Dent 1010 T#4 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Dent 1010 T#4 Deck (53):
1

The following are examples of an AUTOGENOUS infection, EXCEPT:
A) Herpetic Whitlow
B) Bacteremia
C) Dental Caries

C) Dental Caries

2

Define: autogenous infection

Arising from within or from a thing itself. IE: Herpetic Whitlow lesion from labial herpetic lesion or Bacteremia from exposure of blood to bacteria during prophylactic cleaning.

3

UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS must be followed for patients afflicted with or being:
A) HIV
B) HBV
C) Healthy
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

4

Circle the element(s) REQUIRED for the transmission of infection or disease.
A) Intact skin and mucous membranes
B) Immunocompromised individual
C) Control of aerosols

B) Immunocompromised individual

5

The following are characteristics of CHICKEN POX or varicella - Zoster Virus, EXCEPT:
A) Route of infection via the mucosa of the upper respiratory tract
B) Highly infectious
C) No vaccine is available
D) Oral lesions may appear as vesicles

C) No vaccine is available

6

The following are OSHA'S MANDATES for the safety of health providers, EXCEPT:
A) Written infection control protocols
B) Documentation of biological monitoring procedures
C) MSDS sheets are filed away and are never gone over with staff
D) Hazardous chemicals are stored and labeled properly

C) MSDS sheets are filed away and are never gone over with staff

7

Patients infected with HBV or HEPATITIS B may present themselves with the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
A) Chronic carriers for as long as six months
B) Asymptomatic and undiagnosed
C) Saliva and blood - fluids are infectious
D) Were blood donors after 1985

D) Were blood donors after 1985

8

HEPATITIS is inflammation of which organ?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Lung

A) Liver

9

Identify the FALSE statement regarding INFECTION CONTROL procedures:
A) Gloves must be worn whenever there is a risk for contacting blood, blood contaminated saliva, mucous membranes, or respiratory secretions.
B) Gloves should be washed between patients to prevent the spread of disease.
C) Protective clothing should be changed daily or when visibly soiled.

B) Gloves should be washed between patients to prevent the spread of disease.

10

FAILURE OF STERILIZATION can be attributed to the following:
A) Overloading of cassettes
B) Proper time and temperature
C) Followed Manufacturer's instructions

A) Overloading of cassettes

11

The following design and equipment selection will PROMOTE INFECTION CONTROL measures, EXCEPT:
A) Foot operated sink faucets, and soap dispensers
B) Smooth, uncluttered countertop surfaces
C) Carpeting on the floor
D) Tubing is straight and smooth

C) Carpeting on the floor

12

An ideal DISINFECTANT for surface disinfection should be all, EXCEPT:
A) Non-irritating to skin and eyes
B) Stable shelf-life
C) Effective killing of spores

C) Effective killing of spores

13

HIV causes significant HEALTH CHANGES in infected individuals by:
A) Attacking the T4-lymphocytes, thus causing an increase in opportunistic infections
B) Increasing the CD4 lymphocyte count to 600 to 1000
C) Increasing capillary permeability, thus causing redness, itching and swelling in affected areas

A) Attacking the T4-lymphocytes, thus causing an increase in opportunistic infections

14

An important DETERRENT against the transmission of disease in the dental office is:
A) Requiring that patients undergo HIV testing
B) Refusing to treat patients from high-risk groups
C) Vaccinating office staff who are exposed to bloodborne pathogens for HBV

C) Vaccinating office staff who are exposed to bloodborne pathogens for HBV

15

Identify the method of sterilization MOST COMMONLY employed by dental offices:
A) Steam sterilization
B) Dry heat sterilization
C) Chemical vapor sterilization

A) Steam sterilization

16

When moving instruments from THE ULTRASONIC BATH to the sink for rinsing, one should wear:
A) Gloves
B) Eye protection
C) Mask
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

17

To RETRIEVE ADDITIONAL GAUZE from a drawer during an oral prophylaxis appointment, one should do which of the following?
A) Use rinsed examination gloves
B) Use a paper towel
C) Ask the patient to assist

B) Use a paper towel

18

DRY HEAT sterilization is NOT suitable for:
A) Plastics
B) Metals
C) Glass

A) Plastics

19

COLD STERILIZATION/disinfection is BEST suited for:
A) Plastics
B) Metals
C) Glass

A) Plastics

20

All of the following are characteristics of common clinical signs of HIV 1 INFECTION, EXCEPT:
A) Candidiasis
B) Kaposi's sarcoma
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Mucocele

D) Mucocele

21

Select the statement that best DESCRIBES OSHA REQUIREMENTS regarding occupational exposures:
A) The dental office must have a plan for documenting and evaluating employee occupational exposures
B) Employees are responsible for the documentation and evaluation for occupational exposures
C) OSHA directly monitors and evaluates employee occupational exposures

A) The dental office must have a plan for documenting and evaluating employee occupational exposures

22

A patient appears for a scheduled appointment with a "FEVER SORE" beginning to form on the lower lip. Which is the proper way to handle this patient?
A) Treat as usual since he is a patient of record
B) Treat but coat the lip with some ointment for safe treatment
C) Re-Appoint since prodromal state may be contagious

C) Re-Appoint since prodromal state may be contagious

23

The INCUBATION PERIOD FOR HEPATITIS B VIRUS is:
A) 2-6 days
B) 2-6 weeks
C) 2-6 months

C) 2-6 months

24

Which of the method of heat sterilization would contribute to DULLING the instruments' cutting edges (blades)?
A) Steam under pressure
B) Chemical vapor

A) Steam under pressure

25

Which of the following will contribute to THE PREVENTION OF DISEASE TRANSMISSION and lessen the chance of cross-contamination?
A) Utilization of barriers
B) High volume aspirations
C) Flushing water lines
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

26

Which of the following METHODS OF STERILIZATION kills bacterial spores in the SHORTEST time?
A) Dry heat oven
B) Chemical vapor
C) Steam autoclave

C) Steam autoclave

27

Choose the CORRECT ORDER of preparation for personal protective equipment for the dental hygienist:
A) Gloves, glasses, mask
B) Glasses, mask, gloves
C) Mask, glasses, gloves

C) Mask, glasses, gloves

28

An infection that is NOT likely to be transmitted by blood transfusion is:
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B

A) Hepatitis A

29

ETHYLENE OXIDE has the following action on bacteria:
A) Antiseptic
B) Disinfects
C) Sterilizes

C) Sterilizes (chemical vapor)

30

INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS is a disease that occurs mostly in adolescents and is caused by:
A) Varicella virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Herpes Simplex type 1

B) Epstein-Barr virus

31

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by a SINGLE-STRANDED RNA VIRUS known as a:
A) Retrovirus
B) Tumor virus
C) Arbovirus

A) Retrovirus

32

RUBELLA immunity in health care workers is important because:
A) A fetus of a pregnant female is at major risk until the third trimester
B) Of limited serological tests of diagnosis of rubella
C) Of chronic and persistent gastronephritis

A) A fetus of a pregnant female is at major risk until the third trimester

33

The term UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS means that:
A) All procedures are performed as though the patients were infectious
B) Personal protective barriers are worn
C) Any precautions taken are adequate

A) All procedures are performed as though the patients were infectious

34

The MOST COMMON NEOPLASM seen in AIDS patients is:
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Kaposi's sarcoma

C) Kaposi's sarcoma

35

Which of the following indicates the EFFECTIVENESS OF STERILIZATION?
A) Change of color on autoclave tape or bag
B) Spore test
C) Following time and temperature requirements exactly

B) Spore test

36

The VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS is responsible for which ONE of the following diseases?
A) Shingles
B) Measles
C) Infectious mononucleosis

A) Shingles

37

The patient's history indicates that he is taking ISONIAZID, RIFAMPIN, AND ETHAMBUTOL. What is the patient being treated for?
A) Herpes simplex viruses
B) Tuberculosis
C) Legionnaires' disease

B) Tuberculosis

38

TRUE or FALSE
Spatter particles remain airborne for a very long time.

False

39

TRUE or FALSE
Herpes simplex is a viral infection and the virus is present in saliva even if the patient appear in good health.

True

40

TRUE or FALSE
Hepatitis D cannot cause infection except in the presence of Hepatitis B.

True

41

TRUE or FALSE
It is acceptable to use the same gloves when removing barriers after treatment and setting up barriers for the next patient.

False

42

TRUE or FALSE
Glutaraldehydes (cold sterilization) can destroy spores if instruments are left overnight.

True

43

TRUE or FALSE
A vaccine is available for Hepatitis B

True

44

TRUE or FALSE
Ultrasonic pre-cleaning in the ultrasonic is a very important step in instrument sterilization.

True

45

TRUE or FALSE
Chlorine compounds destroy the microorganisms by oxidation of microbial enzymes and cell wall components.

True

46

The resistance a person has against a disease.

Immunity

47

Artificially generated collection of pathogenic particles suspended in the air.

Aerosol

48

The time between exposure resulting in infection and the serological antibody marker; the infectious agent is transmissible, but the antibody test is negative.

Window period

49

No living pathogens present; a sterile state.

Asepsis

50

A person harboring a specific infectious agent with no clinical manifestations and who serves as a source of potential infection; may be chronic or temporary.

Carrier

51

Pathogenic microorganisms are destroyed by direct contact with chemical or physical agents.

Disinfection

52

The interval of time between the first contact with the infectious agent and the appearance of clinical symptoms and signs of the disease.

Incubation period

53

Bacteria that are normally benign (non malignant) that invade the host under favorable conditions.

Opportunistic