Davis Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

3 important products of the Cox I pathway?

A

Thromboxane A2
PGE2
PGI2

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2
Q

How can you avoid adverse reactions with NSAIDs?

A

Dr. P

know your Drug, the Risk factors, and your Patient

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3
Q

Most common adverse event seen with NSAID use? Cause?

A

Gastrointestinal problems

Cause: overdosing

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4
Q

Which side effect of NSAIDs can be avoided by making sure the animal has free access to water?

A

Kidney problems

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5
Q

Why is acetaminophen different from traditional NSAIDs?

A

It doesn’t inhibit Cox I or Cox II; it acts UPSTREAM and inhibits their precursors

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6
Q

The use of which NSAID is contraindicated in cats?

A

Acetaminophen

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7
Q

Excluding Acetaminophen, name 3 non-preferential NSAIDs

A

Aspirin
Fluixin meglumine
Phenylbutazone

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8
Q

Name 2 Cox-II preferential NSAIDs

A

Carprofen

Meloxicam

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9
Q

Name the 3 Cox II selective NSAIDs

A

Deracoxib
Firocoxib
Robenacoxib

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10
Q

Though aspirin is an NSAID, what is its primary indication?

A

antithrombotic properties (inhibits platelet activity)

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11
Q

Which non-preferential NSAID is primarily indicated for equine use?

A

Fluixin meglumine

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12
Q

Which NSAID cannot be given as IM injection and why?

A

Fluixin meglumine;

will cause clostridial myositis

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13
Q

Which NSAID, commonly used to treat musculoskeletal pain in horses and cattle, is toxic to cats?

A

Phenylbutazone

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14
Q

If phenybutazone is given outside the vein, what can happen?

A

necrosis of tissue

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15
Q

A Cox I: Cox 2 ratio that’s >1 indicates what?

A

The drug will preferentially bind Cox II compared to Cox I

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16
Q

Which Cox-II preferential drugs was the first to be approved for animal use?

A

Carprofen

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17
Q

Which Cox-II pref drug is popular among zoo, wildlife, and exotic animals?

A

Meloxicam

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18
Q

Which NSAID puts cats at risk for renal failure and thus should only be given as a single dose?

A

Meloxicam

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19
Q

Which Cox-II selective NSAID was first approved for use in dogs?

A

Deracoxib

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20
Q

Which Cox-II selective NSAID is associated with ELDU? How?

A

Firocoxib

People using the chews to treat horses when the chews are for dogs

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21
Q

Which Cox-II selective NSAID is specifically approved for use in cats?

A

Robenacoxib

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22
Q

Which area of the body has the highest concentration of mast cells?

A

Skin

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23
Q

Major “shock organ” of cats, cows, sheep, and humans

A

Lungs (bronchoconstriction)

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24
Q

Name 4 important locations of histamine receptors?

A

Pre-capillary arterioles
post-capillary arterioles
cardiac (H2)
smooth muscle

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25
Describe an important regulatory function of histamine in the GI tract
stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl
26
How do physiologic histamine antagonists differ from the drugs we use to antagonize histamine?
Physiologic antagonists just perform functions that are OPPOSITE to histamine, but they do not bind or occupy histamine's receptor
27
Name 2 important differences between 1st and 2nd generation anti-histamines
2nd generation antihistamines - -LESS Lipophilic (don't cross BBB and cause sedation) - -preferentially bind peripheral H1 receptors
28
Name the model 1st and 2nd generation antihistamines
1st--Diphenhydramine | 2nd- Loratadine
29
Which group of drugs should be used with caution in pregnant animals due to risk to the fetus?
Antihistamines
30
Describe the signals involved with appetite regulation?
BG in low-->lateral hypothalamus turns on-->feel hungry-->eat-->BG rises-->ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus turns on-->stop eating
31
Name the neurotransmitters responsible for 1) Appetite stimulation (4) 2) Decreasing food intake (2)
1) GABA, Dopamine, NE, Ghrelin | 2) Serotonin, Calcitonin
32
Name the 3 areas of the brain capable of stimulating emesis?
Emetic center CRTZ Vestibular apparatus
33
Which receptors are common to all 3 areas that control emesis?
Histamine (H1) Serotonin Acetylcholine
34
Name the PRIMARY receptor in the following locations: 1) CRTZ 2) Vestibular apparatus
1) Dopamine (D2) | 2) Histamine (H1)
35
Apomorphine: MOA and area it functions at?
Dopamine (D2) agonist; works in CRTZ
36
Meclizine: Receptor and location(s) of action?
Histamine H1 antagonist | CRTZ and vestibular apparatus
37
Metoclopramide: Receptor and location(s) of action?
dopamine antagonist | CRTZ
38
Which model anti-emetic drug, when given at high doses, can inhibit receptors in all three areas associated with vomiting? Which receptor?
Metocloproamide; | can target serotonin receptors
39
Which anti-emetic is also an appetite stimulant? MOA?
Cyproheptadine | Serotonin antagonist
40
A serotonin antagonist that can works in all 3 emetic areas (more powerful than Cyproheptadine)
Ondansetron
41
Maropitant: Receptor and location(s) of action?
NK-1 receptor blocker (prevents substance P interaction) | Emetic center and CRTZ
42
Name the receptor interactions associated with metoclopramide?
Antagonizes: Dopamine and Serotonin (5-HT-3) Agonist: Serotonin (5-HT-4)
43
Bismuth subsalicylate: 1) what's it used for 2) MOA
1) anti-diarrheal | 2) anti-secretory by inhibiting prostaglandin production; also protectant
44
How can NSAIDs and steroids lead to ulcer formation in small animals?
NSAIDs decrease prostaglandin synthesis (important for mucous and bicarb secretion) Steroids increase gastric acid formation
45
Which area of the equine stomach is most prone to ulceration?
Non-glandular epithelium
46
Name the product of each of the cell types: 1) parietal cells 2) enterochromaffin cells 3) G cells 4) Chief cells 5) D cells
1) HCl 2) histamine (stimulates HCl) 3) Gastrin 4) pepsinogen 5) somtatostatin (reduces acid secretion)
47
Omeprazole: | MOA? Why does it take so long to be effective?
Proton pump inhibitor; has to populate ALL pumps to be effective
48
Famotidine & Ranitidine: | MOA? Are the effects immediate or delayed?
H2 receptor antagonist; immediate effects (reduction in acid secretion)
49
What is an additional positive outcome of using Ranitidine?
inhibits acetylcholinesterase which increases motility in GI tract (prokinetic)
50
What is an additional positive feature of Famotidine?
It has a long duration of action (once daily dosing)
51
Name 3 drugs important in the "roll" aspect of ulcer treatment
Magnesium Hydroxide Sucralfate Misoprostel
52
Which ulcer drug is especially useful in NSAID-induced gastric ulcers? Special precautions?
Misoprostel don't use around pregnant women
53
Define: Protectant Adsorbent
1) coats the GI epithelium to prevent irritation/erosion | 2) physically binds chemical compounds to prevent their absorption
54
Kaloin & Pectin MOA?
used together; bind bacteria and their products (anti-diarrhea)
55
How do laxatives and cathartic differ?
Laxative--promote elimination of soft-stool Cathartics--promote fluid evacuation (pull fluid into GI tract)
56
Emollient: Model drug? How does it work?
Mineral Oil | coats the surface of the stool/impaction-->lubricated surface= easier passage
57
Simple Bulk: model drug? how does it work?
Psyllium seed | absorbs water and causes impaction to expand-->colonic distention and reflex peristalsis
58
3 different classes of cathartics?
Osmotic irritant enemas
59
Two drugs that represent osmotic cathartics?
Magnesium hydroxide | Lactulose
60
What's an additional benefit of using lactulose?
Acidifies colon contents which attracts ammonia to be expelled (good for PSS)
61
Model drugs for liver protection?
Ursodiol | SAMe
62
Which drug can be used to treat cholestasis?
Ursodiol
63
This drug is a useful supplement in liver disease and can also be used to help treat aceteminophen toxicity in cats
SAMe