Definitions

Question 1

Absolute Ceiling

Answer 1

Absolute Ceiling The altitude at which the theoretical rate of climb, with all engines operating at maximum continuous power, is reduced to zero feet per minute

Question 2

Accelerate Stop Distance Available

Answer 2

The distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane can commence its take-off run to the nearest point in the direction of take-off at which the aeroplane cannot roll over the surface of the aerodrome and be brought to rest in an emergency without the risk of accident. It is equal to TORA plus any available stopway

Question 3

Aerodynamic Ceiling

Answer 3

The altitude, in unaccelerated 1g level flight, where the Mach number for the low speed and high speed buffet are coincident.

Question 4

Aircraft Classification Number (ACN)

Answer 4

This is a value assigned to an aeroplane to show it’s load force. The aircraft classification number must be compared to the pavement classification number (PCN) of an aerodrome. The aircraft classification number may exceed the pavement classification number by as much as 50% but only if the maneuvering of the aeroplane is very carefully monitored otherwise significant damage may occur to both the aeroplane and the pavement.

Question 5

Air Minimum Control Speed

Answer 5

The minimum speed at which directional control can be demonstrated when airborne with the critical engine inoperative and the remaining engines at take-off thrust. Full opposite rudder and not more than 5 degrees of bank away from the inoperative engine are permitted when establishing this speed. VMCA may not exceed 1.2 Vs.

Question 6

Apron

Answer 6

A defined area on a land aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers, the loading and unloading of cargo, and for parking.

Question 7

Calibrated Airspeed

Answer 7

The indicated air speed, corrected for position and instrument error. It is equal to True Airspeed (TAS) at Mean Sea Level (MSL) in a Standard Atmosphere

Question 8

Clearway

Answer 8

An area beyond the runway, not less than 152 m (500 ft) wide, centrally located about
the extended centreline of the runway, and under the control of the airport authorities. The
clearway is expressed in terms of a clearway plane, extending from the end of the runway with
an upward slope not exceeding 1·25%, above which no object or terrain protrudes. However,
threshold lights may protrude above the plane if their height above the end of the runway is
0·66 m (26 inches) or less and if they are located to each side of the runway.

Question 9

Contaminated runway

Answer 9

A runway covered by more than 25% of water whose equivalent depth is 3mm.

Question 10

Critical Engine

Answer 10

The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft

Question 11

Damp runway

Answer 11

A runway is considered damp when the surface is not dry, but when the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.

Question 12

Decision Speed

Answer 12

The maximum speed in the take-off at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g. apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the aeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance. It also means the minimum speed in the take-off, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required height above the take-off surface within the takeoff distance

Question 13

Dry runway

Answer 13

A dry runway is one which is neither wet nor contaminated, and includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or porous pavement and maintained to retain ‘effectively dry’ braking action even when moisture is present.

Question 14

Elevation

Answer 14

The vertical distance of an object above mean sea level. This may be given in metres or feet.

Question 15

En-route

Answer 15

The en-route phase extends from 1500 ft above the take-off surface level to 1000 ft above the landing aerodrome surface level for class B aeroplanes or to 1500 ft above the landing
aerodrome surface level for class A aeroplanes.

Question 16

Equivalent Airspeed

Answer 16

The calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility at the particular pressure altitude under consideration. It is equal to Calibrated Airspeed in a Standard Atmosphere

Question 17

Final en-route climb speed

Answer 17

The speed of the aeroplane in segment four of the take-off flight path with one engine inoperative

Question 18

Final Segment Speed
Final take-off speed

Answer 18

Final Segment Speed The speed of the aeroplane in segment four of the take-off flight path
with one engine inoperative
Final take-off speed The speed of the aeroplane that exists at the end of the take-off path in the
en-route configuration with one engine inoperative

Question 19

Frangibility

Answer 19

The ability of an object to retain its structural integrity and stiffness up to a specified maximum load but when subject to a load greater than specified or struck by an aircraft will break, distort or yield in such a manner as to present minimum hazard to an aircraft.

Question 20

Gross Height

Answer 20

The true height attained at any point in the take-off flight path using gross climb performance. Gross height is used for calculating pressure altitudes for purposes of obstacle clearance and the height at which wing flap retraction is initiated.

Question 21

Gross Performance

Answer 21

The average performance that a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual.

Question 22

Hydroplaning Speed

Answer 22

The speed at which the wheel is held off the runway by a depth of water and directional control through the wheel is impossible.

Question 23

Indicated Airspeed

Answer 23

The speed as shown by the pitot/static airspeed indicator calibrated to reflect Standard Atmosphere adiabatic compressible flow at MSL and uncorrected for airspeed system errors

Question 24

Landing Distance Available

Answer 24

The distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome above which the aeroplane can commence its landing, having regard to the obstructions in its approach path, to the nearest point in the direction of landing at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal operating conditions or at which there is an obstacle capable of affecting the safety of the aeroplane.

Question 25

Manoeuvre Ceiling

Answer 25

The altitude, in unaccelerated 1.3g level flight, where the mach number for the low speed and high speed buffet are coincident.

Question 26

Net Performance

Answer 26

Net performance is the gross performance diminished to allow for various contingencies that cannot be accounted for operationally e.g., variations in piloting technique, temporary below average performance, etc. It is improbable that the net performance will not be achieved in operation, provided the aeroplane is flown in accordance with the recommended techniques.

Question 27

Reference landing speed

Answer 27

The speed of the aeroplane, in a specified landing configuration, at the point where it descends through the landing screen height in the determination of the landing distance for manual landings

Question 28

Net Height

Answer 28

The true height attained at any point in the take-off flight path using net climb performance. Net height is used to determine the net flight path that must clear all obstacles by the statutory minimum to comply with the Operating Regulations.

Question 29

Runway, Runway Strip, Runway Threshold

Answer 29

Runway - A defined rectangular area, on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off run of aircraft along its length. Runway Strip - An area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft running off the runway and to protect aircraft flying over it when taking-off or landing. Runway Threshold - The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.

Question 30

Screen Height

Answer 30

The height of an imaginary screen placed at the end of the Take-Off Distance Required and at the beginning of the Landing Distance Required.

Question 31

Service Ceiling

Answer 31

The altitude at which the theoretical rate of climb becomes less than a specified rate of climb (typically 1000 ft/min or 300 ft/min), with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.

Question 32

Take-off Distance Available.

Answer 32

The distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane can commence its take-off run to the nearest obstacle in the direction of take-off projecting above the surface of the aerodrome and capable of affecting the safety of the aeroplane. - It is equal to TORA plus any clearway and cannot be more than one and one half times the TORA, whichever is the less.

Question 33

Take-off Power

Answer 33

The output shaft power identified in the performance data for use during takeoff, discontinued approach and baulked landing; i. for piston engines, it is limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 5 minutes; ii. for turbine engines installed in aeroplanes and helicopters, limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 5 minutes; and iii. for turbine engines installed in aeroplanes only (when specifically requested), limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 10 minutes in the event of a power-unit having failed or been shut down

Question 34

Take-off Run Available

Answer 34

The distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane can commence its take-off run to the nearest point in the direction of take-off at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal operating conditions.

Question 35

True airspeed

Answer 35

The airspeed of an aircraft relative to undisturbed air

Question 36

VEF

Answer 36

The calibrated airspeed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail and is used for the purpose of performance calculations. It is never less than VMCG.

Question 37

V1

Answer 37

Referred to as the decision speed. - It is the speed at which the pilot, in the event of a power unit failure, must decide whether to abandon or continue the take-off. - It is the maximum speed in the take-off at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g. apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the aeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance. - It also means the minimum speed in the take-off, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required height above the take-off surface within the takeoff distance. - Engine failure prior to V1 demands that the pilot must abandon the takeoff because there is insufficient distance remaining to enable the aircraft accelerate to the screen height. Engine failure after V1 demands that the pilot must continue the take-off because there is insufficient distance remaining to safely bring the aircraft to a stop.

Question 38

Wet runway

Answer 38

A runway is considered wet when the runway surface is covered with water, or equivalent moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.

Question 39

Zero flap speed

Answer 39

The minimum safe maneuvering speed with zero flap selected

Question 40

ACARS, ETOPS, RESA

Answer 40

ACARS Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System ETOPS Extended range with twin aeroplane operations RESA Runway End Safety Area

Question 41

QFE, QNE, QNH

Answer 41

QFE The altimeter sub-scale setting which causes the altimeter to read zero elevation when on the airfield reference point or runway threshold QNE The indicated height on the altimeter at the aerodrome datum point with the altimeter sub-scale set to 1013.2 hPa QNH The altimeter sub-scale setting which causes the altimeter to read the elevation of the airfield above mean sea level when placed on the airfield reference point or runway threshold

Question 42

V1, V2, V3, V4

Answer 42

V1 Decision Speed V2 Take-Off Safety Speed V2MIN Minimum take-off safety speed V3 All-engines operating steady initial climb speed V4 All-engines operating steady take-off climb speed

Question 43

VA VGO VMD VMP

Answer 43

VA Design Maneuvering Speed VGO The lowest decision speed from which a continued take-off is possible with TODA with one engine inoperative VMD Velocity of Minimum Drag VMP Velocity of Minimum Power

Question 44

VLOF , VMBE , VMC, VMCA, VMCG, VMCL, VMO, VMU, VNE, VP, VR, VRA, VREF, VS, VSR, VSR0, VSR1

Answer 44

VLOF Lift-off Speed VMBE Maximum brake-energy speed VMC Minimum control speed with the critical power unit inoperative VMCA Air minimum control speed in the air (take-off climb) VMCG Ground minimum control speed (at or near the ground) VMCL Landing minimum control speed (on the approach to land) VMO The maximum operating speed VMU The minimum unstick speed VNE Never exceed speed VP Hydroplaning/Aquaplaning speed VR Rotation Speed VRA The turbulence speed or rough air speed VREF The reference landing speed (Replaced VAT speed) VS Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable VSR Reference stalling speed. Assumed to tbe same as VS1G VSR0 Reference stalling speed in the landing configuration VSR1 Reference stalling speed in the specified configuration

Question 45

VS1G, VS0,VS1,VSTOP,VTIRE ,VX ,VY ,VZF ,WAT

Answer 45

VS1G Stalling speed at 1g or the one-g stall speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force (normal to the flight path) equal to its weight. This is assumed to be the same speed as VSR. VS0 The stalling speed with the flaps at the landing setting or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in the landing configuration VS1 The stalling speed for the configuration under consideration VSTOP The highest decision speed that an aeroplane can stop within ASDA VTIRE Maximum tire speed VX The speed for the best gradient or angle of climb VY The speed for the best rate of climb VZF The minimum safe maneuvering speed with zero flap WAT Weight-altitude-temperature

Question 46

PERFORMANCE CLASS A, B, C

Answer 46

PERFORMANCE CLASS A Multi-engined aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg., and all multi-engined turbo-jet powered aeroplanes. Class A aeroplanes must abide by the Certification Specifications laid out in the document from EASA called CS-25. PERFORMANCE CLASS B Propeller driven aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 9 or less, and a maximum take-off mass of 5700 kg. or less. Class B aeroplanes must abide by the Certification Specifications laid out in the document from EASA called CS-23. PERFORMANCE CLASS C Aeroplanes powered by reciprocating engines with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg.

Question 47

MEASURED PERFORMANCE

Answer 47

This is the performance achieved by the manufacturer under test conditions for certification. It utilizes new aeroplanes and test pilots and it therefore unrepresentative of the performance that will be achieved by an average fleet of aeroplanes.

Question 48

GROSS PERFORMANCE

Answer 48

Gross Performance is the average performance that a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual. Therefore, Gross Performance is Measured Performance reduced by a set margin to reflect average operating performance.

Question 49

NET PERFORMANCE

Answer 49

--Net performance is the gross performance diminished to allow for various contingencies that cannot be accounted for operationally e.g., variations in piloting technique, temporary below average performance, etc. It is improbable that the net performance will not be achieved inoperation, provided the aeroplane is flown in accordance with the recommended techniques. --This level of performance is approximately 5 standard deviations from the average performance or gross performance. Therefore, 99.99994% of the time, the aeroplane will achieve net performance or better. - However, there is less than one chance in a million that the aeroplane will not achieve the net performance. This is the safety standard which the aviation authorities aim to achieve.