Day 2

Question 1

True or False

Allergic reactions to latex symptoms include: urticaria, itching, stuffy or runny nose, asthma-like symptoms, anaphylaxis.

Answer 1

True

Urticaria- hives
Anaphylaxis- severe allergic reaction

Question 2

Administers an electric shock to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm.

Defibrillation
Myocardial infarction
Angina pectoris

Answer 2

Defibrillation

Example -Automatic external defibrillator (AED)

Question 3

Heart attack usually due to an occluded vessel.
Symptoms- intense crushing chest pain. Pain may be in the left arm, jaw, or neck.

Myocardial infarction
Angina pectoris

Answer 3

Myocardial infarction

Treatment- pain meds, aspirin, oxygen, vasodilating and/or clot-dissolving drugs.

Angina pectoris- Coronary arteries are unable to supply the heart with sufficient oxygen with substernal pain.

Question 4

Coronary arteries are unable to supply the heart with sufficient oxygen with substernal pain.

Myocardial infarction
Angina pectoris

Answer 4

Angina pectoris

Treatment- rest, vasodilating meds (nitroglycerin)

Myocardial infarction- Heart attack usually due to an occluded vessel.

Question 5

Check for carotid pulse and observe respiration. If the patient has stopped breathing, or if no pulse is detected, call a code and administer CPR. Once the code team arrives, assist by keeping records of medication administration, assisting with a cardiac monitor, and defibrillator (AED).

Cardiac arrest
Airway obstruction
Reactive airway disease
Pulmonary embolism

Answer 5

Cardiac arrest

Question 6

Call a code and prepare suction. Blind finger sweeps SHOULD NOT be performed. The Heimlich Manueuver is effective when objects are lodged in a person’s trachea

Cardiac arrest
Airway obstruction
Reactive airway disease
Pulmonary embolism

Answer 6

Airway obstruction

Stridor- harsh sound on inspiration

Question 7

General term that describes coughing, wheezing, or shortness of breath with an undetermined cause. Asthma may be a possible cause.

Cardiac arrest
Airway obstruction
Reactive airway disease
Pulmonary embolism

Answer 7

Reactive airway disease

Treatment- oxygen, bronchodilator, subcutaneoud injection of epinephrine

Question 8

Substance such as a blood clot lodges in a vessel interrupting the flow of blood to the lungs.

Cardiac arrest
Airway obstruction
Reactive airway disease
Pulmonary embolism

Answer 8

Pulmonary embolism

Treatment- anticoagulation therapy (heparin and/or warfarin), oxygen

Question 9

Glasgow coma scale is a numerical scale that can be used to objectively assess changes in a patient’s:

Cardiac rhythm
Oxygen saturation levels
Level of consciousness (LOC)

Answer 9

Level of consciousness (LOC)

Levels of Consciousness (LOC)
1. alert and conscious
2. drowsy, but responsive
3. unconscious, but reactive to painful stimuli
4. comatose

Question 10

Procedure where a surgical opening is made through the chest wall and a tube is inserted between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura.

Thoracotomy
Thoracentesis
Hemorrhage
Cardiac tamponade
Flail chest

Answer 10

Thoracotomy

Treats Pneumothorax & Hemothorax.

Thoracotomy- surgical opening is made through the chest wall and a tube is inserted between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura.
Thoracentesis- tubing connected to a water seal chest drainage system that assists the lung to expand by removing fluid or air from the pleural space.

Question 11

Tubing may be connected to a water seal chest drainage system that assists the lung to expand by removing fluid or air from the pleural space.

Thoracotomy
Thoracentesis
Hemorrhage
Cardiac tamponade
Flail chest

Answer 11

Thoracentesis

Ascites- fluid build up

Chest drainage unit stays below the level of the patient’s chest (bed/stretcher)

Thoracotomy- surgical opening is made through the chest wall and a tube is inserted between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura.
Thoracentesis- tubing connected to a water seal chest drainage system that assists the lung to expand by removing fluid or air from the pleural space.

Question 12

Excessive bleeding:

Thoracotomy
Thoracentesis
Hemorrhage
Cardiac tamponade
Flail chest

Answer 12

Hemorrhage

Question 13

Bruising of the heart and hemorrhage into the pericardium
(Ex: MVA, driver hit the steering wheel with his or her torso).

Thoracotomy
Thoracentesis
Hemorrhage
Cardiac tamponade
Flail chest

Answer 13

Cardiac tamponade

Question 14

Structural integrity of the chest wall is lost and the lung collapses.

Thoracotomy
Thoracentesis
Hemorrhage
Cardiac tamponade
Flail chest

Answer 14

Flail chest

Rib fractures may result in Flail Chest

Question 15

True or False

Post-surgical wound dehiscence occurs when a suture line separates and can lead to evisceration (loss of organs from a body cavity).

Answer 15

True

Question 16

General term used to describe failure of circulation in which the blood pressure is inadequate to support the perfusion of oxygen to the vital tissues, and the removal of the by-products of metabolism.

Shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock

Answer 16

Shock

Syncope- fainting, a mild form of shock
Early signs of shock are pallor (pale skin), low blood pressure, increased heart rate and respiration, and restlessness or confusion.

Shock- General term used to describe failure of circulation

Hypovolemic shock- insufficient amount of fluid is available to fill the circulatory system.

Septic shock- Massive infection, causing the blood pressure to drop sharply.

Neurogenic shock- blood to pool in the peripheral vessels.
Ex: Patients with head or spinal trauma

Cardiogenic shock- Results from cardiac failure or interference with heart function.
Ex: Cardiac tamponade (Bruising of the heart and hemorrhage)

Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock- individuals are exposed to foreign substances causing rapidly falling blood pressure.

Question 17

Occurs when such a large amount of blood or plasma has been lost that an insufficient amount of fluid is available to fill the circulatory system.

Shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock

Answer 17

Hypovolemic shock

Shock- General term used to describe failure of circulation

Hypovolemic shock- insufficient amount of fluid is available to fill the circulatory system.

Septic shock- Massive infection, causing the blood pressure to drop sharply.

Neurogenic shock- blood to pool in the peripheral vessels.
Ex: Patients with head or spinal trauma

Cardiogenic shock- Results from cardiac failure or interference with heart function.
Ex: Cardiac tamponade (Bruising of the heart and hemorrhage)

Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock- individuals are exposed to foreign substances causing rapidly falling blood pressure.

Question 18

Massive infection produces toxins that increase capillary permeability and vasodilation, causing the blood pressure to drop sharply.

Shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock

Answer 18

Septic shock

Shock- General term used to describe failure of circulation

Hypovolemic shock- insufficient amount of fluid is available to fill the circulatory system.

Septic shock- Massive infection, causing the blood pressure to drop sharply.

Neurogenic shock- blood to pool in the peripheral vessels.
Ex: Patients with head or spinal trauma

Cardiogenic shock- Results from cardiac failure or interference with heart function.
Ex: Cardiac tamponade (Bruising of the heart and hemorrhage)

Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock- individuals are exposed to foreign substances causing rapidly falling blood pressure.

Question 19

Failure of arterial resistance causes blood to pool in the peripheral vessels. Ex: Patients with head or spinal trauma

Shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock

Answer 19

Neurogenic shock

Shock- General term used to describe failure of circulation

Hypovolemic shock- insufficient amount of fluid is available to fill the circulatory system.

Septic shock- Massive infection, causing the blood pressure to drop sharply.

Neurogenic shock- blood to pool in the peripheral vessels.
Ex: Patients with head or spinal trauma

Cardiogenic shock- Results from cardiac failure or interference with heart function.
Ex: Cardiac tamponade (Bruising of the heart and hemorrhage)

Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock- individuals are exposed to foreign substances causing rapidly falling blood pressure.

Question 20

Results from cardiac failure or interference with heart function. Also pulmonary embolism can affect the heart function.
Ex: Cardiac tamponade (bruising of the heart and hemorrhage)

Shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock

Answer 20

Cardiogenic shock

Shock- General term used to describe failure of circulation

Hypovolemic shock- insufficient amount of fluid is available to fill the circulatory system.

Septic shock- Massive infection, causing the blood pressure to drop sharply.

Neurogenic shock- blood to pool in the peripheral vessels.
Ex: Patients with head or spinal trauma

Cardiogenic shock- Results from cardiac failure or interference with heart function.
Ex: Cardiac tamponade (Bruising of the heart and hemorrhage)

Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock- individuals are exposed to foreign substances causing rapidly falling blood pressure.

Question 21

Occurs when individuals are exposed to foreign substances to which they have become sensitized causing rapidly falling blood pressure. Epinephrine may be given.

Shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock

Answer 21

Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock

Shock- General term used to describe failure of circulation

Hypovolemic shock- insufficient amount of fluid is available to fill the circulatory system.

Septic shock- Massive infection, causing the blood pressure to drop sharply.

Neurogenic shock- blood to pool in the peripheral vessels.
Ex: Patients with head or spinal trauma

Cardiogenic shock- Results from cardiac failure or interference with heart function.
Ex: Cardiac tamponade (Bruising of the heart and hemorrhage)

Anaphylaxis (Allergic) shock- individuals are exposed to foreign substances causing rapidly falling blood pressure.

Question 22

Problems with the kidneys or pituitary gland causing glucose to be excreted in the urine while blood glucose levels remain normal.

Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Hypoglycemia

Answer 22

Diabetes insipidus

Characterized by polyuria (increased urination) and thirst.
Fluid replacement is essential.

Diabetes insipidus- glucose to be excreted in the urine
Diabetes mellitus- inability to metabolize blood glucose
Hypoglycemia- (low blood sugar) when patient takes insulin but ate no food

Question 23

Inability to metabolize blood glucose. Insufficient insulin prevents the use of glucose by the muscles, causing the glucose level in the blood to rise (hyperglycemia).

Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Hypoglycemia
Seizure

Answer 23

Diabetes mellitus

Patient may be thirsty, have fruity smelling breath, urinate often, and may be close to a diabetic coma. Treatment may include diet, exercise, insulin and/or hypoglycemic agents.

Diabetes insipidus- glucose to be excreted in the urine
Diabetes mellitus- inability to metabolize blood glucose
Hypoglycemia- (Low blood sugar) when patient takes insulin but ate no food

Question 24

(Low blood sugar) Diabetic patient who has taken insulin but eaten no food may develop this.

Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Hypoglycemia
Seizure

Answer 24

Hypoglycemia

Patients are usually weak, sweating, may have tremors, hungry, and can lose consciousness. Treatment can include candy, sweet fruit juice, or squeeze tubes containing glucose.

Diabetes insipidus- glucose to be excreted in the urine
Diabetes mellitus- inability to metabolize blood glucose
Hypoglycemia- (Low blood sugar) when patient takes insulin but ate no food

Question 25

Occurs as a result of a focal or generalized disturbance of brain function and can progress to a loss of consciousness (LOC). Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus Hypoglycemia Seizure

Answer 25

Seizure ## Footnote As a seizure begins, assist patients into the supine position, and make sure the patient doesn’t fall. As the seizure passes, turn the patient to a lateral recumbent position to prevent aspiration.

Question 26

Inner ear disturbance causing a “whirling room” and can cause violent nausea Vertigo Orthostatic hypotension Epistaxis

Answer 26

Vertigo ## Footnote Nausea/vomiting- focus on breathing can help, meds can help, offer emesis basin, sit patient upright or lay on side, rinse mouth of barium Vertigo- Inner ear disturbance causing a “whirling room” and can cause violent nausea Orthostatic hypotension- Blood pools in the extremities and causes anoxia (lack of O2) to the head and “dizziness”

Question 27

Blood pools in the extremities and causes anoxia (lack of O2) to the head and “dizziness” Vertigo Orthostatic hypotension Epistaxis

Answer 27

Orthostatic hypotension ## Footnote EX: standing up too fast Vertigo- Inner ear disturbance causing a “whirling room” and can cause violent nausea Orthostatic hypotension- Blood pools in the extremities and causes anoxia (lack of O2) to the head and “dizziness”

Question 28

Nosebleed: Vertigo Orthostatic hypotension Epistaxis

Answer 28

Epistaxis ## Footnote keep head level, breathe through the mouth and apply pressure.

Question 29

Microorganisms capable of causing disease. Pathogen Reservoir Portal of Exit Mode of Transmission Portal of Entry Susceptible Host

Answer 29

Pathogen ## Footnote *Remember PRETEH for order*

Question 30

Any place where pathogens resides and can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat. Environment must be moist, provide nutrients, and a suitable temperature. Pathogen Reservoir Portal of Exit Mode of Transmission Portal of Entry Susceptible Host

Answer 30

Reservoir ## Footnote *Remember PRETEH for order* Humans are the most common reservoir. Non human reservoirs include animals, soil, food, and water. Reservoir- Any place where pathogens resides and can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat. Susceptible Host- Patients who have a reduced natural resistance to infection, immunosuppressed.

Question 31

Any route through which blood, body fluids, excretions, or secretions leave the body. Pathogen Reservoir Portal of Exit Mode of Transmission Portal of Entry Susceptible Host

Answer 31

Portal of Exit ## Footnote *Remember PRETEH for order*

Question 32

Route of transmission Pathogen Reservoir Portal of Exit Mode of Transmission Portal of Entry Susceptible Host

Answer 32

Mode of Transmission ## Footnote *Remember PRETEH for order* Direct transmition: -Vehicle: contaminated food, water, drugs or blood that can transport microorganisms Indirect transmission: -Airborne: 5 µm or smaller. -Fomites: object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms (contaminated urinary catheter, x-ray table) -Droplet: more than 5 µm -Vector: an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious (bites by infected insects)

Question 33

Which of these is considered a direct Mode of Transmission? Vehicle Airborne Fomites Droplet Vector

Answer 33

Vehicle ## Footnote Direct transmition: -Vehicle: contaminated food, water, drugs or blood that can transport microorganisms Indirect transmission: -Airborne: 5 µm or smaller. -Fomites: object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms (contaminated urinary catheter, x-ray table) -Droplet: more than 5 µm -Vector: an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious (bites by infected insects)

Question 34

The route by which microorganisms gain access into the susceptible host. Pathogen Reservoir Portal of Exit Mode of Transmission Portal of Entry Susceptible Host

Answer 34

Portal of Entry ## Footnote *Remember PRETEH for order*

Question 35

Patients who have a reduced natural resistance to infection, immunosuppressed. Pathogen Reservoir Portal of Exit Mode of Transmission Portal of Entry Susceptible Host

Answer 35

Susceptible Host ## Footnote *Remember PRETEH for order* Reservoir- Any place where pathogens resides and can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat. Susceptible Host- Patients who have a reduced natural resistance to infection, immunosuppressed.

Question 36

Occurs from dust that contains spores or droplet nuclei (5 µm or smaller). Airborne Fomites Droplet Vector

Answer 36

Airborne ## Footnote Examples- tuberculosis, rubeola, varicella viruses. -Airborne: 5 µm or smaller. -Fomites: object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms (contaminated urinary catheter, x-ray table) -Droplet: more than 5 µm -Vector: an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious (bites by infected insects)

Question 37

An object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms. Airborne Fomites Droplet Vector

Answer 37

Fomites ## Footnote Examples- contaminated urinary catheter, x-ray table. -Airborne: 5 µm or smaller. -Fomites: object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms (contaminated urinary catheter, x-ray table) -Droplet: more than 5 µm -Vector: an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious (bites by infected insects)

Question 38

Involves contact of the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth with large droplets (measuring more than 5 µm). Often occurs when infected individuals cough, sneeze, speaks, or sings. Airborne Fomites Droplet Vector

Answer 38

Droplet ## Footnote -Airborne: 5 µm or smaller. -Fomites: object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms (contaminated urinary catheter, x-ray table) -Droplet: more than 5 µm -Vector: an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious (bites by infected insects)

Question 39

An arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious to a new host. Bites by infected insects can transmit diseases to humans. Airborne Fomites Droplet Vector

Answer 39

Vector ## Footnote Examples- mosquitos that transmit malaria. -Airborne: 5 µm or smaller. -Fomites: object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms (contaminated urinary catheter, x-ray table) -Droplet: more than 5 µm -Vector: an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious (bites by infected insects)

Question 40

True or False Always clean from the least contaminated area towards the more contaminated area and from the top down.

Answer 40

True

Question 41

Complete destruction of all organisms and spores from equipment used for patient care or procedures. Sterilization Chemical sterilization Medical aseptic technique Microbial dilution Disinfection

Answer 41

Sterilization ## Footnote A sterile field is a microorganism-free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment. It should be prepared on a clean, dry, flat work surface in an area that poses minimal risk for contamination and is within easy reach of the physician. Medical aseptic technique- Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual. Microbial dilution- The process of reducing the total number of organisms Disinfection- Destruction of pathogens by using chemicals. Sterilization- Complete destruction of all organisms and spores from equipment used for patient care or procedures.

Question 42

Immersion and soaking of clean objects in a bath of germicidal solution followed by a sterile water rinse. Sterilization Chemical sterilization Autoclaving Conventional gas sterilization Gas plasma technology

Answer 42

Chemical sterilization

Question 43

Device that provides steam sterilization under pressure and is the most commonly used sterilization method. Sterilization Chemical sterilization Autoclaving Conventional gas sterilization Gas plasma technology

Answer 43

Autoclaving

Question 44

Items that would be damaged by high temperatures, are usually sterilized with a mixture of gases (freon and ethylene oxide) heated to 135 degrees F. Sterilization Chemical sterilization Autoclaving Conventional gas sterilization Gas plasma technology

Answer 44

Conventional gas sterilization ## Footnote Electrical, plastic, and rubber items are commonly sterilized this way. Conventional gas sterilization- Items that would be damaged by high temperatures, are usually sterilized with a mixture of gases, heated to 135 degrees F. Gas plasma technology- Items are cleaned, wrapped, and placed in a compact mobile unit where low-temperature hydrogen peroxide gas plasma diffuses through the wrapped instruments.

Question 45

Items are cleaned, wrapped, and placed in a compact mobile unit where low-temperature gas diffuses through the wrapped instruments. Sterilization Chemical sterilization Autoclaving Conventional gas sterilization Gas plasma technology

Answer 45

Gas plasma technology ## Footnote Safer method of sterilizing than conventional gas. Conventional gas sterilization- Items that would be damaged by high temperatures, are usually sterilized with a mixture of gases, heated to 135 degrees F. Gas plasma technology- Items are cleaned, wrapped, and placed in a compact mobile unit where low-temperature hydrogen peroxide gas plasma diffuses through the wrapped instruments.

Question 46

Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual. Medical aseptic technique Microbial dilution Simple cleanliness Disinfection Sterilization

Answer 46

Medical aseptic technique ## Footnote Medical aseptic technique- Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual. Microbial dilution- The process of reducing the total number of organisms Disinfection- Destruction of pathogens by using chemicals. Sterilization- Complete destruction of all organisms and spores from equipment used for patient care or procedures.

Question 47

The process of reducing the total number of organisms. Medical aseptic technique Microbial dilution Simple cleanliness Disinfection Sterilization

Answer 47

Microbial dilution ## Footnote 3 types or microbial dilution: simple, disinfection, sterilization Medical aseptic technique- Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual. Microbial dilution- The process of reducing the total number of organisms Disinfection- Destruction of pathogens by using chemicals. Sterilization- Complete destruction of all organisms and spores from equipment used for patient care or procedures.

Question 48

Measures such as proper cleaning, dusting, linen handling, and hand hygiene reduce transmission of microorganisms Medical aseptic technique Microbial dilution Simple cleanliness Disinfection Sterilization

Answer 48

Simple cleanliness

Question 49

Destruction of pathogens by using chemicals. Medical aseptic technique Microbial dilution Simple cleanliness Disinfection Sterilization

Answer 49

Disinfection ## Footnote Medical aseptic technique- Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual. Microbial dilution- The process of reducing the total number of organisms Disinfection- Destruction of pathogens by using chemicals. Sterilization- Complete destruction of all organisms and spores from equipment used for patient care or procedures.

Question 50

True or False Hand rubs have been found to be more efficacious than soap and water in reducing the incidence of nosocomial infections.

Answer 50

True

Question 51

True or False Hand rubs destroys bacterial spores such as those of C. difficile and Bacillus anthracis.

Answer 51

False ## Footnote Handwashing with soap and water is still recommended to physically remove spores from the surface of contaminated hands

Question 52

C. diff, Hep A, Rotavirus Airborn Precautions Contact Precautions Droplet Precautions Neutropenic Precautions

Answer 52

Contact Precautions ## Footnote PPE- Gown, Gloves

Question 53

Influenza, Mumps, Rubella, SARS, diphtheria, pneumonia Airborn Precautions Contact Precautions Droplet Precautions Neutropenic Precautions

Answer 53

Droplet Precautions ## Footnote Involves contact of the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth with large droplets measuring more than 5 µm. Often occurs when infected individuals cough, sneeze, speaks, or sings. PPE- Gown, Gloves, Mask

Question 54

Measles, Varicella, TB, Severe acute respiratory syndrome. Airborn Precautions Contact Precautions Droplet Precautions Neutropenic Precautions

Answer 54

Airborn Precautions ## Footnote Occurs from dust that contains spores or droplet nuclei (5 µm or smaller). PPE- Gown, Gloves, N95 Mask

Question 55

Aka protective precautions (reverse isolation); designed to prevent the spread of infections to compromised patients. Airborn Precautions Contact Precautions Droplet Precautions Neutropenic Precautions

Answer 55

Neutropenic Precautions

Question 56

A spill kit that includes: 1. kitty litter 2. heavy plastic bags 3. broom 4. dustpan 5. gloves 2, 5 3, 4, 5 All of the above 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer 56

All of the above