CV Medications Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

What does Somatostatin do and what type of cell is it produced from?

a. inhibits alpha cell activity and produced from hepatocytes
b. inhibits beta cell activity and produced from alpha cells
c. activates alpha cell activity and produced from beta cells
d. inhibits alpha cell activity and produced from delta cells
e. inhibits beta cell activity and produced from hepatocytes
f. inhibits beta cell activity and produced from delta cells
g. a & e
h. d & f

A

h.
inhibits alpha cell activity (glucagon release) and beta cell activity (insulin release). it is produced from the delta cells in the pancreas

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2
Q

What is not included in the 3 headed monster that TKP talked about?

a. Blood glucose
b. Hemoglobin
c. Hypertension
d. Lipids
e. Pancreatitis enzyme
f. b & d
g. b & e
h. d & e

A

g. Blood glucose (a1c), lipid lowering (use of statins), and hypertension (get it down past 140/90) ACE I or ARB.

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3
Q

What is NOT true of type 2 DM?

a. it is often due to the american diet
b. it is associated with metabolic syndrome
c. rapid decrease in insulin secretion
d. abdominal obesity
e. all of the above are true

A

c.

it is a GRADUAL decrease in insulin release not rapid.

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4
Q

What level do we want to see an A1C test?
a. >7%
b. >9%
c.

A

c.

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5
Q

What is the best treatment in lowering lipid levels?

a. use of Intermediate statin
b. use of high intensity statin
c. use of long lasting insulin, preferably toujeo
d. use of basal insulin and prandial insulin
e. all of the above are suitable treatment methods.

A

b. She has listed only the high intensity statin.

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6
Q

A new physician in the area calls the pharmacy at 07:00 and asks if he will get an adequate fasting sugar level if the patient last had late night snack meal as well as a soda pop at 23:00 the night before you tell him:

a. Wait until 11:00 then test the b. blood for the fasting sugar level because of the soda pop the patient drank
c. Wait until 09:00 then test the blood for the fasting sugar level
d. You tell him that you can’t remember how military time works and that you will call him back
e. You tell him to just go ahead and test the blood for the fasting sugar level.
f. Tell the rookie to ask Dean Cady about Diabeetus.

A

d. Go ahead and draw the blood because a fasting level is 8-12 hours with no food or drink and since the pt is at the 8 hour limit you are fine.

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7
Q

While doing rounds on rotations you overhear a physician discussing HbA1c values with your preceptor, they realize you might not know what this means and they ask you what you can assess about the patient by knowing the HbA1c. you tell them:

a. It is the hemoglobin A1c

b. It is way to assess the 
function and relative number of Hemoglobin molecules

c. It is a way to tell the average blood glucose
d. more than one of the above would be appropriate.

A

c. It is a way to figure out the average blood glucose and if you wanted to really impress them you would say it is an average over the past 3 months. HbA1c is basically long-term blood sugar.

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8
Q

You are reviewing the labs of a patient and see a value of 75 mg/dL for the blood glucose you:

a. realize that anything 75 and below is hypoglycemic and look further into the patient history
b. call to the nurse on the floor to inject a glucagon kit ASAP this patient is in serious trouble
c. no immediate action but take note to monitor this patient’s glucose levels more often and move on to check on other patients
d. the patient is hyperglycemic and should be given a rapid acting insulin

A

c anything under 70 mg/dL is hypoglycemic.

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9
Q

When injecting insulin rank the sites to inject from best to worst.
a. stomach > thighs > buttocks > arms

b. stomach > arms > buttocks > thighs
c. stomach > arms > thighs > buttocks
d. arms > stomach > thigh > buttocks
e. thighs > stomach > arms > buttocks

A

c stomach > arms > thighs > buttocks

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10
Q

The use of which medication is most associated with lipodystrophy?

a. metformin
b. Toujeo
c. simvastatin
d. cholestyramine
e. none of the above

A

b lipodystrophy is the dents in the skin form injecting insulin (so any insulin would be considered for this but i decided to choose toujeo.

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11
Q

Another term for “regular” insulin is:

a. rapid acting
b. short acting
c. intermediate acting
d. long acting

A

b short acting.

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12
Q

Another term for “NPH” is

a. rapid acting insulin
b. short acting insulin
c. intermediate acting insulin
d. long acting insulin

A

c intermediate acting = NPH. NPH insulin (Neutral Protamine Hagedorn)

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13
Q

The main goal of insulin therapy is to mimic normal physiologic action

a. true
b. false

A

a true

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14
Q

For prandial insulin patients are told to inject their rapid acting insulin 10 minutes before a meal because the onset of action of rapid insulins is 10 minutes.

a. true
b. false

A

a false, the onset of action is 15 minutes.

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15
Q

What type(s) of insulin are indicated for prandial sugars?

a. rapid acting
b. short acting
c. intermediate acting
d. 2 of the above
e. 3 of the above

A

e all 3 of them.

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16
Q

Patients with severe hyperlipidemia who aren’t getting the results from a statin such as simvastatin are commonly given a vibrate such as gemfibrozil as add on therapy.
a. true, however pt compliance goes down because fibrates can often be prescribed for twice a day

b. true, but fibrates are generally not tolerated very well.
c. false because simvastatin and gemfibrozil cause a serious decrease in liver function and enzymes when taken together
d. false because simvastatin and gemfibrozil cause a serious myopathy risk when taken together

A

d. False, you do not want to take these 2 drugs in particular, however it is important to note that if you take any statin and gemfibrozil together you can get other serious interactions. Contraindications.

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17
Q

While working at the pharmacy you get a person that looks like they live off of granola and have a shirt that says “save the earth one leaf at a time”. They tell you they are not a fan of taking prescription medications, especially synthetic medications. However, their PCP told them they have high cholesterol levels and they need to be on a medication. What do you recommend?

A

Recommend Niacin aka B3 or nicotinic acid. BECAUSE it is a natural product.

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18
Q

What type of hyperlipidemia medication is a monoclonal antibody?

a. HMG - CoA reductase inhibitors
b. Ezetimibe
c. PCSK 9 inhibitors
d. Bile Acid Sequestrates
e. Fibrates
f. MTP inhibitor

A

c. PCSK 9 inhibitors. Remember that monoclonals end in MAB so if they give us generic medications on the test make sure to note them.

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19
Q

A patient comes in after a month of taking torsemide and is complaint that they are still peeing a ton everyday, you tell them:
a. we need to switch you to a thiazide
b. this is normal so I guess you’ll have to get used to it.
c. contact your physician
d. go to the nearest emergency room as you are likely to have hypomagnesemia
none of the above

A

b. This is normal, patients on loop diuretics lose a ton of water (used for EDEMA) and they keep peeing throughout treatment, unlike thiazides. Hypomagnesemia is an issue with loop diuretics but we had no reason to suspect them to go to the hospital because we don’t have their labs.

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20
Q

A potassium sparing diuretic is a good add on to which medication?

a. HCTZ
b. furosemide
c. amiloride
d. metolazone
e. all of the above

A

a. examples of potassium sparing medications are triamterene and amiloride. You mostly see triamterene with HCTZ.

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21
Q

What does RAAS stand for?

A

Renin Angiotensin - Aldosterone System

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22
Q

What does renin do?

A

It converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I

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23
Q

What does ACE does and what does it stand for?

A

ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme). Converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

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24
Q

What is the function of the RAAS system?

A

It is responsible for helping to maintain electrolytes, water balance and blood pressure.

When activated it increases blood pressure and Na/Water retention.

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25
What cell is renin produced from and what organ?
Released from the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney
26
What does angiotensin II do?
It normally produces aldosterone which then doesn't allow Na secretion and thus keeps water. BUT it has another MOA, it is a vasoconstrictor.
27
What is the mechanism of action for ACE I?
Inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme which: - Inhibits production of angiotensin II (vasoconstrictor) - Increases level of bradykinin (vasodilator) - Decreases aldosterone (decreased Na and H20 retention) - Decreased water retention in the renal collecting duct (ADH) - Leads to : - Decreased vascular resistance and venous tone - Increased stroke volume and cardiac output.
28
What is the first line for hypertension?
ACE I
29
Which of the following is not an indication for ACE I? a. Hypertension b. heart failure c. post MI d. kidney protection e. all of the above
e. all of the above. kidney protection because it causes vasodilation of efferent arteriole entering the glomerulus so that the "hose" is wider so you don't have as much pressure on the glomerulus so it leaves easier.
30
Zestril, Prinivil
Lisinopril the zesty little people with lice
31
Altace
Ramipril Ill make you taste blood when I RAM you!
32
Lotensin
Benazapril Ben has a pill to lower your tension (hyper)
33
Vasotec
Enalapril
34
ACE I elevate which electrolyte? a. Na b. Ca c. Mg d. K e. Cl
d. K because normally Na and K are anti porters and if Na is not being absorbed as much then K is not being secreted as much so it stays in the body.
35
In which drug class do you often see a dry, unproductive cough? a. ACE I b. ARB c. Thiazides d. Potassium sparing
a. ACE I. 5-20% of patients get this. If they have this then we can switch them to an ARB. It is thought that it is because of increases in bradykinin and substance P.
36
In what race does angioedema caused by ACE I happen most often? a. Asians b. European descent c. African Americans d. Indian Americans
c. It is thought that it is caused by increases of bradykinin and substance P.
37
Which medication is known to be teratogenic? a. Loop diuretics b. Thiazides c. ACE I d. Potassium sparing diuretics
C. ACE I. Happens within first trimester.
38
What is the mechanism of action of ARBs?
They block angiotensin II directly at the site of action. Via AT1 receptor. (it is essentially the same actions of ACE I) It is important to note that it does block all angiotensin II not just the ones produced from angiotensin I (ex: chymase in cardiac tissue).
39
Cozaar
Losartan She's getting COZY she must want to get LOW
40
Avapro
Irbesartan IM (AVA) a PRO at the HERBs
41
Atacand
Candesartan CAND - CAND ATTA candice...
42
Diovan
Valsartan "DIE OH VAN, VAL SAR TAN"
43
What is the MOA of the aldosterone antagonists?
They inhibit aldosterone effects on the sodium potassium exchange (Na normally gets reabsorbed and K secreted) in the DISTAL TUBULE . Right before the collecting duct. (further down than where the Na/Cl inhibitor for thiazides)
44
ARBs increase which electrolyte? a. Na b. Ca c. Mg d. K
d. K. For the same reason as the ACE. if you inhibit Na being reabsorbed then you inhibit K leaving (anti porter)
45
Which aldosterone antagonist is more selective for the Na/K exchanger in the distal tubule? a. Aldactone (spironolactone) b. Inspra (eplerenone) What does this imply?
b. Inspra. This implies that it won't have the anti androgen effect as much as spironolactone so that the males don't have gynecomastia (growing boobs). Remember: SpironoLACTone and EplereNONE
46
What class of medication is Tekturna? a. ACE I b. Aldosterone antagonist c. Renin inhibitor d. Calcium channel blocker
c. Renin inhibitor.
47
Inspra
Eplerenone You are an inspiration to us males so that we don't grow boobs. "NONE" "Apparently none - eplerenone"
48
What are the cardioselective beta blockers?
NAM - Nebivolol, atenolol, metoprolol. Back in nam (and the good old days) we did things right
49
Bystolic
Nebivolol We all thought nebeker was bi sexual on this mission
50
Tenormin
Atenolol TEN
51
Lopressor
Metoprolol Tartrate You are a tard and have to take your meds BID (non XL)
52
Toprol XL
Metoprolol succinate QD dosing You would think it sucks, but it doesn't. You want that girl to suck bid but she doesn't.
53
Inderal
Propranolol Pro indy 500 racer
54
Coreg
Carvedilol You carved right to the core of me!
55
Trandate
Labetalol Trannies have their labia turned inside out to become a guy. Took a tranny on a date and reached down to see if they had a labia (girl)
56
What are the nonselective beta blockers?
PCL - park city live! Propranolol Carvedilol Labetalol In park city you were drunk and weren't selective on who you hooked up with. People every where.
57
What is special about carvedilol (Coreg)?
besides being a nonselective beta blocker you also get alpha blockade which can help lower blood pressure. YOU REALLY CARVE TO THE CORE OF ME BY DOING ALL OF THIS.
58
What beta blocker is good at treating migraines?
Propranolol. (non selective beta blocker) PCL (all of the beta blockers)
59
What does ISA stand for? and what does it mean?
Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity.
60
What as the ADRs of beta blockers?
Bradycardia AV block Bronchospasm (caution in asthma with non--selective agents) Decreased exercise tolerance and fatigue (transient; lasts ~ 2 weeks) Potential to mask hypoglycemia Vasospasms
61
What 2 classes of calcium channel blockers are there?
Dihydropyridines (DHP) | Non-dihydropyridines (non-DHP)
62
What calcium channel blocker can cause uterine relaxation?
nifedipine Don't stab your uterus with a knife.
63
what do the DHP calcium channel blockers usually end in?
Pine Amlodipine Felodipine
64
Norvasc
amlodipine norvasc don't ask amlodipine
65
Plendil
Felodipine Plenty of dills in here means there are lots of "fellas"
66
BiDil
Combination pill containing hydralazine & isosorbide dinitrate
67
What blood pressure medication is used in pregnancy often?
hydralazine
68
How does hydralazine work?
MOA is unknown but we do know that it has vasodilation properties in arteries.
69
Ranexa
ranolazine