eligible for stepped up basis upon Byron’s death. The tax deferred accounts such as an annuity (and retirement accounts, generally do not step up in basis.) The CD is cash. There is no stepped up basis; a dollar is a dollar.
Long-term capital gains and qualified dividends
are not considered
investment income unless the taxpayer makes an election to have these income
items taxed at ordinary rates.
. An irrevocable life insurance trust does not create ownership;
therefore,
no inclusion in the gross estate.
Bob wants to convert his IRA which today has an approximate FMV of $1,000,000, to a Roth IRA. Bob is age 72 and will be taking an RMD of $40,000 in the current tax year. Bob estimates his other taxable income for the year to be $70,000. Can he convert the IRA to a Roth IRA?
Yes, there is no limit on the dollar amount of the conversion.
There is no limit as to the dollar amount that may be converted from a traditional IRA to a ROTH. Bob is taking his RMD first, then he will convert the remainder of his balance in the traditional account. Answer C is true, but it does not answer the question which is about conversion
Your client, Frank, age 44, believes that the business cycle is about to turn sharply and that an 8% inflation rate is a necessary assumption in the construction of his retirement plan. You, a CFP® certificant, strongly believe that inflation will continue to be substantially lower averaging between 3 and 4 percent in the long run. Which inflation rate from the choices below would you reject first?
Current year’s inflation rate
A one-year inflation rate does not constitute an inflation rate for a long-term goal achievement. Remember that client and planner must mutually agree on plan assumptions. While the client’s 8% assumption may not end up as the one used in the plan, it should be considered. It might make sense for the planner to run the numbers using both his personal inflation assumption and run them again using the client’s so the client can see that his assumption would probably be less workable.
Your client Bob made an investment in a commercial property. Given the risk this investment carries, he had a required rate of return of 10%. He recently sold the property and has asked you whether the investment was profitable. Was it?
When, given the cash flows of an investment its NPV is zero, the investment met the buyer’s required rate of return. An investment can be profitable even its NPV is negative. A positive or a negative NPV tells whether the client achieved his required rate of return, but not the amount of the profit.
Both of Rusty Whitman’s parents recently died in an auto accident. Rusty is 12 years old. Before their death, the Whitman’s had established various trusts including revocable living trusts (each parent), an irrevocable life insurance trust, and a 2503(c) minor’s trust. While Rusty is younger than age 21, the trust earnings will support his living needs. Into which of the following trusts will Rusty’s parents’ assets ultimately pass?
The revocable trust will become irrevocable and will operate as a family trust for Rusty’s benefit thereafter. It is rare that a revocable trust would name its beneficiary as a 2503(c) children’s trust. 2503(c) trusts generally terminate when the minor beneficiary turns age 21.
The Wonder Widget Company operates as a C corporation. Its officers are concerned about their personal liability exposure on becoming appointed as trustees for the company’s pension plan. How should their concerns be minimized?
If a suitable investment manager has been appointed, generally the trustee will not be liable for the acts or omission of that investment manager. However, this relief does not totally excuse from liability the named fiduciary who appointed the investment manager
Federal covered advisers must update their ADV forms no later than _____ days following the close of their fiscal year. Smaller advisers that have registered with states securities regulators will comply with state specific deadlines for annual updates to their ADVs or equivalents.
90
insurance company size
The size of an insurance company is not necessarily an indicator of its financial strength.
An employee contribution to which of the following plans is not subject to FICA and FUTA taxes?
A. Profit sharing 401(k)
B. SIMPLE IRA
C. SARSEP
D. 403(b)
E. Section 125 plan
E. Section 125 plan
A 125 is a flexible spending account (FSA) into which contributions are elected before the employee compensation is actually earned. All the other plans shown require FICA and FUTA tax on employee deferrals.
qualifying for marital deduction
It appears that the gift will not qualify for the marital deduction. To qualify for the deduction, the donee spouse must be given the property outright or must have at least a right to the income from the property and a general power of appointment over the principal. The IRS would consider this to be a step transaction and thus a fraudulent transfer.
recapture for IRA equal payments
The recapture amount will be 10% of the total annual payments received before Loretta attained age 59½, plus interest. The penalty only applies to distributions that were made to Loretta before she attained age 59½.
Medicare skilled nursing facility rules
Medicare will pay for the first 20 days of rehabilitative skilled nursing home care in full
It will also cover (the difference of cost and Medicare coverage) for the next 80 days.
After 100 days, there is no Medicare coverage for extended care