Degree summary - Practical Only Flashcards

1
Q

How is breathing controlled under normal circumstances?

A

Breathing is mediated by the medullary respiratory centre (MRC), which controls breathing depth and frequency according to inputs from chemoreceptors Central chemoreceptors in the medulla respond to changes in PH, whilst peripheral receptors in the carotid sinus and aorta are sensitive to changes in plasma that effect the partial pressure of oxygen (Pa02) and carbon dioxide (PaC02). PC02 provides the stimulus for breathing rather than pa02.

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2
Q

What type of drug is amiodarone?

A

Class III anti-arrhythmic and is a K+ channel blocker.

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3
Q

When is amiodarone indicated?

A

REFACTORY Ventricular Tachycardia or Ventricular Fibrillation in cardiac arrest (ie, if the patient remains in VT/VF post 3 cycles of CPR/shocks or if the patient has a tendency to revert to VT/VF on repeated conversions). In some cases it has also been used in tachyarrythmias such as AF and SVT.

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action for amiodarone?

A

Amiodarone blocks some K+ channels resulting in slowed efflux of K+, thereby prolonging phase III of the cardiac action potential. This leads to slowed repolarisation, increased refractory period and increased QT interval, making it more likely that higher pacemaker cells (outside the ventricles) take over through the interruption of re-entrant tachycardia’s and suppressing ectopic activity.

It also has a minor action of blocking Na+ channels, Ca2+ channels and beta receptors, thus slowing HR and conduction through the AV node.

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5
Q

Does amiodarone improve survival?

A

Amiodarone has been shown to significantly improve the chances of survival to hospital. There is however, no benefit of amiodarone in survival to discharge or neurological outcomes. The ARREST and ALIVE (double blind randomised controlled trials) both concluded that amiodarone had higher rates of survival to hospital admission.

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6
Q

What are the 4 H’s?

A
  1. Hypoxia
  2. Hypovolemia
  3. Hypo/Hyper kalaemia and h+ hydrogen ions
  4. Hhypothermia
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7
Q

What are the four T’s?

A
  1. Toxins
  2. Tamponade
  3. Tension Pnemothorax
  4. Thrombosis.
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8
Q

What changes occur to metabolism during hypoxia?

A

Without oxygen, the body cannot facilitate aerobic metabolism (oxygen driven metabolism of fats, protein and carbohydrates). Anaerobic metabolism is VASTLY less efficient (way less ATP). It also has H+ ion byproducts predominatley due to lactic acid production associated with this process.

These H+ ions are converted to c02, and as pac02 increases, RR increases accordingly to expel it. Once biarbonate and respiration increases cannot compensate - metabolic acidosis occurs (later stage sign in MI for example).

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9
Q

What is the patho of an MI?

A

MI is commonly precipitated by a ruptured coronary atheroma, exposing a lipid core to platelets that aggregate and initiate a coagulation cascade (Brener 2006, p. 2). As a thrombus forms myocytes become ischemic and switch to anaerobic metabolic production, reducing availability of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) (Aymong, Ramanathan & Buller 2007, p. 705).

Contractile function is impaired and ionic dysregulation results in necrotic or oedematous myocytes (Aymong, Ramanathan & Buller 2007, p. 705). As cardiac output (HR x stroke volume - so only stroke volume is reduced) and mean arterial pressure (MAP) decline, heart rate, inotrope and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increase, worsening ischemia and potentially expanding the infarct (Lilly 2012, p. 168).

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10
Q

Why is a BP potentially narrow in an MI?

A

Stroke volume and heart rate are the determinants of cardiac output. SV tends to decrease as ventricular contractile function is impaired, which occurs due to cellular deficits of ATP and the presence and propagation of necrotic tissue.

These processes cause a decrease in left ventricular ejection fraction and when paired with increases in systemic vascular resistance (SVR), they lead to a narrowed pulse pressure which may signal the onset of cardiogenic shock

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11
Q

What hormonal response occurs in MI, how does this effect the heart?

A

Increases in SVR occur in response to drops in MAP, which prompt sympathetic release of adrenaline and nor adrenaline causing systemic vasoconstriction, increased inotrope and increased chronotrope (Lilly 2012, p. 168). This response is maladaptive and increases afterload and the inotropic force necessary to eject blood from the left ventricle (Gowda, Fox & Khan 2008, p. 223).

Inotrope rises in accordance with this demand and widespread vasoconstriction enhances preload (Gowda, Fox & Khan 2008, p. 223). Subsequently there is a marked increase in ventricular wall tension and myocyte stretch in accordance with Starlings law, resulting in greater myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2) and exacerbation of ischemia (Gowda, Fox & Khan 2008, p. 223).

An increased HR also enhances MVO2, according to its inverse relationship with diastolic filling time (Gowda, Fox & Khan 2008, p. 223). As ischemia is worsened the function of myocytes tend to decline, promoting further maladaptive responses – which may lead to greater infarct size and cardiogenic shock (Gowda, Fox & Khan 2008, p. 224).

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12
Q

What are the three classifications of hypovolemia?

A

In a 70kg adult male:

Mild = 750ml or 15% of total blood volume

Moderate = 750-1500ml or

15-30%Severe = Above 2 litres of blood or >40%.

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13
Q

What are the three classifications of hypothermia?

A

mild = 35-32°C

Moderate 32°C- 28°C

Severe = <28°C

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14
Q

Hyperkalemia is a serum potassium level above?

it causes?

How is it detected in ECG?

A
  • 5.5mmol.

Potassium plays a vital role in heart function, particularly in heart rhythm with its involvement in the SA node and influence on diastolic depolarization. In the AV node, the permeability of potassium determines the time required for depolarisation to reach the action potential voltage threshold, once reached the electrical conduction can be transmitted to the ventricles. During the recovery or repolorisation phase, hyperkalaemia can be detected on an ECG through its characteristic ‘peaked T-waves’, often an early sign.

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15
Q

Why does hypokalaemia matter? How is it detected on ECG?

A

hypokalaemia is a level <3.5mmol/L.

It is a less common cause of cardiac arrest; however, decreased extracellular potassium levels can lead to myocardial hyperexcitability potentially leading to the development of re-entrant arrhythmias. The presence of hypokalaemia is noted on an ECG through increased amplitude of the P wave, prolonged PR interval, T wave flattening/inversion and/or ST depression

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16
Q

DRSABCD is now wrong ONLY in traumatic arrest. Explain the new order

A

DRSCABDED -

 D-  Danger 
R - Response 
S - Send for help
 C- Circulation (only in traumatic cause - fluid bolus of 20 ml per kilo given because hypovolemia a likely cause)
A - Airway
B- Breathing 
D- Disability
E - Environment
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17
Q

There are alpha cells and beta cells in the pancreas, what function does each one have? These cells are only found in the islets of langerhans and involve the ENDOCRINE function of the pancreas.

A

Alpha - Glucagon

Beta - Insulin.

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18
Q

What condition in in particular are type 2 diabetics prone to?

A

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). The high levels of glucose in plasma increase the osmolarity of blood. Therefore, fluid is drawn from cells (cellular dehydration) increasing blood volume. As blood volume increases, more urine is produced (polu uria) and more drinking occurs for cell shrivelling due to dehydration (polydipsia). The brain gets dehydrated so they have MENTAL STATUS changes.

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19
Q

Why would someone with poorly controlled diabetes have weight loss

A

Glucose cant get into cells. So lipolysis occurs (fat burning for ATP) and protein breakdown (muscle tissue). This causes weight loss but paradoxically increased hunger.

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20
Q

Explain how chronic polydipsia and polyuria occur in diabetes 1 and 2. It differs from acute situations.

A

As glucose enters the degraded glomerulus, more glucose gets into the filtrate (glycosuria). A higher solute concentration causes osmosis to draw more water. Therefore more urine is produced. They therefore become dehydrated and need to drink more also. (polydipsia + polyuria)

21
Q

Explain DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis).

A

Mainly occurs in type 1 diabetes. Because most type 2 diabetes produce some insulin, even when they are insulin dependent.

  1. Hyperglycemia occurs. However there is no insulin available to allow glucose into cells. They are starved.
  2. Cells are starved of oxygen so lipolysis is intiated (within the liver) to produce free fatty acids (FFAs). Glucagon is also upregulated worsening the situation (more glucose in the blood)
  3. After that the LIVER turns these FFAs into ketone bodies.
  4. Ketone bodies can be used by the body for ENERGY. BUT they also increase blood acidity. The ketones are needed primarily becasue the BRAIN needs energy. FFAS cant cross the BBB. Blood becomes acidic and PH declines. Kussmaul breathing can occur (deep/laboured breathing).
  5. A loss of insulin also means that the ATPase pump is DOWN regulated (no energy to drive it). Therefore the ionic gradients are changed, more potassium is in the ECF (rather than being actively transported inside the cell where it belongs), and then this makes it way into plasma increasing plasma potassium concentration.
  6. Hyperkalaemia then occurs. Potassium is excreted. Therefore blood K+ is high over time, and intracellular K+ stores are low over time.
  7. ketones are broken down into acetone…this is the sweet fruity smell you may get on a persons breath.
  8. Complications can include changes in mental status and cerebral oedema.
22
Q

Why might an infection result in DKA for a type ONE diabetic (remembering it is mostly type 1s that suffer DKAs).

A

NORMALLY associated with type ONE diabetes because type 2 have SOME circulating insulin.

  1. It increases body stress.
  2. Adrenaline is released
  3. This prompts release of glucagon. Increases hyperglycaemia even more@
  4. Not enough insulin around-> hyperglycemia -> glucose in urine -> loss of water -> dehydration.
  5. Also, the cellular starvation calls for ketone bodies to be released from liver after lipolysis. This can lead to DKA. 6. Acetone is how ketoacids are broken down. Gives the breath it’s fruity smell.
23
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

When women have increased resting BGL (Diabetes) during the 3rd trimester. Thought to be related to pregancy hormones effecting insulin receptors.

24
Q

Explain how nerves become damaged in diabetes

A

excess glucose causes increased intracellular pressure w.hich damages nerve cells. This is because a higher solute concentration = increased osmotic pressure. This occurs in cells of peripheral nerves, leading to peripheral myelin sheath degradation and disrupted nerve impulse transmission, which can cause altered sensation

25
Q

What happens to the kidneys in diabetes?

A

Glomerlus damage, and thus glycouria. polyuria, and polydipsia. Nephrotic syndrome can occur resulting in dialysis. Glucose in the urine also provides a suitable environment for bacteria, causing UTIs

26
Q

What is the difference between a catabolic and anabolic process>

A

Anabolic - Creates molecules and requires energy

Catabolic - Breaks down molecules and produces energy

27
Q

The three main components of stroke volume are?

A
  1. End-diastolic volume (pre-load) - The frank starling mechanism tells us this increases inotrope. 2. Afterload ( the pressure against which the heart must work to eject blood during systole) 3. Sympathetic inputs to the ventricles.
28
Q

Explain Glucagon, glycogen, gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis.

A

Glucagon - Released from the alpha cells in the pancreas, when insulin is low (say a few hours after a meal). This hormone prompts both glycogenolysis (the breakdown of glycogen which is stored in the liver to release energy). It also similtaneously causes gluconeogenesis, which is the production of glucose from other sources.

Gluconeogenesis - Is a metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from certain non-carbohydrate carbon substrates - Fats and proteins.

Glycogenolysis - Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in response to glucagon.

Glycogen - The stored substrate of energy in skeletal muscle and (primarily) in the liver.

29
Q

Beta 1, 2 and 3 - primary locations of the respective adreoreceptors?

A

Beta 1. Heart and kidney

Beta 2. Lungs, GI tract, uterus, vascular smooth muscle

Beta 3. Fat cells only

30
Q

Explain cushings reflex and cushings triad

A

Cushings reflex: This reflex is normally from poor perfusion due to increased ICP. It entails a hypothalamic response to brain ischemia -> Causing sympathetic nervous system activation.

This increases peripheral vascular resistance -> BP therefore increases.

Baroreceptors pick up the high BP and a paradoxical vagal-bradycardia is initiated. Cushings reflex leads to Cushings triad

  1. Hypertension
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Irregular respirations (Cheyne-Stokes breathing) OR widened pulse pressure. Cushings triad signals impending danger of brain herniation, and thus, the need for decompression.
31
Q

Explain a ventricular escape rhythm?

A

Another word for this is an IDIOVENTRICULAR rhythm. Normally it means the rate is roughly the intrinsic ventricular rate. It is when pacemaking is occuring in the ventricles. Apparently the condition is largely benign…not 100% sure.

Rate: 20-40
Rhythm: Regular
P wave: None
WRS Width: >120 ms - WIDE

32
Q

What is agonal breathing?

A

The last breaths before death. resents in many forms including; irregular breathing, occasional breaths or gasps, laboured or noisy breaths, sighing, gurgling, moaning, groaning or snorting. It has an insufficient tidal volume and should not be considered a sign of life.

33
Q

What causes agonal breathing?

A

Agonal breathing occurs due to hypoxia and cerebral ischaemia. It originates from lower brainstem neurons as higher centre become increasingly hypoxic.

34
Q

Is there any benefit to agonal breathing?

A

While tidal volume is insufficient, agonal breathing has favourable cardiopulmonary effects. These include; improved pulmonary gas exchange, increased venous return and cardiac output, improved cardiac contractility, increased aortic pressure and increased coronary perfusion.

35
Q

How does kaussmaul breathing present?

A

Kussmaul’s breathing – refers to a pattern with regular increased frequency and increased tidal volume and can often be seen to be gasping.

36
Q

When does kaussmaul breathing normally happen?

A

Kussmaul breathing occurs as respiratory compensation for severe metabolic acidosis via expiration of carbon dioxide.

Therefore, it is often seen secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). It may also arise due to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and renal failure. COPD is another canidate.

Kussmaul breathing results in arterial blood gas analysis showing hypocapnia in normally functioning lungs.

Implications:W hile Kussmaul breathing is typically associated with DKA other differential diagnoses should be thoroughly explored.

This is because treatment for DKA involved fluid therapy which could be detrimental to a patient presenting with Kussmaul breathing secondary to increased ICP or renal failure.

37
Q

What is cheyne stokes respiration?

A

Cheyne–Stokes respiration is an abnormal pattern of breathing characterised by progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease (shallower and sometimes slower) that results in a temporary stop in breathing called an apnea.

The pattern repeats, with each cycle usually taking 30 seconds to 2 minutes.[1] It is an oscillation of ventilation between apnea and hyperpnea with a crescendo-diminuendo pattern.

38
Q

What causes cheyne stokes respiration? What conditions cause it?

A

The mechanisms of Cheyne-Stokes breathing are not well understood.

Anything that effects the brain can cause it. BUT Cheyne-Stokes breathing is particularly associated with end of life and congestive heart failure (CHF) while sleeping.

In patients with CHF, Cheyne-Stokes breathing increases risk of adverse cardiac events. This is because diastolic dysfunction and dysrhythmias worsen due to hypoxaemia caused by excessive sympathetic stimulation in response to apnoea.

Therefore, paramedics should thoroughly investigate the cardiovascular system of patients with CHF and Cheyne-Stokes breathing.

39
Q

What are the 4 T’s?

A
  1. Toxins 2. Tension pnemothorax 3. Tamponade 4. Thrombosis.
40
Q

Explain Toxins, as part of the 4 T’s

A

Some of the most common medication overdoses which result in cardiac arrest are tricyclic antidepressants, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin and cocaine.

Physical signs of a toxin ingestion can include bradycardia, an altered pupil response, and other neurological changes. An ECG sign is a prolonged QT interval.

There are many toxins that cause cardiac arrest via many mechanisms. Some cause airway or respiratory compromise, such as sedatives, opioids, or cholinergic agents.

Others cause circulatory compromise, such as sodium channel blockers, or Na+/K+ ATPase inhibition (digoxin/oleander). Other drugs illicit CNS depression, seizures or cerebral oedema. Some drugs cause significant systemic and metabolic effects, such as coagulopathy (venom), hypoglycaemia, hypo/hyperkalaemia, and temperature dysregulation.

41
Q

Quick summary of tension pneumo? Plus treatment?

A

A pneumothorax (of any kind) is defined as air between the parietal and visceral plura. A tension pneumothorax develops when air enters the plural space and is prevented from escaping. This build-up of air causes a shift in the mediastinum which obstructs venous return and may result in cardiac arrest.

Physical signs include a decreasing level of consciousness, difficulty with ventilation, unequal, decreased or absent breath sounds upon auscultation, hyper-resonance to percussion on the affected side, jugular vein distension, tracheal displacement towards the normal side, and a weak or absent radial pulse.

An ECG may indicate narrow QRS complexes and a slow heart rate. Treatment involves a chest needle decompression in the 2nd intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line on the affected side above the 3rd rib which releases the pressure in the pleural cavity.

42
Q

What makes a tension pneumothorax different to a standard one?What patho?

A

In a standard pneumothorax the volume of air in the plueral space is constant. In a tension, it is continually increasing due to a ‘one-way valve’ in which air enters but does not escape.

Enters on inspiration, does not exit on expiration. It becomes a tension when the intraplueral pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure. There is a mediastinal shift (the membrane between the lung cavities of each side). There is vena cava compression, reduced venous return and reduced caardiac output. As it continues, the lung continues to be compressed more rapidly leading to quick patient deterioration in respiratory function (in addition to the cardiac issues).

43
Q

Signs and symptoms of pneumothorax?

A
  1. Hypoperfusion (pale, hypotensive)
  2. tachy with pulsus paradoxus (BP lowers by 10 mmHg on inspiration).
  3. decrease in breath sounds (can be both fields or just one).
  4. Dysponea and tachponea
  5. Decreasing GCS
  6. Hyperresonance on one side and Raised JVD
44
Q

Summary of tamponade - what it is + signs and symptoms?

A

Cardiac tamponade occurs when blood or other fluids accumulate in the pericardium and compress the heart preventing the ventricles from filling properly and results in ineffective cardiac output.

A cardiac tamponade may be caused by trauma to the chest or inflammation of the pericardium. Physical signs include tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure, an absent pulse, muffled heart sounds upon auscultation, and jugular vein distension. An ECG reading may indicate narrow QRS complexes.

45
Q

What signs might show on an ECG showing an MI?

A

An ECG reading may indicate ST-segment changes, T-wave inversion and/or Q waves.

46
Q

What is the most significant indicator if you suspect an hypovolemic shock?

A

Severe hypotension on postural change. Similarly, postural changes in HR >30 are significant.

47
Q

What is a peptic ulcer?

A

Peptic ulcers are local ruptures of the gastric or duodenal mucosa with tissue destruction to at least to the depth of the [muscularis mucosa].Peptic ulcers include (mainly) those in the- stomach- duodenum]- Merkel’s diverticulum

PAIN is the most common symptom.BLEEDING and PERFORATION are the most serious complications.

48
Q

What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding?

A

[Peptic ulcer disease] (PUD) is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding. Most ulcers are directly caused by infection with [Helicobacter pylori] (H. pylori) or by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAIDs), including aspirin, which inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and block normal mucosal defence mechanisms.

There is a fair bit of debate happening as to whether or not isolated corticosteroid use can cause ulcers, although the ability of corticosteroids to enhance NSAID-associated ulcers is well established. IDIOPATHIC ulcers are RARE and most are due to false negative H. pylori tests or unrecognised NSAIDs use.