Deck 2 Flashcards

(28 cards)

1
Q

When is disclosure of significant estimates required?

A

When it is REASONABKY POSSIBLE that the estimate will change and the effect will be MATERIAL

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2
Q

NOTE: summary of significant accounting policies is important

A

Important I say

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3
Q

Does GAAP require disclosure of compliance with GAAP?

A

Nope.

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4
Q

IFRS requires disclosure of estimates and:

A

Judgments made in preparation of financial statements

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5
Q

Vulnerability to a concentration disclosure requirements:

A
  • Concentration exists as of financial statement date
  • Concentration makes the entity vulnerable to risk of a near-term severe impact
  • It is at least REASONABLY POSSIBLE that the events that could cause a sever impact from the vulnerability will occur in the near term
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6
Q

Summary of significant accounting policies includes disclosure of:

A
  • Measurement bases used in preparing financial statements
  • Specific accounting principles and methods used during the period Including:
    Basis of consolidation
    Depreciation methods
    Amortization of intangibles
    Inventory pricing
    Use of estimates
    Fiscal year definition
    Special revenue recognition issues
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7
Q

Disclosure requirements IFRS requires but GAAP does not

A

Unreserved statement of compliance with IFRS and disclosure of judgments (as well as estimates) management has made in the process of applying accounting policies which have a significant effect on the financial statements

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8
Q

According to GAAP, doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern is evaluated for:

A

A reasonable period of time not to exceed one year beyond the date the financial statements are issued

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9
Q

Going concern is important to IFRS because:

A

It is the only fundamental assumption in IFRS (GAAP has several fundamental assumptions)

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10
Q

The evaluation of going concern status is performed by:

A

Management, in both IFRS and GAAP

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11
Q

A balance sheet is prepared under the liquidation basis of accounting when:

A

The entity’s liquidation is eminent

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12
Q

Substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern exists when:

A

It is PROBABLE that the entity will not be able to meet its obligations as they come due within ONE YEAR from the date the financial statements are issued

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13
Q

Consideration should be given to an entity’s plans to mitigate conditions or events that give rise to substantial doubts about its ability to continue as a going concern only if these two factors are present

A
  • it is PROBABLE that the plans will be effectively implemented, and
  • it is PROBABLE that the implemented plans will be successful in mitigating the adverse conditions or events
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14
Q

Under IFRS, disclosure regarding substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern is required when:

A

Management is aware of material uncertainties that may give rise to substantial doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern

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15
Q

According to IFRS, doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern is evaluated for:

A

At least one year from the balance sheet date

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16
Q

What is required for a reasonably possible loss?

A

Footnote disclosure

17
Q

Note: if an event occurred after the balance sheet date but before issuance, disclosure is still required

A

Just a note for ya

18
Q

Financial statements are “available to be issued” when:

A
  • Financial statements are in a form and format that comply with GAAP
  • All approvals necessary for the issuance of the financial statements have been received
19
Q

Financial statements are considered to be “issued” when:

A
  • Financial statements are in a format that comply with GAAP, and
  • Financial statements have been widely distributed to financial statement users
20
Q

Which entities are required to disclose the subsequent event evaluation period end?

A

Non-filers - those who do not file financial statements with the SEC.

This makes sense because non-filers May hang on to their statements for weeks or months before needing to issue them to a user (a bank, etc.) and those users would need to know up until which date subsequent events were evaluated.
With filers, it’s obvious, because they can’t evaluate anything after the statements are issued, and because they are publicly issued, that date is very clear.

21
Q

Fair value includes ____________ costs but not _____________ costs

A

Transportation; transaction

22
Q

Fair value is a(n) ___________ price

A

Exit price: the price to sell an asset or transfer a liability, NOT acquire or assume it

23
Q

Level 1 inputs

A

Quotes prices in active markets for identical assets or liabilities

24
Q

Level 2 inputs

A

Quoted prices in active markets for similar assets and liabilities
OR
Quoted prices in inactive markets for identical assets and liabilities

25
What is the market used when there is no principal market for an asset or liability?
The most ADVANTAGEOUS market. Advantage determined by quoted price less transaction costs - then whichever market is best is the quoted price used for fair value (even if the quoted price in another market is higher.)
26
Level 3 inputs
Management assumptions - such as discounted cash flow of an operation or similar, or historical performance and return
27
Principal market
Market with greatest volume or level of activity for the asset or liability. If there is a principal market for an asset or liability, the price in that market will be the fair value measurement, even if there is a more advantageous price in a different market.
28
Fair value of a nonfinancial asset is:
At its highest and best use (same in tax, though there are exceptions for farmers and whatnot)