daily sample questions Flashcards

1
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 pre sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, three toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which mammals have more then seven cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear and three toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which mammals have less then seven cervical vertebrae?

A

manatee and two toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does the term “coccyx’ refer to?

A

a cuckoo bird’s bill or a cuckoo bird’s beak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A

gender variation or sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic dimorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the length of the male cervical region?

A

12 centimeters or 5 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

28 centimeters or 11 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

18 centimeters or 7 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the length of the male sacrum?

A

12 centimeters or 5 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column……what is the length of the male spine?

A

58 centimeters and 23 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what specifically is responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

eyes and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- rectangular; thoracic- triangular; lumbar- reniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

ages 7 to 9 years- appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years- formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years- formation of the epiphyseal rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what large opening is usually found at the back of the vertebral body?

A

basivertebral venous foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body?

A

basivertebral vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- posterolateral
thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen in x-rays?

A

shingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the generic orienation if the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- anterolateral
thoracic- posterolateral
lumbar- lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse processes to accommodate their new postion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the TVP backward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

superior articular facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the name given to the bone surface at back of a zygapophysis?

A

inferior articular facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

in the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the?

A

pre-zygapophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

in the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the?

A

post-zygapophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/ post- zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, capsular ligament, the ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

vertebral body of the segment above, vertebral body of the segment below, intervertebral disc, and posterior longitudinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

inferior vertebral notch/ inferior vertebral incisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

superior vertebral notch/ superior vertebral incisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the under side of the spinous process and the horizontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of spinous processes as seen on an X-ray?

A

Imbrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous processes at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical- slight angle inferior
Thoracic- noticeable angle inferior
Lumbar- no inferior angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until L2?

A

The spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

Cervical- triangular
Thoracic-oval
Lumbar-triangular
Sacrum-triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and commonly accepted name?

A

Dura mater- tough mother
Arachnoid mater- spider mother
Pia mater- tender or delicate mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Name and locate each space between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord …?

A

Epidural space- between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
Subdural space- between the Dura Mater and arachnoid mater
Subarachnoid space-between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the contents of the epidural space?

A

Anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

Anterior and posterior Internal vertebral venous plexus

Basivertebral vein

Reccurrent meningeal/ sinu-vertebral/ sinus vertebral nerve

Hoffman/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

Ligamentum flavum

Posterior longitudinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus

Basivertebral vein

Recurrent meningeal/ sinu-vertebral/ sinus vertebral nerve

Posterior longitudinal ligament

Hoffman/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/ sinu-vertebral/ sinus vertebral nerve
Hoffman/anterior dural/meningiovertebral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the name given to the fluid with the subarchnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root, and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

65
Q

what vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial veins

66
Q

which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

67
Q

which vessels will drain the ventral/ anterior nerve roots?

A

anterior radicular veins

68
Q

which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

69
Q

what venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

70
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

71
Q

what is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

72
Q

what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, dural cul de sac

73
Q

in horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

74
Q

what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and name given to each?

A

C3-T1, cervical enlargement

T9-T-12, lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement

75
Q

where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

76
Q

what is the generic cord level of origin-vertebra level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra, S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

77
Q

what is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

78
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

S4, S5 and Co1

79
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1 vertebra

80
Q

the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on an angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

81
Q

what is the name given the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

82
Q

what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

83
Q

what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

84
Q

what is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

85
Q

what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple, the rib number related to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
ex) T3/T4 vertebral couple would articulate with rib 4 and T3 nerve would exit the intervertebral foramen

86
Q

what are the four tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural, and connective tissues

87
Q

what is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast- form bone, osteoclast- remodel bone, osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone

88
Q

what is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

89
Q

what types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfate, hyaluronic acid

90
Q

what is the principal type of protein fiber found in bone?

A

collagen type 1

91
Q

what is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapetite

92
Q

what are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

ability to Heal, Remodel to stressors, and Age

93
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

94
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

95
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

96
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to the fifth month in utero

97
Q

what bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

98
Q

what is the timing of appearance of a primary center of ossification?

A

before birth

99
Q

what is the timing of the appearance of a secondary center of ossification?

A

after birth

100
Q

what is the name of bone formed in a non bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

101
Q

what is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessary bone

102
Q

what are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

103
Q

what are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

104
Q

what are examples of pneumatic bones?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

105
Q

what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

106
Q

what are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded, and sharp

107
Q

what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, tuber or tuberosity, trochanter, protuberance and malleolus

108
Q

what are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear or rounded depressions

109
Q

what are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

110
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

fovea and fossa

111
Q

what are the names given to openings on the surface of bones?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

112
Q

what are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

113
Q

what are examples os osseous foramina?

A

the basivertebral venous foramen of vertebrae, the foramen oval of the sphenoid bone, and the jugular foramen of the temporal and occipital bones

114
Q

what are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

115
Q

what is the definition of a flat osseous facet?

A

a relatively planar or slightly curvilinear surface on bone for osseous articulation

116
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

117
Q

what is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

118
Q

how many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

119
Q

what is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

cranium

120
Q

what is the name given to the top of the adult skull?

A

calvaria or calva

121
Q

which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 3-7

122
Q

which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, true ribs, costae verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 1 and 2

123
Q

which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in a typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 8 and 9

124
Q

what ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skelton?

A

ribs 11 and 12

125
Q

what is the term used to identify the study of joints?

A

arthrology

126
Q

what term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

127
Q

what are the three histological classification of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joints

128
Q

what are the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

synarthosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

129
Q

what is the classification of a joint with a “nail-like” condition?

A

gomphosis

130
Q

what is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition?

A

schyndelysis

131
Q

what is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

synchondrosis

132
Q

what is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

symphysis

133
Q

what is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

A

malocclusion

134
Q

what type of ossification pattern typically forms the true suture?

A

intramembranous ossification

135
Q

what type of ossification pattern typically forms the false suture?

A

endochondral ossification

136
Q

what is the synonym for amphiarthosis joints?

A

cartilage joints

137
Q

what is the classification of primary cartilage joints?

A

(amphiarthosis) synchondrosis

138
Q

what is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?

A

(amphiarthosis) symphysis

139
Q

what type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthosis) symphysis?

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

140
Q

what type of cartilage is characteristic of secondary cartilage joint?

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

141
Q

which example of an (amphiarthosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

142
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular cartilage, synovial fluid, synovial membrane, articular or fibrous capsule

143
Q

thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form?

A

capsular ligament

144
Q

what generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

145
Q

what is the generic function of ligaments?

A

stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

146
Q

what are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint at “rest”

147
Q

what are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

they resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

148
Q

what are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

resemble Golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

149
Q

type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

150
Q

type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligaments of the spine

151
Q

what are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A

articular, vaginal, and bursal synovial membranes

152
Q

what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

153
Q

what is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?

A

a bursa between integument and bone

154
Q

what is the location of subtendinous synovial bursa?

A

bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage

155
Q

what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

phagocytic

156
Q

what are the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

157
Q

what are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A

water, cells, collagen type II fibers and proteogylcan gel

158
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

159
Q

cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as _________?

A

deformation