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Flashcards in Deck 1 Deck (31)
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Q. Name two modifiable, two non-modifiable, two clinical and two psychosocial risk factors of atherosclerosis

A. Modifiable: diet (LDLs, sodium), tobacco smoking, obesity, sedentary lifestyle
B. Non-modifiable: gender, family history, genetics
C. Clinical: hypertension, lipids, diabetes
D. Psychosocial: behaviour patterns/traits (type A), depression/anxiety, work, social support – modifiable?


Q. Name three features of an atherosclerotic plaque

Lipid, necrotic lesion, connective tissue, fibrous cap


Q. Describe the three main layers of an artery

A. Tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia
B. (endothelium, connective tissue, internal elastic membrane, involuntary muscle fibre, elastic fibre, external elastic membrane, connective tissue)


Q. Name a blood test marker that is elevated in acute inflammation

A. C-reactive protein (CRP)


Q. Which cell types are involved in A) Leukocyte capture/rolling/slow rolling, B) Firm adhesion, transmigration

A. Selectins
B. Integrins, chemoattractants


1. Q. Which features (and cells) are involved in each of the following stages of atherosclerosis A) Fatty streaking B) Intermediate leisons C) Fibrous plaques or advanced leisons D) Plaque rupture E) Plaque Erosion

A. Fatty streaks: Earliest stage of atherosclerosis, appear at an eraly age (<10 years), consist of aggregations of lipid-laden macrophages and T-lymphocytes within the intima layer of the vessel wall
B. Intermediate lesions: Composed of layers of: lipid laden macrophages, vascular smooth muscle cells, T-lymphocytes, adhesion and aggregation of platelets to vessel wall, isolated pools of extracellular lipids
C. Fibrous plaques or advanced leisons: Impedes blood flow, prone to rupture.
Covered by a dense fibrous cap made of ECM proteins including collagen (Strength) and elastin (flexibility) laid down by smooth muscle cells that overlies lipid core and necrotic debris.
D. Plaque rupture: Haemorrhage of cells within the plaque, thrombus formation and vessel occlusion
E. Plaque Erosion: Leisons tend to be small early lesions, fibrous cap does not disrupt, luminal surface underneath the clot may not have endothelium present but is smooth muscle cell rich, they may be a prominent lipid core


Define the following terms: A) Population attributable risk (PAR)

A. PAR indicates the number of cases of a disease among exposed individuals that can be attributed to that exposure: Incidence exposed – incidence unexposed


Define the following terms: B) Population attributable fraction (PAF)

A. PAF is the proportion of cases of a disease among exposed individuals that can be attributed to that exposure (PAR but expressed as a fraction)


Q. Define the following terms: C) Number needed to treat (NNT)

A. Number needed to treat: The NNT offers a measurement of the impact of a medicine or therapy by estimating the number of patients that need to be treated over a given period of time (usually over 5 years), in order to have an impact on one person (to save one life).


Q. What is the ApoB/ApoA-1

ApoB/ApoA-1 ratio is a method of estimating the balance between plasma proatherogenic and antiatherogenic lipoproteins, this is a better estimation than cholesterol ratios – it is a strong predicator of cardiovascular risk


Q. Briefly explain social inequality from the following philosophical views A) Absolutist B) Relativist

A. Absolutist: Absolute measures of socioeconomic deprivation – Townsend score (social/health inequality is all about poverty)
B. Relativist: Social inequality is all about relative differences (The larger the relative differences in society the poorer the outcomes or the worse off and for all of us)


Q. Name the main coronary arteries – what part of the heart do they supply?

A. Left Main – LCx and LAD
B. Left Circumflex – supplies the left atrium and left ventricle
C. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) – supplies the right ventricle, left ventricle and interventricular system
D. Left Marginal – left ventricle
E. Right coronary – supplies the right atrium and right ventricle
F. Right marginal – right ventricle and apex


Q. Why may pain (angina) felt in a patient with stable angina?

A. Pain is felt during exertion – vasodilation occurs during exercise in order to increase flow to meet metabolic demand. Epicardial disease causes the resistance of the epicardial vessel to increase – to compensate the microvascular resistance reduces. Epicardial resistance is high due to the stenosis.
B. This means that flow cannot meet metabolically demand, the myocardium because ischaemic and pain is experienced
C. By resting the demand for flow is reduced and pain ceases


Q. Which conditions may cause a patient to have A) Decreased supply of blood B) Increasing demand for blood

A. Decreased supply: anemia, hypoxemia, polycythemia, hypothermia, hypovolaemia, hypervolaemia
B. Increased demand: hypertension, tachyarrhythmia, valvular heart disease, hyperthyroidism, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, cold weather, heavy meal, emotional stress


Q. Give three features of typical angina

A. Heavy, central, tight, radiation to arms (L), jaw, neck
B. Precipitated by exertion
C. Relieved by rest (s/l GTN)


Q. Name and describe a tool used to access pain

A. OPQRST - Onset Position (site) Quality (nature / character) Relationship (with exertion, posture, meals, breathing and with other symptoms) Radiation Relieving or aggravating factors Severity Timing Treatment
B. SOCRATES - Site, Onset, Character, Radiation, Associated factors, Time, Exacerbating/relieving factors, Severity 


Q. Name three differential diagnoses for chest pain

A. Cardio – pericarditis, myocarditis
B. Resp – pulmonary embolism, pleurisy
C. Infectious – chest infection, pleurisy
D. Dissection of the aorta
E. GI – gastro-oesophageal (reflux, spasm, ulceration)
F. MSK – chest trauma
G. Psych


Q. What investigations may be done for suspected MI?

A. ECG/ ECHO, pre-test probability
B. Anatomical: CT angiography, invasive angiography
C. Physiological: Exercise stress treadmill (scar/ischemia), stress echo, SPECT (nuclear perfusion), perfusion (stress) MRI


Q. What occurs in a treadmill test and what does this diagnose?

A. Patients walk uphill on a treadmill, increasing speed
B. Look for ST segment depression on ECG
C. This indicates ‘late stage’ ischemia
D. (however many pts are unsuitable – can’t walk, very unfit, young females, BBB? –bundle branch block)


Q. What do modern functional testing techniques used with angiogram measure?

A. Fractional flow reserve – pressure gradient across stenosis (if less than 0.8 suggestive of angina causing lesion)


Q. How may stress ECHOs aid diagnosis?

A. Functional test using dynamic imaging with and without pharmacological stress (adenosine)
B. Look for regional wall motion abnormalities (RWMA) – this is when there is a small area of regional wall with abnormal motion
C. Highly sensitive and specific – but requires local expertise


Q. How would you confirm the cause of an abnormal result in a SPECT scan?

A. When an abnormality is detected the test should be repeat under rest conditions in order to determine whether the abnormality is a fixed defect (scar, no change on repeat scar) or ischaemia causing angina (absent in repeat)
B. Exercise SPECT Myoview Stress Test (Exercise stress test with real-time blood flow imaging) - This test is used to detect abnormalities in blood flow to the heart – radio-labelled tracer


Q. Name two forms of primary and secondary prevention of CAD

A. Primary prevention: diet, smoking, exercise (risk factor modification), HTN – anti-hypertensives, hypercholesterolaemia – statins, diabetes therapy
B. Secondary prevention: i) lifestyle changes – behaviour modification, ii) pharmacological (to reduce events – aspirin/statins, to reduce symptoms – nitrates, CCBs, KCBs) iii) Interventional – PCI/surgery (to reduce events and symptoms)


Q. Name three first line antianginals, describe the method of action. Give two drug names and two associated side effects for each

A. Beta-blockers: antagonise sympathetic nervous activation, they are negatively chronotropic and negatively inotropic (reduce HR and contractility)
e.g. Bisoprolol and Atenolol
Side effects: tiredness, nightmares, brady cardia, erectile dysfunction, cold hands and feet
Contra-indications: severe bronchospasm (asthma), excess bradycardia, severe heart block, coronary spasm
B. Nitrates: venodilators, reduces venous return to the heart, reducing preload on heart, therefore reducing work on heart and O2 demand
Contra-indications : May antagonise spasm – as they dilate coronary arteries
C. Calcium channel blockers: artero-dilators, dilate systemic arteries, reducing BP and afterload of the heart
Non-dihydrpyridines are also negatively inotropic


Q. What drug can be used in sinus rhythm as a negative chronotrope?

A. Ivabridine (2nd line antianginal), ‘funny’ sodium channel to slow pacemaker currents


Q. How do antiplatelets reduce CVD events? What is the most commonly used?

A. COX inhibitors - decreased prostaglandin synthesis and platelet aggregation – antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
B. Can cause gastric ulceration – P2Y12 can be used as an alternative
C. Aspirin
Contra-indications : May antagonise spasm – as they dilate coronary arteries


1. Q. Describe the following terms A) pre-load B) after-load C) starlings law

A. Preload is the end-diastolic volume (EDV) at the beginning of systole. The EDV is directly related to the degree of stretch of the myocardial sarcomeres. (starlings law)
B. Afterload is the ventricular pressure at the end of systole (ESP).
C. Starlings law: The stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant.


1. Q. Which group of drugs inhibit HMGCoA reductase?

A. Statins – reduce LDL cholesterol


Q. Name two forms of revascularisation – name two pros and two cons of each

A. Percutaneous coronary intervention – PCI – less invasive – repeatable – risk of stent thrombosis and risk of resentosis
B. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery – improves prognosis, deals with complex disease – invasive, risk of bleeding, recovery time, may not be appropriate for elderly/frail
C. Used to restore patient coronary artery and increase blood flow reserve


Q. Name two differences between stable and unstable angina

A. Stable angina is predictable, occurs during exertion and relived at rest – unstable angina is unpredictable and may occur at any time