Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Q. Describe the difference between pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics
A

A. Pharmacokinetics refers to the effect of the body on the drug while pharmacodynamics refers to the effect of the drug on the body.

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2
Q
  1. Q. What is a ligand?
A

A. A drug which binds to a receptor is termed a ligand

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3
Q
  1. Q. Describe the difference between agonists and antagonists? What is an inverse agonist?
A

A. Agonists initiate a biological response, usually by binding to and activating receptors. (drug agonists can occasionally be used to inhibit receptor function through desensitization).
B. Antagonists reduce the effects of an agonist
C. An inverse agonist activates a receptor but induces the opposite pharmacological response to the agonist (agonist = yes, inverse agonist = no, antagonist = no response)

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4
Q
  1. Q. What is a selective agonist? What is a competitive antagonist?
A

A. A selective Agonist is selective for a specific type of receptor eg, buspirone is a selective agonist for serotonin 5-HT1A
B. A competitive antagonist is a receptor antagonist that binds to a receptor but does not activate the receptor; the antagonist competes with the available agonist for receptor binding sites on the same receptor.

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5
Q
  1. Q. What does a log concentration response curve show?
A

A log concentration response curve shows the potency of an agonist, EC50 is a concentration that gives half the maximal response

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6
Q
  1. Q. What does efficacy mean to agonists? What is intrinsic efficacy?
A

A. For agonists the term efficacy is used to define the maximum response
B. Intrinsic efficacy is the property of a drug that determines the amount of biological effect produced per unit of drug-receptor complex formed. Two drugs that bind to the same sets of receptors may not produce an equal effect; even if both agents are given in maximally effective doses. This is because the agents differ in their intrinsic activities and the one producing the greater maximum effect has the greater intrinsic activity.
C. Intrinsic activity = Emax of partial agonist/Emax of full agonist (on a log concentration response graph)

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7
Q
  1. Q. How do histamine and mepyramine act as agonists and antagonists in the ileum?
A

A. Histamine acts as an agonist by binding to receptors and initiating ileum contraction (H1) and acid secretion from parietal cells. (H2)
B. Mepyramine acts as an antagonist as reverses the ileum contraction (H1 receptor), however has no effect on acid secretion. (H2 receptor). H2 blockers are also called histamine H-2 receptor antagonists because they bind to H2 receptors eg cimetidine.

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8
Q
  1. Q. Define affinity and efficacy
A

A. Affinity is how well a ligand binds to a receptor (agonists and antagonists)
B. Efficacy describes how well a ligand activates a receptor (antagonists have 0 efficacy)

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9
Q
  1. Q. What is allosteric modulation?
A

A. When an allosteric ligand binds to an allosteric receptor site close to the agonist binding site there may be modulation to the affinity of the agonist binding

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10
Q
  1. Q. What is tolerance? What occurs during withdrawal?
A

A. A reduction in drug effect over time (continuous, repetitive, high concentrations)
B. Agonists tend to temporarily reduce their receptor number overtime leading to tolerance
C. Antagonists tend to temporarily increase their receptor number leading to overactivity on withdrawal

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11
Q
  1. Q. What is a prodrug?
A

A. Prodrugs are biologically inactive compounds which can be metabolised in the body to produce an active drug

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12
Q
  1. Q. What are the three phases of pharmacokinetics at the plasma level?
A

A. Uptake into the plasma
B. Distribution from the plasma
C. Elimination from the plasma

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13
Q
  1. Q. What is the volume of distribution of a drug?
A

A. The theoretical volume in litres that would be necessary to contain the total amount of an administered drug at the same concentration that is observed in the blood plasma
B. It represents the degree to which a drug is distributed in the body tissue rather than the plasma (a higher volume of distribution indicates a greater amount of tissue distribution)
C. Non-polar drugs with low rates of ionization and low plasma binding capabilities have higher volumes of distribution. (volume of distribution may be increased by renal failure due to fluid retention and liver failure – or decreased in dehydration)
D. VD = total amount of drug in the body / drug blood plasma concentration
E. A small VD is ideal as it means that it is easy to reach steady state and plasma concentration ‘responsive’ to dose rate

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14
Q
  1. Q. How may drugs move between compartments? How might pH affect movement?
A

A. Simple diffusion, facilitative diffusion, active transport, through extracellular spaces, non-ionic diffusion
B. Non-ionic diffusion is enhanced if the adjacent compartments have a pH difference

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15
Q
  1. Q. What is bioavailability?
A

A. Bioavailability refers to the amount of drug taken up as a proportion of the amount administered

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16
Q
  1. Q. Describe some routes of drug administration; which has the highest bioavailability?
A

A. Intravenous = highest

B. Intramuscular, transcutaneous, intrathecal, sublingual, inhalation, topical, PR, PV

17
Q
  1. Q. Which compartment is elimination from?
A

A. Elimination of drug is from the plasma compartment, renal and hepatic elimination are the route of elimination for most drugs

18
Q
  1. Q. What is metabolism of a drug?
A

A. Metabolism of a drug makes it more water soluble

19
Q
  1. Q. What is removal of a drug from the plasma by either the kidney or liver called? How is this measured?
A

A. Clearance

B. Clearance = rate of appearance in urine x conc in urine / conc in plasma

20
Q
  1. Q. What are the two definitions of clearance?
A

A. The volume of plasma that can be cleared of drug per unit/time (mls/min)
B. The rate at which plasma drug is eliminated per unit plasma concentration (mls/min)
C. Both are measures of efficiency and can influence the rate of elimination depending on the plasma concentration of the blood

21
Q
  1. Q. What is the hepatic extraction ratio?
A

A. The proportion of drug removed by one passage through the liver
B. High HER; perfusion limited, low HER; diffusion limited

22
Q
  1. Q. What occurs in phase I hepatic reactions?
A

A. Non-specific reactions which recognise and attach specific side chains of large molecules
B. Oxidative reactions adding –OH and =O to side chains by substitution
C. Removal of CH3, NH2, SH
D. Phase I reactions make the hydroxylated molecule more soluble

23
Q
  1. Q. What is cytochrome p450
A

A. Cytochrome p450 is a large enzyme complex with a haem centre which catalyses oxidative hydroxylation
B. Major cytochrome in Phase I reactions – needs energy and oxygen

24
Q
  1. Q. What benefits are associated with intravenous infusions?
A

A. Stead state plasma levels can be maintained for a long as necessary
B. Highly accurate drug delivery
C. Some drugs are ineffective administered at any other route
D. Some patients cannot absorb or take oral medication
E. Highest bioavailability = almost 100%