Day 5 Derm Flashcards
(220 cards)
A 45-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a one-week history of a rash. He has recently returned from a holiday in Spain. He does not have any significant past medical history and does not take any regular medications.
On examination, there is a rash affecting his trunk, consisting of multiple hypopigmented patches, which are slightly scaly.
Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the appropriate treatment?
Ketoconazole shampoo is used to treat pityriasis versicolor
A 72-year-old woman is diagnosed with a number of erythematous, rough lesions on the back of her hands.
What is the diagnosis?
What is the management?
actinic keratoses
Topical fluorouracil cream
A 43-year-old woman comes for review. A few months ago she developed redness around her nose and cheeks. This is worse after drinking alcohol. She is concerned as one of her work colleagues asked her if she had a drink problem despite her drinking 10 units per week.

Acne rosacea features:
nose, cheeks and forehead
flushing, erythema, telangiectasia → papules and pustules
A 36-year-old female with a history of ulcerative colitis She presented 4 days ago with a 3 cm lesion on her right shin which rapidly ulcerated and is now painful:

pyoderma gangrenosum
Oral prednisolone
A 20-year-old lady is referred to the vascular clinic. She has been feeling generally unwell for the past six weeks. She works as a typist and has noticed increasing pain in her forearms whilst working.
- On examination she has absent upper limb pulses.
- Her ESR is measured and mildly elevated.
The correct answer is: Takayasu’s arteritis
Takayasus arteritis may be divided into acute systemic phases and the chronic pulseless phase.
In the latter part of the disease process the patient may complain of symptoms such as upper limb claudication.
In the later stages of the condition the vessels will typically show changes of intimal proliferation, together with band fibrosis of the intima and media.
A 28-year-old Caucasian male presents with itchy red spots on is abdomen, back and arms, which he reports appeared quite suddenly.
He has no significant past medical history, but states he had a sore throat a few weeks ago.
On examination, you notice he has a white pus-like discharge over his palatine tonsils.
He states that he a similar rash last winter, when he had a sore throat.
Streptococcal throat infection may precipitate psoriasis (particularly guttate psoriasis). Patients with frequent exacerbations of guttate psoriasis due to streptococcal throat infections may benefit from tonsillectomy
A 32-year-old female presents to her general practitioner with worsening blistering of the fingers and palms of both hands. She has a past history of blistering and fissuring of her hands and recently returned from a holiday in a foreign country with a hot, humid environment. Examination identifies numerous areas of irritable, erythematous vesicles on the palms of both hands.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pompholyx eczema may be precipitated by humidity (e.g. sweating) and high temperatures
A 68-year-old farmer presents with a skin lesion on his forehead.
It has been present for the past 6 months and has grown slightly in size during that time.
On examination he has an ulcerated lesion with pearly white raised edges that measures 2cm in diameter.
The correct answer is: Basal cell carcinoma
The raised pearly edges in an ulcerated lesion at a sun exposed site makes BCC most likely.

A 25-year-old man presents with a pruritic skin rash. This has been present for the past few weeks and has responded poorly to an emollient cream. The pruritus is described as ‘intense’ and has resulted in him having trouble sleeping. On inspecting the skin you notice a combination of papules and vesicles on his buttocks and the extensor aspect of the knees and elbows. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune blistering skin disorder associated with coeliac disease. It is caused by deposition of IgA in the dermis.
A 79-year-old woman presents with an itchy, blistering rash. Examination of her mouth is unremarkable.

Bullous pemphigoid
Blisters/bullae
- no mucosal involvement (in exams at least*): bullous pemphigoid
- mucosal involvement: pemphigus vulgaris
What is Wegeners?
It is an autoimmune condition associated with necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis, affecting both the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys.
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is now the preferred term for Wegener’s granulomatosis.
A 30-year-old man presents with a two-week history of a productive cough.
Whilst examining him you notice a large number of atypical naevi over his torso.
On his back you count between 20-25 moles. He reports no change in any of his moles, no bleeding and no itch.
One particular mole is noted due to the irregular border. It is 6 * 4 mm in size.

This is very likely to be a melanoma and the patient should be fast-tracked to dermatology.
Due to the location and the number of moles he has it is unlikely that he would have noticed any change
A 52-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the dermatology department.
She has noticed a patch of pigmented skin on her toe, which has been slowly enlarging over the past five months.
On examination, she has pigmentation of the nail bed of her great toe, affecting the adjacent cuticle and proximal nail fold.
Which subtype of melanoma would you expect to present in this manner?
Acral lentiginous melanoma: Pigmentation of nail bed affecting proximal nail fold suggests melanoma (Hutchinson’s sign)
A 35-year-old male presents with the rash shown below, which has been over the past 2 months.
It is intensely itchy.

This patient has an itchy rash that most closely resembles dermatitis herpetiformis. Dermatitis herpetiformis is most commonly caused by coeliac disease; therefore, is treated with a gluten-free diet.
A 40-year-old woman visits the GP with a two-month history of unintentional weight loss. She reports feeling more fatigued than usual but otherwise has no localising signs or symptoms. On examination, hyperpigmentation and thickening of the skin in her groin and axilla are noted; the patient believes this has also been present for approximately 2 months.
Which malignancy is most associated with this presentation?
The most common malignancy associated with acanthosis nigricans
is gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma
A 48-year-old male presents after a month after a holiday to Morocco with a burn across his cheeks and nose which he says is not getting any better. He says that he wore sun-screen on holiday and does not usually get sun-burnt.
On examination there is a uniform area of erythema across the bridge of his nose and extending across his cheeks. Upon this erythema you note there are about a dozen small pustules and papules. Lastly, you note the presence of superficial telangiectasia across the bridge of the nose and a small amount around the labia of the nose.
What treatment is indicated here?
Acne rosacea treatment:
mild/moderate: topical metronidazole
severe/resistant: oral tetracycline
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Plaque psoriasis
the most common sub-type resulting in the typical well-demarcated red, scaly patches affecting the extensor surfaces, sacrum and scalp
A 34-year-old man who is known to have HIV presents with a non-itchy skin eruption on his lower abdomen. He feels otherwise well and has had no similar ‘rashes’ previously.

Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin infection caused by molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV), a member of the Poxviridae family.
Transmission occurs directly by close personal contact, or indirectly via fomites (contaminated surfaces) such as shared towels and flannels.
The majority of cases occur in children (often in children with atopic eczema), with the maximum incidence in preschool children aged 1-4 years.
What is the diagnosis?
Which medication is contraindicated?

Perioral dermatitis can be made worse by topical steroids
A 63-year-old gentleman presents to his general practitioner.
He has recently been diagnosed with melanoma after being referred to the dermatologist with a suspicious red lump on his face.
He is awaiting further imaging to see if the melanoma has metastasised.
After being told his subtype of melanoma, he researched further online.
He is now very concerned as he has read that his subtype is the most aggressive subtype and that it metastasises early. Which subtype of melanoma is he likely to have?
Nodular melanoma: Invade aggressively and metastasise early
- Sun exposed skin, middle-aged people
- Red or black lump or lump which bleeds or oozes
- Second commonest
A 42-year-old man is reviewed by his dermatologist for ongoing psoriasis. He was diagnosed several years ago and has had recurrent bouts since then. Recently, he has just completed a 4-week course of topical betamethasone and calcipotriol to bring the latest flare-up under control.
Given the frequency of flare-ups, the dermatologist suggests starting a long-term regime to keep his psoriasis under control.
Which of the following would be suitable long-term?
Calcipotriol may be used on a long-term basis for psoriasis
Most important factor affecting rognosis of melanoma
The invasion depth of a tumour (Breslow depth) is the single most important factor in determining prognosis of patients with malignant melanoma
A 47-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department with an erythematous rash that has come on over the last 2 days. On examination, the rash covers an extensive area of her body and has a red, ‘scalded’ appearance. She has ulcerations in her mouth. She looks very unwell and her temperature is 38.2ºC.
She is currently too unwell to give a good history, but her brother is with her and gives you her current medications from her bag.
Given the likely diagnosis, what medication is the most likely cause?
Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a rare but important side effect of which to be aware of penicillins
This woman has toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN). Over 100 drugs have been noted as causes of TEN/Steven Johnson syndrome,
but the ones that most commonly cause it include penicillins, quinolones, sulfonamides, corticosteroids and NSAIDs.
A 7-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department with several partial thickness burns on her left foreman, abdomen and right thigh.
She is stable. Analgesia is given, and the wounds are cleaned and dressed.
What is the most accurate way to asses the percentage body surface area affected of the girl?
Lund and Browder chart is the most accurate way to asses the burns area





















































































