Daily System Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Which doors are not monitored by the PSEU system?
A
Aft equipment bay door / system hatch
2
Q
What limitations are placed on the passenger door?
A
4 passengers or 1,000lbs
3
Q
Which door(s) are not integral parts of the pressure vessel?
A
Aft equipment bay door and TRU bay
4
Q
What would happen if the PFD was to fail in flight? What panel could be used to provide PFD information?
A
Display revisionary panel on the MFD
5
Q
At what altitude during a descent does the Radio Altimeter begin indicating altitude information on the PFD?
A
2,500
6
Q
Which panel and knob is used to display white needles or green needles on the PFD?
A
Display control panel and the NAV source selector
7
Q
What will occur when airspeed drops to the low speed cue (snake)?
A
Shakers
8
Q
How is aircraft yaw represented on the PFD?
A
The brick on the AH
9
Q
Which air data computer normally provides information to the first officer’s PFD?
A
ADC 2
10
Q
What is the difference between the MAG and DG settings on the COMPASS panel?
A
DG is slewed and the MAG is slaved
11
Q
Which panel is used to set approach minimums (DH or MDA)?
A
Air Data Reference Panel
12
Q
What is the function of the AIR DATA and ATTD HDG knobs on the SOURCE SELECTOR panel?
A
Switch between ADC 1/2 and AHRS 1/2
13
Q
What are the two main components of an IDG?
A
CSD and generator
14
Q
What medium does the CSD use to change variable engine speed to a constant output speed?
A
Self contained oil
15
Q
What type of electrical power do the generators produce?
A
AC
16
Q
What is the sequence of AC Generator priority and what controls it?
A
Controlled by the GCU
* Onside generator
* APU
* Cross side generator
* ADG
* Ground Power
17
Q
If the number one generator fails in cruise flight, from where will the AC ESS Bus receive power?
A
AC Bus 1
18
Q
When will the AC ESS XFER light be illuminated?
A
When AC bus 1 is not powering the essential bus
19
Q
What does an amber AUTO XFER FAIL message indicate
A
Bus fail or fault
20
Q
What will cause an IDG to automatically disconnect?
A
Overheat / over torque
21
Q
If an IDG disconnects in flight, can it be reconnected?
A
No
22
Q
Which busses are receiving power in the service configuration?
A
DC service bus and APU battery direct bus
23
Q
When will the AC Utility Busses automatically load shed (in flight and on the ground)?
A
Loss of generator power in the air. Doors closed flaps down will shed on ground.
24
Q
With AC power supplied, what does the DC Service switch control?
A
DC service bus, AC service, DC utility
25
From which sources can the AC ESS Bus receive power?
AC bus 1/2, ADG
26
Which DC TIEs operate automatically, and which ones operate manually
DC 1/2 automatic and manual
Essential is manual only
27
When will the ADG automatically deploy and what does it power?
Total loss of AC power
Powers AC essential bus
28
Which generator and bus parameters do the GCUs monitor?
Onside engines
Priority to its related side
29
What will cause a fault light to illuminate in the IDG switchlight?
HOT LOP
High Oil Temp / Low Oil Pressure
30
The FIRE DETECTION system is being tested for what when the TEST switch is selected to the WARN position.
Simulates a fire
31
The FIRE DETECTION system is being tested for what when the TEST switch is taken to the FAIL position.
Simulates a short
32
What indications should be present when the TEST switch is taken to the FAIL position?
Fire Fail
Jet Fail
APU Fail
33
What indications should be present when the TEST switch is taken to the WARN position?
L/R Jet pipe overheat
Firebell
Tripple chime
L/R Engine Fire
Oral Jet pipe overheat
Fire source lights
Bottle switch lights
34
Which aircraft components are being tested when the APU or ENGINE BOTTLE switches are in the TEST position?
Fire suppression systems
35
The FIRE DETECTION system incorporates how many bottles of Halon for engine fire extinguishing?
2 total for both engines
36
What EICAS indications are present if an engine bottle has been discharged
L/R Squib 1/2
37
What possible problems exist if an ENG FIRE FAIL message is displayed?
Loop short
38
List the functions of the ENG FIRE switch.
Arm the bottle
Bleed SOV closed
Fuel SOV Closed
Hydolic SOV Closed
Turn off IDG
39
What is the FMA and where is it located?
Flight Mode Annuciater
Located above the AH
40
Where is “armed” FMA information displayed?
To the right and dispayed in white
41
Does the autopilot control the rudder?
No
42
Pushing a TOGA button on the ground before takeoff performs what function?
Activates Takeoff mode
Configures for possition
43
Pushing a TOGA button in flight performs what function?
Go Around Mode
44
At cruise with the autopilot engaged, what FCP functions must be accomplished in order to descend?
Setting an altitude lower than current and a verticle mode
45
What is the flight director’s “Basic” mode? What is the difference between the ALT and ALTS flight director modes?
Pitch / Roll
ALTS is a captured
and ALT is held current alt
46
What is the recommended method to engage the autopilot?
Verticle mode, Lateral mode, autopilot on
47
What is the normal method to disengage the autopilot?
AP disc on yoke
48
What is the correct way to remove the flight directors from both PFD’s?
PF flight director mode off
49
When does the FCC 1 only control FD 1?
Takeoff, app, and go around
50
After making a selection of the FCP, two green lights illuminate on each side of the button that has been depressed. These two green lights indicate what?
The FCP has acknoledged the button press
51
What is the difference between the CLB and IAS flight director modes?
CLB protects with atleast 50' per minute
IAS will do whatever to capture airspeed mode
52
What is 10th stage bleed air used for?
Packs and engine start
53
What is 14th stage bleed air used for?
Anti-ice
Reversers
54
How are the 10th & 14th SOVs and ISOL valves controlled and operated?
Controlled electronically and operated pneumaticly
55
In what position do the 10th & 14th stage SOVs and ISOL valves fail?
10th closed
14th open
56
What is the difference between a huffer and a bottle? Why is it important to know which you are using?
* Huffer is high pressure and can help start your engine
* Bottle is one shot
57
What sources can pressurize the 10th stage bleed air manifold? What about the 14th stage?
10th APU, L/R Engine
14th L/R Engine
58
The 10th stage “Interlock Protection” circuit is based upon what?
If engines SOVs are open the LCV closes
59
How are bleed air leaks detected in the 10th stage system?
Leak detection duel loops
60
How are bleed air leaks detected in the 14th stage system?
Leak detection single loops
61
When the DUCT MON switch is in the TEST position, what system is being tested for electrical continuity?
Duct Mon loops
5 Duct fail lights
Oral duct fail
Test OK EICAS
62
When is it not permissible to bleed 10th and 14th stage bleed air from the engines simultaneously? Why?
Takeoff, Landing, Go around.
It reduces thrust
63
Which ACMP is normally in the ON position with power supplied to the aircraft?
3A
64
How are hydraulic systems 1 & 2 cooled?
Ram air/fluid heat exchanger
65
While in normal flight, when will hydraulic 1B pump come on automatically?
When flaps are out of zero
66
If the ADG is deployed in flight, which hydraulic pump does it automatically power?
3B
67
With both engines’ shutdown, when can the APU power hydraulic pumps 1 & 2 B?
When the switches are in the on position
68
Which hydraulic pumps are not available if the number 2 engine fails in flight?
1B and 2A
69
How many Hydraulic systems are normally used to power the rudder?
All 3
70
What is motive flow, and what provides it on the CRJ?
High pressure fuel goes into a venturi, increases velocity, and creates low pressure suction as it exits. Engine driven high pressure fuel pump.
71
Which pumps can provide fuel to the engines?
Boost pumps and main ejectors
72
The XFER ejectors move fuel from where to where?
Center to wing tanks
73
The SCAVENGE ejectors move fuel from where to where?
From the wings to the collectors
74
What button on the FUEL PANEL would you press to transfer fuel from the center tank to a wing tank?
It does it itself
75
With the fuel crossflow system in AUTO, what is the function of the L and R switchlights on the fuel panel?
Indicate where the fuel is being transfered to
76
Describe the actions you would take to transfer fuel from the left wing to the right wing in manual mode?
Push in the XFLOW Auto Override and the low tank
77
When does the amber FUEL IMBALANCE message appear?
800lbs
78
When does auto crossflow (wing to wing) take place?
200lbs imbalance
79
How is fuel heated?
Oil heat exchanger on the engines
80
How many of the STALL PCT PUSHER switches must be on for the pusher to operate?
Both
81
After pulling and turning the ROLL DISC handle what does the illumination of the ROLL SEL light indicate?
Who has control
82
After disconnecting the aileron torque tube via the ROLL DISC handle, can the torque tube be reconnected?
Yes
83
While in normal cruise flight the PLT ROLL switch-light illuminates indicating what?
Pilot that has control of the roll
84
What conditions must be met for all of the GLD to automatically deploy? (Spoilers)
Weight on wheel
Trust levers idle
Wheel speed
RA active
85
What is the STAB TRIM priority?
Pilot, Co pilot, auto pilot, auto trim, mach trim
86
How many PCUs power the: a) ailerons, b) elevator, and c) rudder?
Ailerons: 2
Elevator: 6 (3 each side)
Rudder: 3
87
Which stage bleed air does the wing anti-ice system use?
14th
88
What are the main differences between NORM and STBY on the wing anti-ice?
Norm will maintain 107°
Standby begins heating when it gets too cold
89
During flight with at least one generator on line can the probe heat be turned off?
No always on with weight off wheels
90
What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve?
isolate the two side of the 14th stage or connect the wing anti ice
91
Is it possible to cross bleed cowl anti-ice?
No
92
While in normal cruise flight the amber ICE message is displayed. What is the correct action.
Wing Anti ice on / Cowl anti ice on
93
What is the difference between a “WING OVHT” message and an “ANTI ICE DUCT” message?
One is an overheat and one is a leak
94
If the DISPLAY FAN on the AVIONICS COOLING panel is in the NORM position, which fans operate in flight?
Flight fan
95
What is the CPAM and what are its functions?
Monitors status of cabin pressure. Sends message about cabin pressure cautions and warnings. Sends message about oxygen masks and deployment
96
What happens when the EMER DEPRESS button is pushed in cruise flight at FL 240?
Outflow valves open and cabin alt clibs to 14,500
97
Which aircraft components control the outflow valves?
Manual rate dial
98
What will the PACKs automatically shut down for?
Over temp / over pressure
99
When transferring the PACKs bleed source to the APU, what is the correct sequence when pushing the 10th stage bleed switchlights?
A- APU LCV
L- Left
I- ISOL
R- Right
100
What is the difference between Auto and Manual PACK temperature control?
No fault protection in manual
101
What happens when the RAM AIR switch is depressed in normal cruise flight?
Nothing
102
What is the difference between CARGO FAN and CARGO COND AIR?
Cargo fan is recirculating air
Cargo Cond has a heater
103
What component of the aircraft generates EICAS messages?
DCUs
103
Which buttons on the ECP will remain active in the event of an ECP microprocessor failure?
Step
104
What is the function of the EICAS knob on the SOURCE SELECT panel?
Move ED1 to ED2 or the opposit
105
What actions are required to “CHECK and CLEAR” the EICAS?
Box messages
106
If multiple caution messages are displayed on the EICAS, in what order are they displayed?
Chronologicaly from red to amber
107
What is the “Dark Cockpit” concept?
Dark is normal
108
How many compressor stages does the CF34-3B1 have?
14
109
How many low and high-pressure power turbine stages does the CF34-3B1 have?
Low pressure: 4 stages
High pressure: 2 stages
110
Which ignition system does the DC Battery Bus power?
B
111
When should the engine starter cut out?
55% N2
112
What actions must be taken (from memory) when a hot start is observed?
* Trust levers idle
* Ignition off
* Dry motor
113
Which engine ignition system is supplied continuous ignition with the CONT switchlight?
A and B
114
What actions must be taken (from memory) when the starter fails to cut out?
Stop engine starter
115
The speed switches in the “ON” position allow what components to be powered?
ECUs
116
When does N1 speed governing take place?
Above 79% N1
117
What are the arming parameters for the APR?
Both engine speed switches on
Above 79% N1
118
Once armed, how long will the APR remain armed?
5 min
119
What conditions must be met for the APR system to activate?
Either engine goes below 68% N1
120
What conditions must be met for the Thrust Reversers to arm?
Switches to arm
Respective 14th stage bleed valve open
121
What do the blocker doors redirect when the Thrust Reversers are deployed?
Bipass air
122
What conditions must be met for the Thrust Reversers to deploy?
Weight on wheels
Levers idle
123
Which hydraulic system powers the NWS?
3
124
Can the gear horn be muted?
Yes
125
126
The Anti-skid System provides protection down to what speed?
10 kias
127
What are the limitations placed on the BTMS?
15 min cool off required
Takeoff not authorized with with over 5 on the temp indicator of any wheel
128
Describe the Anti-Skid test on the Before Start Checklist
Barking break off
Hold to test position
Inboard/outboard EICAS message
Release test switch
Messages go away
Parking Break on
129
What are the 4 TCAS traffic symbols and what do they represent?
White - no factor
Blue - near by
Yellow - advisory
Red - RA
130
How many frequencies can be tuned by each NAV radio?
2
131
What does it mean to put a NAV radio in AUTOTUNE?
It will autotune nearby nav source and ID it
132
What will prevent a NAV radio from being in AUTOTUNE?
Active on the PFD
133
Can the FMS navigate without the GPS?
Yes
134
What navigation options are available to you if the FMS fails in flight?
Ground based or dead reckoning mode
135
Is there any time you are not required to comply with a TCAS RA?
Limited by perforance
or you know its a false indication
136
Where in the aircraft are the COM and NAV radios installed?
In the avionics bay
137
What is the function of the EMER position of the Emergency / Normal switch on the pilot’s Audio Control Panel?
Put the pilot com into com 1
138
What is the function of the 1 / 2 button on the RTU?
Two to switch between RTUs to change frequencies
139
If RTU 1 is inoperative, are COM 1 and NAV 1 accessible?
Yes via the 1/2 switches
140
When does the CVR begin to operate?
Power applied to aircraft
141
When does the FDR begin to operate?
Beacon, strobes or weight off wheels
142
Describe the indications of “performance increasing” windshear.
Amber windsheer alert
143
What will the AFCS do during a “performance increasing” windshear?
Nothing
144
Describe the indications of a “performance decreasing” windshear.
Red windshear alert
Verbal warning
145
What will the AFCS do during a “performance decreasing” windshear?
Disconnect
146
Passenger oxygen is provided by what?
Chemical generator
or bottle in the 850
147
Crew oxygen is provided by what?
Bottle
148
When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
Cabin pressure alt at or above 14,000
149
Where should you look to determine if you have enough oxygen to carry a jumpseater?
Limitations OM Vol 1
150
What is the power source for the Emergency Lights?
4 batteries in the ceiling
151
While in the ARM position, when will the Emergency Lights automatically illuminate?
Total loss of AC Power
152
What, besides the beacon, is powered with the Beacon switch while on the ground?
FDR (Flight Data Recorder)
153
Which aircraft component controls all APU operations?
ECU
154
The APU will automatically shut down for which conditions in flight?
Critical failure
155
From which tanks does the APU normally receive fuel?
Left and right
156
The illumination of the green AVAIL light on the APU START / STOP switch indicates what?
Ready to accept bleed air loading
157
Given: The aircraft is at the gate. The APU is supplying electrical and pneumatic power to the aircraft per the First Flight Check. (The Packs are on). How will the 10th stage valves be affected if the left 10th SOV switchlight is selected open?
Nothing will happen
158
While starting the APU, what indications on the EICAS displays are presented by pressing the APU PWR FUEL switchlight?
APU in Bite
APU SOV Open
APU Indications appear on ED2
APU door open
159
When starting the APU in flight, why must the PWR FUEL and the START/STOP buttons be pressed in “rapid succession”?
The APU will windmill and potentially cause damage when starting
160
What is the purpose of the Immediate Action Card? What type of checklist items are on the Immediate Action Card?
Immediate action / emergency items
161
What does it mean when a checklist title is in CAPITAL LETTERS?
Its a memory item
162
Which checklists consider multiple malfunctions?
QRH
163
Where is the MEL located?
EFB
164
What time zone is MEL expiration based upon?
Zulu
