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NZATS Registration Exam study flash cards > Definitions and explanations > Flashcards

Definitions and explanations Flashcards

1
Q

Define cleaning;

A

It is the process of removing all forms of foreign material by employing the mechanical action of washing or scrubbing

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2
Q

Define decontamination;

A

The process by which a person or a surface is made free from all the agents that contaminate the surface and lead to the surface and lead to the spread of infection

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3
Q

Define disinfection;

A

Antimicrobial process to remove, destroy or deactivate microorganisms on surfaces or in liquids

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4
Q

Define pathogen;

A

A pathogen is a tiny living organism such as a bacterium or virus that can produce disease in an individual

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5
Q

Define microorganism;

A

Microscopic organisms which may exist in its single celled form or in a colony of cells

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6
Q

Define aseptic processing;

A

It is defined as the processing and packaging of sterile product into sterilised containers followed by proper sealing with sterilised closure in a manner to control microbiological recontamination

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7
Q

Define antiseptic;

A

These are the substances applied on the living tissues to reduce the possibility of infection and growth of microorganisms

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8
Q

Define asepsis;

A

It is a process in which microbial agents on a living surface are either killed or their growth is arrested

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9
Q

Define AHTR

A

Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

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10
Q

What is a LIM?

A

Line isolation monitor

Detects leakage of current within equipment however, instead of cutting off the power supplied

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11
Q

What is Einthoven’s triangle?

A

Used to determine the electrical axis of the heart in the frontal plane

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12
Q

What does MALES BIT MOA represent?

A

M- mask, Magill’s
A – airway oropharyngeal, nasopharyngeal, Ambu bag, agent
L – laryngoscope, LMA
E – ET tube, emergency drugs
S – Suction under the pillow, syringe, stylet, stethoscope

B – Bag of fluid, bougie
I – IV cannulation
T – tapes, ties

M – Monitoring
O – oxygen cylinder
A – Accessory equipment – air warmers, infusion pumps, fluid warmer

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13
Q

What does the acronym HAEMP represent regarding bariatric airway set up?

A

H-hand hygiene

A – anaesthetic type

E - Environment positioning devices e.g. supports

M – level 2 or 3 machine check

P – sniffing the morning air position

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14
Q

What does NIM stand for?

A

Neural integrity monitor

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15
Q

Define RCD;

A

Residual control device

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16
Q

Define CPP;

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure

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17
Q

Define CBF;

A

Cerebral blood flow

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18
Q

State the relationship between CSF, CBF and ICP;

A

CSF, CBF, ICP are constant so an increase in one should cause a reciprocal decrease in one both remaining two

Vice versa

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19
Q

What are the 3 assessments for the Glasgow coma scale?

A

**Eye opening **

Spontaneous – 4
To sound – 3
To pressure – 2
None - 1

**Verbal response **

Orientated – 5
Confused – 4
Words – 3
Sounds – 2
None - 1

**Motor response **

Obey commands -6
Localising - 5
Normal flexion - 4
Abnormal flexion - 3
Extension - 2
None - 1

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20
Q

What are the 3 consciousness ratings of the Glasgow coma scale?

A

Severe - 3-8

Moderate - 9 - 12

Mild - 13-15

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21
Q

Define ACVPU;

A

Alert

Confusion [new onset or worsening] confusion

Voice

Pain

Unresponsive

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22
Q

Define GCS;

A

Glasgow coma scale

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23
Q

Explain the rule of nines and how it is used to estimate the extent of a burn’s injury;

A

Dividing the bodies surface area into percentages to calculate the extent of the burns injury

Front + back of head and neck = 9%

Front + back of each arm = 9%

Chest = 9%

Stomach = 9%

Upper back = 9%

Lowerback = 9%

Front and back of each leg and foot 9% each side

Genital area = 1%

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24
Q

Discuss fourth degree burn;

A

Go through both layers of skin and underlying tissue as well as deeper tissue, possibly involving muscle and bone

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25
Discuss third degree burn;
Destroys the epidermis and dermis This may go into the subcutaneous tissue
26
Discuss second degree burn;
Involves the epidermis and part of the lower layer of skin - dermis
27
Discuss first degree burn;
Effect the outer layer of skin – superficial
28
Define vasovagal;
Over activity of the vagus nerve resulting to a temporary fall in blood pressure, heart rate, fainting
29
Define anastomosis;
Surgical connection between two structures usually between tubular structures
30
Define diagnosis of compartment syndrome;
Increased pressure in a confined space that causes significant pain and can decrease blood flow
31
Define reaming;
Technique used with rotational cutting tools known as reamers. Used to remove cartilage from the acetabulum
32
What is a LSCS?
Lower segment caesarean section
33
Give 5 reasons why a women would require an emergency LSCS
Prolonged labour Foetal distress Cord prolapses Exhaustion Placenta problem
34
Give three medical reasons why a women might be offered a LSCS;
Birth Defects Abnormal positioning Chronic health conditioning
35
Define epistaxis;
nosebleed
36
Define the coroner's clot
Occult hidden clot of blood remaining in the nasopharynx behind the soft palate following surgery or trauma which can cause a fatal airway obstruction following extubation
37
Define pharmacokinetics;
The study of how the body interacts with administered substances for the entire duration of exposure
38
Define pharmacodynamics;
The study of the molecular, biochemical and physiologic effects and actions on the body
39
Expand the acronym LASER
Light Amplification Stimulated Emission Radiation
40
Define scatter regarding radiation;
Radiation that spreads out in different directions from a radiation beam when it encounters an object or tissue
41
State CVC insertion sites
Internal jugular Subclavian vein Femoral vein
42
Define bioavailability;
The rate and extent to which the rate a drug is absorbed and reaches circulation IV administration has a bioavilability of 100%
43
Define toxicity;
Chemicals or drug concentrations are at such high levels in the body that they can damage organs and tissues
44
Define antagonist;
A chemical substance that binds to and blocks the activation of receptors on cells preventing a biological response
45
Define agonist;
Is a chemical that binds to a receptor on a cell to cause activation thus causing a response
46
Define a half-life regarding medications;
It is the time taken for half of the drug to be broken down by biological processing
47
List fractionated blood products available;
Plasma Cryoprecipitate Platelets Immunoglobins Albumin Irradiated and leuko depleted red blood cells
48
What is ROSC?
Return of spontaneous circulation Generally detected by arterial pulse palpation and end tidal CO2 monitoring
49
Define macroshock
Larger electrical current passes through the body
50
Define microshock
A small electric current passing directly through the heart and directly sending the patient into ventricular fibrillation
51
What is the relationship between standard preacautions and infection control?
Universal precautions are in place to prevent infections and contamination Following standard precautions, we can minimise infection spreading which allows for better infection control
52
OSA
Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
53
NOF
Neck of Femur
54
MUA
Manipulation under Anaesthesia
55
PPE
Personal Protective Equipment
56
VT
Ventricular Tachycardia
57
TIVA
Total Intravenous Anaesthesia
58
RAE
Ring, Adair, Elwyn
59
PCA
Patient controlled Analgesia
60
MRSA
Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
61
FiO2
Fraction Inspired Oxygen
62
ACF
Activated Charcoal filters or anterior cubital fossa
63
AAA
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
64
GIK
Glucose, Insulin, Potassium
65
DAS
Difficult airway Society
66
ASA
American Society of Anaesthesiologist
67
IVC
Inferior Vena Cava
68
ITM
Intrathecal Morphine
69
CLAB
Central line Associated Bacteraemia
70
CSE
Combined Spinal Epidural
71
EUA
Examination under Anaesthesia
72
LMWH
Low Molecular Weight Heparin
73
TEG
Thromboaelastogram
74
SAH
Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
75
RIC
Rapid Infusion Catheter
76
MI
Myocardial Infarction
77
VSD
Ventricular Septal Defect
78
THJR
Total Hip Joint Replacement
79
PEEP
Positive End Expiratory Pressure
80
LIM
Line Isolation Monitor
81
IPPV
Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation
82
ESBL
Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase
83
HME
Heat, Moisture Exchange
84
HELLP
Haemolysis Elevated Liver Enzyme and Low Platelets
85
What is Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction AHTR
A life-threatening reaction to receiving a blood transfusion that results from the rapid destruction of donor red blood cells by host antibodies (Can be delayed)
86
What does TRALI stand for and what is it?
Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury Repaid onset of excess fluid in the lungs. Symptoms = acute respiratory distress, fever, bilateral infiltrates on chest
87
What does TACO stand for and what is it?
Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload Pulmonary oedema primarily caused by volume excess Symptoms = acute respiratory distress, cough, pink sputum, decreased SpO2, nausea, pulmonary oedema, raised CVP.
88
What is CO2 measured in?
kPa and mmHg
89
What is side stream CO2?
Connected to adapter at patient end Small increase of dead space Time delay Moisture trap
90
What is Mainstream CO2?
Sample chamber positioned within patient’s gas stream Increased dead space Heated to prevent condensation No time delay
91
What does APL stand for?
Adjustable Pressure limiting valve
92
What does MAC stand for?
Minimum alveolar concentration
93
What does VIE stand for?
Vacuum Insulated Evaporator
94
What does DRSABCD stand for?
Check for DANGER Check for a RESPONSE SEND for help Check the AIRWAY Check for BREATHING Start CPR DEFIBRILLATION
95
What are the 4 T’s related to an emergency?
Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade, Thrombosis, Toxins
96
What are the 4 H’s related to an emergency?
Hypovolemia, Hypoglycaemia/Hyperkalaemia, Hypo/Hyperthermia, Hypoxia
97
Line insulation Monitor
An electrical device that monitors a decrease in electrical resistance and alerts to any change
98
Residual Current Device
An electrical device that monitors current leakage and shuts off if excess, unexpected current is detected
99
What does UPS stand for?
Uninterruptible power supply
100
What does BCIS stand for?
Bone cement implantation syndrome
101
What are the patient signs of BCIS?
Hypoxia Hypotension Or unexpected loss of consciousness occurring around the time of cementation, prosthesis insertion
102
What are the 7 layers of tissue to cut through for a c-section?
Skin Subcutaneous fat Fascia Muscle Peritoneum Uterus Amniotic sac
103
What is PEA?
Pulseless electrical activity
104
What is SVT?
Supraventricular tachycardia
105
What is atelectasis?
The collapse of part or all a lung Caused by a blockage of the air passages [bronchus or bronchioles]
106
What are the shockable rhythms?
VF / VT
107
What are some non-shockable rhythms?
Asystole/PEA sinus, SVT, PSVT, Afib
108
What are the Defibrillator Instructions?
Attach defibrillator pads to patient in the appropriate way Select energy 200J and press charge Once charged stop CPR and assess rhythm If shock advised ensure all staff stand clear of bed Press shock and immediately restart CPR
109
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Rhino
Nose
110
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Lamino
Laminar
111
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Encephal
Brain
112
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Colono
large intestine / colon
113
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Arthr
Joint
114
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Angio
blood vessel
115
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Myo
Muscle tissue
116
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Colpo
Vagina
117
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Hyster
Uterus
118
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Cysto
Bladder
119
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Pneumo
Lungs
120
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Thoracic
Chest
121
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Orchid
Testicles
122
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Gastro
Stomach
123
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Salpingo
Fallopian tubes
124
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Oculo
Eye
125
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Oophro
Ovary
126
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Laryngo
Layrnx
127
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Derma
Skin
128
List this type of surgical anatomy location; Nephro
Kidney

NZATS Registration Exam study flash cards (8 decks)

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