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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 10 > Flashcards

Deck 10 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?

a. Axial and appendicular
b. Upper and lower
c. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
d. Anterior and posterior

A

a. Axial and appendicular

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2
Q

Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product?

a. The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio
b. The ingredients list
c. The percent reference intake
d. The nutrition facts panel

A

d. The nutrition facts panel

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3
Q

Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position?

a. Quickness training
b. Powerlifting
c. Olympic weightlifting
d. Speed training

A

a. Quickness training

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4
Q

Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between working as an independent contractor and working as an employee?

a. An employee can establish their own hours, while an independent contractor must adhere to a specific work schedule.
b. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
c. An employee can earn more per hour than an independent contractor.
d. An independent contractor can expect client referrals from a facility, while an employee will have to find clients on the gym floor.

A

b. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.

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5
Q

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin?

a. Gestational
b. Prediabetes
c. Type 2
d. Type 1

A

d. Type 1

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6
Q

Which of the following can cause undue fatigue, increase the risk of injury, and potentially lead to burnout?

a. Hypertrophy
b. Adherence
c. Stabilization
d. Overtraining

A

d. Overtraining

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7
Q

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?

a. 55 cm
b. 65 cm
c. 75 cm
d. 45 cm

A

d. 45 cm

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8
Q

What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream?

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypertension
d. Hyperglycemia

A

d. Hyperglycemia

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9
Q

Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?

a. Diaphragm
b. Abdominals
c. Internal intercostals
d. Scalenes

A

a. Diaphragm

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10
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?

a. Diaphragm
b. Quadratus lumborum
c. Erector spinae
d. Multifidus

A

c. Erector spinae

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11
Q

When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called?

a. Phosphorylation
b. Transformation
c. Oxidation
d. ATP-PC

A

a. Phosphorylation

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12
Q

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?

a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
b. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.
c. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.
d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.

A

a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

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13
Q

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?

a. Balance exercises
b. Strengthening exercises
c. Flexibility exercises
d. Plyometric exercises

A

c. Flexibility exercises

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14
Q

Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues?

a. Unrealistic goals
b. Social physique anxiety
c. Ambivalence
d. Lack of social support

A

b. Social physique anxiety

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15
Q

One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?

a. Somatic nervous system
b. Autonomic nervous system
c. Sympathetic nervous system
d. Peripheral nervous system

A

d. Peripheral nervous system

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16
Q

Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)?

a. Protein
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Glucose

A

a. Protein

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17
Q

Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?

a. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood pressure.
b. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
c. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure.
d. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow.

A

b. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.

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18
Q

What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?

a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward
c. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward
d. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome

A

a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

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19
Q

What are the end products of the electron transport chain?

a. ATP and water
b. ADP and water
c. ADP and hydrogen ions
d. ATP and oxygen

A

a. ATP and water

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20
Q

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?

a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
c. Medicine ball pullover throw
d. Overhead medicine ball throw

A

c. Medicine ball pullover throw

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21
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
b. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
c. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
d. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions

A

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

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22
Q

What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?

a. 15 to 20 g
b. 60 to 70 g
c. 30 to 50 g
d. 20 to 40 g

A

d. 20 to 40 g

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23
Q

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
c. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
d. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

A

d. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

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24
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in?

a. Maintenance
b. Action
c. Precontemplation
d. Preparation

A

c. Precontemplation

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25
Q

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?

a. SAID principle
b. Law of thermodynamics
c. Theory of general relativity
d. Archimedes’ principle

A

a. SAID principle

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26
Q

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?

a. Barbell squat
b. Seated leg extension
c. Bench press
d. Overhead press

A

b. Seated leg extension

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27
Q

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?

a. Lateral subsystem
b. Anterior oblique subsystem
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem
d. Posterior oblique subsystem

A

a. Lateral subsystem

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28
Q

What is forecasting?

a. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
b. A relationship in which two people understand each other’s ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well
c. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs
d. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale

A

a. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

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29
Q

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?

a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
b. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle
c. Having more fat stored on their body
d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle

A

a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

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30
Q

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell?

a. A kettlebell is heavier.
b. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.
c. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same.
d. A dumbbell is safer.

A

b. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

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31
Q

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas?

a. Platelets
b. Water
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Oxygen

A

d. Oxygen

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32
Q

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?

a. Push-up
b. Romanian deadlift
c. Standing cable chest press
d. Ball squat, curl to press

A

d. Ball squat, curl to press

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33
Q

Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances?

a. They should always be recommended to clients to help them get results quickly.
b. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.
c. They have overexaggerated side effects that typically do not occur.
d. They should never be discussed with clients in any capacity.

A

b. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.

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34
Q

Which of the following is true about body image?

a. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting.
b. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves.
c. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
d. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.

A

c. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

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35
Q

What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults?

a. Resistance training
b. Cardio
c. Aerobics
d. Walking

A

a. Resistance training

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36
Q

Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process?

a. Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and longevity
b. Discussing pricing options
c. Asking for referrals
d. Identifying a customer’s needs

A

d. Identifying a customer’s needs

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37
Q

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?

a. Zone 4
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 1

A

c. Zone 3

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38
Q

For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?

a. Individuals recovering from an injury
b. College-aged athletes
c. Older adults
d. Deconditioned individuals

A

b. College-aged athletes

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39
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?

a. 60 to 90 seconds
b. 15 to 60 seconds
c. 0 to 15 seconds
d. 90 to 120 seconds

A

b. 15 to 60 seconds

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40
Q

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?

a. A sarcomere
b. Actin
c. Myosin
d. Endomysium

A

a. A sarcomere

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41
Q

What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes?

a. Certified Personal Trainer
b. Group fitness instructor
c. Strength and conditioning coach
d. Physical therapist

A

c. Strength and conditioning coach

42
Q

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes
b. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes
c. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds
d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

A

d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

43
Q

What are ground reaction forces?

a. Forces used by the muscles during a jump
b. Deceleration forces in the muscles
c. The force of gravity
d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

A

d. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

44
Q

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?

a. Every 6 months
b. Every week
c. Every month
d. Every year

A

c. Every month

45
Q

What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production?

a. Chronic obstructive lung disease
b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
c. Type 2 diabetes
d. Type 1 diabetes

A

a. Chronic obstructive lung disease

46
Q

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?

a. Training duration
b. Intensity
c. Rest interval
d. Speed

A

d. Speed

47
Q

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?

a. Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism
b. Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels
c. Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport
d. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

A

d. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

48
Q

What is osteoporosis?

a. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults
b. Lower than normal bone density
c. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
d. Chronic inflammation of the joints

A

c. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

49
Q

What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?

a. <15% per week
b. 10% per week
c. 20% per week
d. 25% per week

A

b. 10% per week

50
Q

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point?

a. Posterior
b. Inferior
c. Anterior
d. Superior

A

d. Superior

51
Q

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?

a. It creates too powerful a jump.
b. It makes the next jump too easy to execute.
c. It causes stress to the connective tissues.
d. It reduces force too much.

A

c. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

52
Q

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?

a. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
b. Increasing speed
c. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
d. Being more explosive

A

c. Adding a stabilization pause between reps

53
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.

a. Visual
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Somatosensory
d. Vestibular

A

d. Vestibular

54
Q

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles?

a. Cable machine single-arm row
b. Sandbag rotational lunge
c. Stability ball abdominal crunches
d. Kettlebell RDL

A

d. Kettlebell RDL

55
Q

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)?

a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise
b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
d. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise

A

b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

56
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?

a. Grains
b. Dairy foods
c. Legumes
d. Beans

A

b. Dairy foods

57
Q

Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein?

a. Insulation of internal organs
b. Regulation of body temperature
c. Synthesis of hormones
d. Padding of vital internal organs

A

c. Synthesis of hormones

58
Q

What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body?

a. Regional interdependence
b. Kinesiology
c. Osteokinematics
d. Biomechanics

A

a. Regional interdependence

59
Q

Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?

a. Postural assessment
b. Cardiorespiratory assessment
c. Health risk assessment
d. Anthropometric assessment

A

c. Health risk assessment

60
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?

a. Dynamic balance
b. Static balance
c. Stationary balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance

A

d. Semi-dynamic balance

61
Q

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?

a. Pyramid system
b. Peripheral heart action system
c. Complex training
d. Drop set

A

b. Peripheral heart action system

62
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?

a. Tubing
b. Cables
c. Wobble board
d. Medicine ball

A

c. Wobble board

63
Q

Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss?

a. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes
b. Limiting meals to once a day
c. Replacing high-fiber foods with low-fiber options
d. Avoiding a food group (e.g., fats or carbohydrates)

A

a. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

64
Q

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?

a. Archimedes’ principle
b. Overload principle
c. Davis’s law
d. Wolff’s law

A

c. Davis’s law

65
Q

Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product?

a. The nutrition label
b. The nutrition facts panel
c. The ingredients list
d. The percent daily values

A

c. The ingredients list

66
Q

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

a. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client’s armpits.
b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.
c. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.
d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

A

a. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client’s armpits.

67
Q

Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?

a. Static posture
b. Single-leg squat
c. 40-yard dash
d. Bench press strength

A

a. Static posture

68
Q

Which of the following would be considered a process goal?

a. Run one mile
b. Squat 100 pounds
c. Run a 10k race
d. Run three times a week

A

d. Run three times a week

69
Q

What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?

a. Prediabetes
b. Type 2
c. Gestational
d. Type 1

A

b. Type 2

70
Q

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?

a. Somatosensory system
b. Visual system
c. Vestibular system
d. Auditory system

A

a. Somatosensory system

71
Q

Empathy is best described as?

a. The ability to identify with how another person feels
b. Being positive and outgoing during training sessions
c. Providing instrumental support to an individual
d. Listening to a client but not providing any support

A

a. The ability to identify with how another person feels

72
Q

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Lengthening reaction
c. Length-tension relationships
d. Synergistic dominance

A

a. Reciprocal inhibition

73
Q

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?

a. Phase 5
b. Phase 3
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 2

A

b. Phase 3

74
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

a. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion
b. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
c. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
d. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

A

d. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

75
Q

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?

a. Posterior pelvic tilt
b. Knee valgus
c. Low-back arching
d. Anterior pelvic tilt

A

b. Knee valgus

76
Q

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?

a. Static posture assessment
b. Performance assessment
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Dynamic posture assessment

A

d. Dynamic posture assessment

77
Q

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?

a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
b. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.
d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.

A

a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

78
Q

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?

a. Thermic effect of food
b. Resting metabolic rate
c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
d. Exercise

A

b. Resting metabolic rate

79
Q

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?

a. B vitamins
b. Vitamin C
c. Fat-soluble vitamins
d. Water-soluble vitamins

A

a. B vitamins

80
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?

a. Lower crossed syndrome
b. Knee valgus
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Pes planus distortion syndrome

A

d. Pes planus distortion syndrome

81
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

a. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum
b. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
c. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

A

d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

82
Q

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions?

a. Quadriceps
b. Adductor complex
c. Sartorius
d. Hamstrings

A

a. Quadriceps

83
Q

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?

a. Heart valve problem
b. Arrhythmia
c. Ischemic heart disease
d. Hypertension

A

c. Ischemic heart disease

84
Q

The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains?

a. Physiological systems
b. The mind and behavior
c. Neuromuscular adaptations
d. Pathology of disease

A

b. The mind and behavior

85
Q

Speed is the product of what two variables?

a. Quickness and agility
b. Power and time
c. Stride rate and stride length
d. Acceleration and deceleration

A

c. Stride rate and stride length

86
Q

What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?

a. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
b. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance
c. Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance
d. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

A

a. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

87
Q

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?

a. Amino acids
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. Lipids

A

c. Carbohydrates

88
Q

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?

a. Energy imagery
b. Cognitive fusion
c. Technique imagery
d. Appearance imagery

A

c. Technique imagery

89
Q

In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?

a. Concentric
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Acceleration

A

c. Eccentric

90
Q

At what age is total peak bone mass reached?

a. 30
b. 25
c. 35
d. 18

A

a. 30

91
Q

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?

a. Front medicine ball oblique throw
b. Soccer throw
c. Two-arm push press
d. Medicine ball chest pass

A

c. Two-arm push press

92
Q

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?

a. Gentle static stretching
b. Deep soft-tissue massage
c. General cardiovascular exercise
d. Pilates

A

a. Gentle static stretching

93
Q

With type 1 diabetes, what hormone does the pancreas fall short in making?

a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Insulin
d. Testosterone

A

c. Insulin

94
Q

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records?

a. 1 year
b. 4 years
c. 6 months
d. Indefinitely

A

b. 4 years

95
Q

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Pro shuttle
c. 40-yard dash
d. Overhead squat

A

c. 40-yard dash

96
Q

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?

a. When the individual says it is “challenging” to speak during the activity
b. When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
c. When the individual responds with “yes” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
d. When the individual says it is “somewhat easy” to talk during the activity

A

b. When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”

97
Q

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?

a. Thumbs pointing up
b. Palms facing each other
c. Thumbs pointing down
d. Palms facing down

A

a. Thumbs pointing up

98
Q

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?

a. Skill development
b. Cool-down
c. Warm-up
d. Resistance

A

a. Skill development

99
Q

What is, perhaps, the most challenging of the public health problems faced today?

a. Stroke
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Ischemic heart disease
d. Obesity, due to poor diet and physical inactivity

A

d. Obesity, due to poor diet and physical inactivity

100
Q

What does the term shoulder impingement syndrome refer to?

a. Shoulder pain caused by a tear in the labrum
b. Shoulder pain resulting from a fractured clavicle
c. Shoulder pain resulting from a torn biceps tendon
d. Shoulder pain caused by rotator cuff tissues rubbing against the acromion bone

A

d. Shoulder pain caused by rotator cuff tissues rubbing against the acromion bone

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