Daily questions

Question 1

What are the two elements of control when performing basic instrument maneuvers?

Answer 1

All basic instrument maneuvers require correct attitude and power settings. - FM 3-04.240 pg 2-1

There are only two elements of control in all aircraft - the attitude of the aircraft relative to the horizon and the power applied. - FTG pg 53

Question 2

What are the:
A. Pitch attitude control instruments?
B. Bank attitude control instruments?
C. Power instruments?

Answer 2

A. Pitch control instruments: Airspeed Indicator, Attitude Indicator, Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator
B. Bank attitude control instruments: Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, Magnetic Compass, Turn & Slip Indicator
C. Power instruments: Airspeed Indicator, Torque Indicator

-FM 3-04.240 page 2-4

Question 3

In developing an instrument cross-check, what are the primary instruments that give the most pertinent information for any particular phase of maneuver?

Answer 3

FM 3-04.240
The pitch, bank and power instruments:
-Pitch - Altimeter.
-Bank - Heading indicators.
-Power - Airspeed indicator (level flight).

FTG pg 53
Those that give the most pertinent information for any particular phase of the maneuver. These are usually the instruments that should be held at a constant indication.

Question 4

Which instrument should always be used if available because it instantly portrays the actual bank and pitch of the aircraft?

Answer 4

The attitude indicator is the only instrument that portrays instantly and directly the actual flight attitude. Always use the attitude indicator, when available, in establishing and maintaining pitch and bank attitudes.

-FM 3-04.240

Question 5

Concerning a standard rate turn:
A. The initial bank is started with reference to what instrument?
B. The desired angle of bank is how many degrees and why?
C. How long should it take to roll into and out of the turn?

Answer 5

Pg 51 in FTG / FM 3-04.240 pg 2-8
A. Bank index pointer on the attitude indicator.
Bank Instruments: Attitude, heading and turn indicators.
B. 12-15 degrees.
Use a bank angle that approximates the degree to turn up to a standard rate turn (not to exceed 30 degrees).
C. Roll-in and roll-out should take 4-6 seconds. Cross check the turn need for a standard rate turn.

Use 15% of TAS.
80 knots = 12 deg.
90 knots = 13.5 deg.
100 knots = 15 deg.
180 knots = 27 deg.

Question 6

When making turns to a predetermined heading, the bank angle should never exceed what?

Answer 6

Use a bank angle that approximates the degree to turn up to a standard rate turn (never exceed 30 degrees). Pg 2-8, 2-12 FM 3-04.240

Question 7

A. What is the maximum bank angle recommended under instrument conditions?
B. In the FTG for BI, what is the desired angle-of-bank used for a steep turn?

Answer 7

A. 30 degrees. Pg 2-8 FM 3-04.240
B. Approximate 20 degree angle of bank. Pg 51 FTG

Question 8

A. When may deviations in rate of climb or descent be corrected with pitch attitude?
B. When must deviations in rate of climb or descent be corrected with power?

Answer 8

FTG pg 51
A. Deviations in rate of climb or descent of 100 FPM or less may be corrected with pitch attitude provided airspeed does not change by more than 5 knots.

B. Deviations of more than 100 FPM or 5 knots of airspeed are corrected with power.

Question 9

When making initial pitch attitude corrections to maintain altitude, what instrument should be used and procedurally how do you make the change?

Answer 9

FM 3-04.240 pg 2-10
The attitude indicator establishes desired pitch attitude. Use the cyclic to raise or lower the miniature aircraft in relation to the horizon bar.

Question 10

BI training standards are to climb at 80 KIAS and descend at 90 KIAS.
A. Describe the procedure for level off during climbs.
B. Describe the procedure for level off during descents.

Answer 10

FM3-04.240 pg 2-8 / FTG pg 51
A: (Initiate level off at 10% of VSI. 500ft climb = 50ft prior.) Adjust pitch attitude to regain desired airspeed, then adjust collective to obtain cruise power. (500fpm = 50ft level off point)

B: (Initiate level off at 10% of VSI. 500ft climb = 50ft prior.) Maintain pitch attitude and adjust collective to maintain/obtain desired cruise airspeed, then adjust to cruise power.

Question 11

What is the most common form of spatial disorientation and what causes it?

Answer 11

TC 3-04.93 pg 9-12
The “leans”. The leans occur when the pilot fails to perceive some angular motion.
Example: An undetected slow roll that is suddenly corrected will feel like a turn has been entered in the opposite direction.

Question 12

What is the most dangerous of

Answer 12

TC 3-04.93 pg 9-12
Coriolis illusion. (The feeling that the aircraft is rolling, pitching and yawing at the same time.)

Movement of fluid in the semi-circular canals as a result of head movements during turns.

Causes overwhelming disorientation - head over heels tumbling sensation.

Question 13

Define the type of vertigo which can be experienced in the clouds due to flashing anti-collision strobe lights.

Answer 13

TC 3-04.93 pg 9-12
Flicker Vertigo (not technically an illusion). The flickering lights can be both distracting and annoying. Flickering light at certain frequencies can cause seizures in individuals susceptible to flicker-induced epilepsy. May also be caused by rotor blades interrupting direct sunlight.

Question 14

What is the treatment for spatial disorientation?

Answer 14

TC 3.04-93 pg 9-17 (Dr. T)

• Delay intuitive actions long enough to check both visual refs and instruments.
• Refer to the instruments and develop a good X-check
• Transfer controls to the other pilot if possible. Rarely will both pilots experience SD at the same time.

Question 15

What is the proper sequence of flight control adjustments for unusual attitude recovery?

Answer 15

FM 3-04.240 pg 2-23 / FTG pg 48

• Establish a level bank and pitch attitude.
• Establish and maintain a heading.
• Adjust power to cruise power setting.
• Maintain aircraft in trim.

Question 16

Define the following and explain its relevance to you as an Army aviator:

A. Indicated Altitude
B. Pressure Altitude
C. Density Altitude

Answer 16

FM 3-04.240 pg 1-3
A: Indicated altitude is the altitude read off the aircraft altimeter with the current sea-level pressure set in the Kollsman window.
Relevance: Altitude used by the pilot when flying.
B: Pressure altitude is the height measured above the 29.92’ pressure level.
Relevance: Altitude used above 18.000’ MSL as Flight Levels.
C: Density altitude (DA) is the altitude for which a given air density exists in the standard atmosphere (PA modified by temperature deviations from standard).
Relevance: DA affects aircraft performance - High DA => Low performance.

Question 17

How does cold ambient temperature affect indicated altitude and how is it corrected for on an instrument approach?

Answer 17

FM 3-04.240 pg 1-5 and 1-6
True altitude (above MSL) will be less than indicated altitude for temperature colder than standard (4’ per 1.000’ alt. for each degree C difference from ISA).
Corrections:
-Added to the published DA/DH, MDA and step-down fixes (heights above HAT) inside FAF whenever OAT is < 0 degree C.
-Added to all altitudes in the procedure in designated mountainous areas whenever OAT ≤ 0 degree C.
-Added to all altitudes in the procedure whenever OAT is ≤ -30 degree C.
-Added to Procedure Turn, intermediate approach altitude and HAT/HAA when they are ≥ 3.000’ above the altimeter source (the airfield elevation).

Question 18

What are two possible ways of returning static pressure to the flight instruments should the primary static system fail during flight?

Answer 18

FM 3-04.240 pg 11-3

• Pull the Alternate Static source knob.
• Break the glass on the VSI.
• Note: VSI reading are reversed once glass is broke. It will read climbing when descending, and vice versa.

Question 19

A. Explain the difference between the heading indicator “slaved gyro” and “free gyro” modes.
B. When and how would you select between the two modes?

Answer 19

FM 3-04.240 pg 1-15
A: Slaved Gyro Mode: RMI and HSI are automatically slaved to the gyro compass unit for display of heading information.
Free Gyro Mode: Allows manual slaving when fully automatic operation is not desired. RMI/HSI compass cards (heading) are adjusted by the CW/CCW switch. (-10)
B: (FTG) Slave Mode is normally used/selected for automatic operation.
If the RMI/HSI heading information are in error, the Free Mode can be selected and RMI/HSI compass cards can be adjusted to heading from other sources (i.e. the Mag compass) with the CW/CCW switch. Corrections will have to be repeated periodically to maintain the gyros in alignment with magnetic north.

Question 20

What should be done if you suspect your gyro stabilized heading indicators are in error?

Answer 20

FM 3-04.240 pg 1-14
If the gyro stabilized RMI or HSI compass cards are suspected to be in error, establish straight and level flight to determine magnetic compass heading, then apply any applicable deviation.
If corrections required, select free mode on gyro that is in error and adjust magnetic heading as required.
If complete failure of one (HSI or RMI) then use the other.

Question 21

A. Explain the terms variation and deviation as they apply to the magnetic compass.
B. Are gyro stabilized compass systems (RMI/HSI) subject to these influences?

Answer 21

FM 3-04.240 pg 1-11, pg 1-13
A: Variation: The TN (geographic north) and MN are not co-located (~ 1.300 miles apart) - Variation is the difference between True N and Magnetic N.
Deviation: Deviation error is caused by local magnetic fields in the aircraft due to electrical currents flowing in the structure, nearby wiring or any magnetized parts in/of the aircraft.
B: Yes. Although the remote compass transmitter containing the flux valve is usually mounted in a wingtip or placed in a position which will minimize these influences.

Question 22

What do the terms “radial, bearing and course” refer to?

Answer 22

GP - Ch 2 Terms / AIM - Pilot/Controller Glossary
Radial: A magnetic bearing extending from a VOR/VORTAC/TACAN navigation facility.
Bearing: The horizontal direction to or from any point, usually measured clockwise from TN, MN or some other reference point.
In relation to a NDB: Outbound heading from the station.
Course: The intended direction of flight in the horizontal plane measured in degrees from N.
In relation to a VOR -> Inbound heading on a radial to the station.
In relation to a NDB -> Inbound heading on a bearing to the station.

Question 23

Explain the difference between “homing” and “tracking” inbound to a station. Which procedure should be used on IFR flights when cleared direct?

Answer 23

GP - Ch 2 Terms
Homing: Flight toward navigational aids, without correcting for wind, by adjusting the aircraft heading to maintain a relative bearing of zero degrees. The aircraft will follow a curved path to the station.
Tracking: The use of a heading to maintain the desired track to or from a station, regardless of wind conditions.
The aircraft follows a straight path to/from a station.

Tracking is used when “Cleared Direct”.

Question 24

Concerning VORs, what is the only positive method of identification and what is the accuracy?

Answer 24

FM 3-04.240 / AIM
The only positive method of identifying a VOR is by its Morse code ID or by the recorded automatic voice ID.
Voice ID consists of a voice announcement (i.e. “Cairns VOR”), alternating with the usual Morse code ID.

Accuracy is excellent, generally ± 1 degree, but no more than 2.5 degrees. The effectiveness of VOR depends on proper use and adjustment of both ground & airborne equipment.

Question 25

What is the normal range of L and H class VORs at 1000ft AGL?

Answer 25

IFR Supplement / AIM VOR normal anticipated interference-free standard service volumes (SSV); T Class: 25 NM up to 12.000' AGL. L Class: 40 NM up to 18.000' AGL. HA Class: 40 NM below 14.500' AGL 100 NM 14.500 - 60.000' AGL 130 NM 18.000 - 45.000 AGL

Question 26

A. What is the maximum distance you can file a direct route between two VOR navigational facilities below 14.500' AGL and be assured reception? B. If you wanted to file a direct flight between two VORs, where would you find exceptions to the maximum distance; give a specific example/location?

Answer 26

IFR Supplement / AIM A: 80 NM (SSV = 40 NM for HA and L VORs, and 25 NM for T VORs - all above 1.000'). B: Exceptions can be found in the IFR Supp - Airport Facilities Directory and NOTAMs. Example (pg B-92 IFRS): Cairns VOR: OZR - unusable radials of: 016 degrees-049 degrees byd 20 NM, 211 degrees -234 degrees byd 20 NM and 307 degrees -315 degrees byd 17 NM.

Question 27

navigating between two facilities, when should the pilot change over from one NAVAID to the next?

Answer 27

At designated Change Over Points (COPs); - Midway between NAVAIDs. - At Doglegs intersections. - When not located at midpoint (refer to aeronautical chart for symbols for VOR Changeover Point, Mileage Breakdown or Computer Navigation Fix).

Question 28

What are the general dimensions of a Victor Airway depicted on an IFR En-route Low Altitude Chart (ELA)?

Answer 28

FM 3-04.240 pg 8-5 - Extends from 1,200' AGL up to 18,000' MSL (18,000' not included). - 4 NM on each side of the centerline.

Question 29

If a course change is required at an intersection, when should that change be started?

Answer 29

FM 3-04.240 pg 10-15 Pilots are expected to lead turns and take other actions they consider necessary during course changes to adhere as closely as possible to the airways or route being flown, i.e. taking into account variables such as, turn radius, wind effect, AS, degree of turn, & cockpit instrumentation. Aviators should attempt to adhere to course centerline whenever possible.

Question 30

What four weather hazards to flight are described on the DD 175-1 Weather brief/forecast?

Answer 30

FM 3-04.240 pg C-3 On the DD 175-1: Thunderstorms, Turbulence, Icing and Precipitation. Other considerations are Thunderstorms, Icing, Gusty Winds, and High Density-Altitude.

Question 31

According to FM 3-04.240, Appendix C, Section III, what are the "Three P's" for risk management and decision making for preflight weather planning and in-flight weather decision making?

Answer 31

FM 3-04.240 Appendix C - Perceive weather hazards that could adversely affect the flight. - Process information to determine whether the hazards create risk, which is the potential effect of a hazard not controlled or eliminated. - Perform by acting to eliminate the hazard or mitigate the risk.

Question 32

Define and explain the application of the terms MIA, MEA, MOCA.

Answer 32

GP 2-28 MIA: Minimum IFR Altitude - minimum altitude published on approach procedures, 1000ft above highest obstacle within 4nm over flat terrain, 2000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 nm in mountainous areas. FM 3-04.240 pg 4-5 MEA: Minimum IFR Enroute Altitude - Lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. FM 3-04.240 pg 4-6 MOCA: Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude - Provides appropriate obstacle clearance between fixes and navigational signal coverage within 22nm of VOR.

Question 33

Define and explain the application of the terms MRA, MCA, MVA, OROCA.

Answer 33

FM 3-04.240 pg 4-6 MRA: Minimum Reception Altitude - The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined. FM 3-04.240 pg 4-6 MCA: Minimum Crossing Altitude - The lowest altitude at which a fix must be crossed when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. GP pg 2-29, FM 3-04.240 pg 9-4 MVA: Minimum Vectoring Altitude - The lowest MSL altitude at which IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except when on radar approaches, departures, and miss approaches. May be lower than the published MEA. FM 3-04.240 pg 4-7 OROCA: Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - An off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and a 2,000 ft buffer in designated mountainous areas within the U.S. This altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC Radar, or communications coverage.

Question 34

A. Is an aircraft on an IFR flight plan navigating by an IFR approved GPS considered to be an RNAV aircraft? B. When is a "G" transponder code/suffix used on the DD FORM 175?

Answer 34

AIM pg 1-1-29 A. YES, Although, GPS equipment used while IFR must meet standards set forth in TSO C-129 (or equivalent). Airworthiness installation requirements must be approved for that type of IFR operation, operated according to ACFT Operators Manual; Updatable GPS database that supports the appropriate operations is required while IFR. B. "G" is used in Item (3) ACFT Designation & TD Codes: - TD Codes: select code which denotes Transponder/Nav-Aid Capability from list. (G = Global Navigational Satellite System (GNSS) including GPS or WAAS with enroute / terminal capability.

Question 35

Concerning the hover power check: A. Describe how to perform it. B. Give the conditions for which additional hover power checks must be performed.

Answer 35

FTG pg 35 A: With the aircraft cleared and all actions announced, IVO take-off point and in direction of take-off, go to a stable 2' hover and compare the difference between hover TQ and MAX TQ Available. -Below 5% - Shallow & Normal approaches to large improved landing areas and normal take-offs -5% to 9% - Normal approaches and take-offs -10%-14% - PRCS - Pinnacles, Ridgelines, Confined Areas, Steep -15%+ - No restrictions FTG pg 36 B: Anytime the load or environmental conditions increase significantly; ≥ 50C, ≥ 500' PA and/or ≥ 100 lbs.

Question 36

TD 63 (48) What is the primary difference between a Procedure Turn and a Procedural Track?

Answer 36

**Procedure Turn;** Prescribed when it is necessary to reverse direction to establish an aircraft on the intermediate approach segment or final approach course. The point of turn, turn rates and type (Teardrop, standard 45 degree turn, 80/260, racetrack) is at the discretion of the pilot. However – the “Remain within distance” MUST be adhered to at all times. **Procedural Track;** There is no specific depiction for a Procedural Track. It may employ arcs, radials, courses or turns. When a specific flight path is required, Procedural Track symbology (heavy black line) is used to depict the flight path between IAF and FAF to show the intended ground track. Conform to the specific ground track shown on IAP.

Question 37

TD 63 (49) Define the following terms and show an example of each from an IAP publication: MSA (two types) MDA DA/DH

Answer 37

A: MSA - Minimum Safe Altitude Altitudes depicted which provide at least 1,000’ of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which a procedure is predicted. (Identified by Minimum Sector Altitude or Emergency Safe Altitude) B: MDA – Minimum Descent Altitude The lowest altitude, expressed in feet above MSL, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided. C: DA/DH - Decision Altitude / Decision Height With respect to the operation of aircraft, means the height at which a decision must be made, during an ILS, MLS (Microwave Landing System, or Precision Approach Radar instrument approach, to either continue the approach or to execute a missed approach.