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Flashcards in Dental Hygiene 2 Test Reviews Deck (151):
1

The hydrodynamic theory refers to
a. too much water in the oral cavity
b. change of fluid flow in the dentinal tubules
c. change of fluid in the enamel rods
d. exposure of both dentin and cementum

b. change of fluid flow in the dentinal tubules

2

Exposed cementum and dentin predisposes the patient to
a. periodontal pockets
b. gingival hyperplasia
c. hypersensitive teeth

c. hypersensitive teeth

3

Hypersensitive dentin differs from normal dentin in the following
a. the number of dentinal tubules open are less
b. the dentinal tubule diameter is twice as great
c. dentinal tubules are not afftected

b. the dentinal tubule diameter is twice as great

4

Dentin hypersensitivity can be defined as
a. constant sharp pain arising from exposed dentin
b. transient sharp pain arising from exposed enamel
c. transient sharp pain arising from exposed dentin
d. constant sharp pain arising from exposed enamel

c. transient sharp pain arising from exposed dentin

5

Hypersensitivity can decrease over time, caused by natural methods or desensitization that include:
a. sclerosis
b. smear layer
c. calculus on the exposed dentin
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

6

Which of the following teeth are most affected by hypersensitivity?
a. occlusal surface of 3rd molar
b. lingual surfaces of maxillary central incisors
c. facial surfaces of maxillary premolars

c. facial surfaces of maxillary premolars

7

Why is it critical that the point of the ultrasonic tip never be adapted to the root surface?
a. it can gouge and permanently damage the root surface
b. it generates too much heat
c. it is not effective in deposit removal
d. it is uncomfortable for the operator

a. it can gouge and permanently damage the root surface

8

Ultrasonic scaling is based on the principles of
a. rapid electrical impulses
b. a jet stream of water
c. pressure
d. high frequency mechanical vibrations

d. high frequency mechanical vibrations

9

When using an ultrasonic scaler, the patient may experience sensitivity due to heat production. Which of the following can be done to lessen sensitivity?
a. lighten the pressure of the instrument against the tooth deposit
b. maintain constant motion of the instrument tip
c. make adjustment of the frequency applied
d. ensure that adequate water is supplied to the tip
e. all of the above

e. all of the above

10

All of the following are correct techniques for use of an ultrasonic scaler EXCEPT:
a. apply light pressure against the tooth surface, and use the side of the tip
b. direct adaptation of the very end of the tip to the tooth surface
c. use a high-volume suction tip to remove water and to prevent inhalation of contaminated water by the patient

b. direct adaptation of the very end of the tip to the tooth surface

11

The use of ultrasonic or sonic instruments are contraindicated for the following EXCEPT:
a. patient with a cardiac pacemaker
b. patient with a respiratory ailment
c. patient who is immunocompromised
d. patient having an overhanging restoration

d. patient having an overhanging restoration

12

When using ultrasonic devices, the following should be done as part of the infection control protocol EXCEPT for:
a. the handpiece should be covered with a disposable barrier
b. flushing water lines 3-5 minutes before the first use of the day
c. placing ultrasonic tip inserts in cold sterilization for 2 hours
d. having patient rinse with an antimicrobial mouth rinse

c. placing ultrasonic tip inserts in cold sterilization for 2 hours

13

While not essential for successful treatment, a standard pen grasp and a soft tissue fulcrum are recommended for use with ultrasonic instrumentation because they
a. improve penetration of fluid to the base of the pocket
b. foster a lighter working stroke
c. are gentler to the soft tissue

b. foster a lighter working stroke

14

What is the main reason instrumentation with an ultrasonic takes less time than manual instrumentation?
a. less pressure is needed
b. fewer strokes are needed
c. strokes are performed more quickly
d. clinician tires less easily

c. strokes are performed more quickly

15

Which of the following is the proper angulation in degrees to place the nozzle tip when air polishing the anterior teeth?
a. 90
b. 80
c. 60

c. 60

16

All of the following methods minimize aerosol during air polishing EXCEPT for
a. rinse with a pre-procedural antimicrobial rinse prior to air polishing
b. hold the nozzle tip 2-3 mm from the tooth surface
c. use high volume evacuation

b. hold the nozzle tip 2-3 mm from the tooth surface

17

Which of the following patients would be good candidates for air polishing?
a. asthmatic
b. high blood pressure patient
c. adult with heavy stain

c. adult with heavy stain

18

Proper maintenance of an air polisher is important. It is essential to clean the nozzle after each use to prevent clogging.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

19

All of the following are steps in preparing the patient for air polishing EXCEPT for:
a. place a non petroleum lubricant on the lips
b. place protection eyewear on the operator
c. instruct the patient to use a pre-procedural rinse
d. review patient's medical and dental history

b. place protection eyewear on the operator

20

The advantages of using ultrasonics are
a. reduction of force required
b. lower risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome
c. strokes are performed more quickly
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

21

TRUE OR FALSE
One of the major safety concerns related to the use of ultrasonic instruments is the generation of pathogenic aerosols.

True

22

TRUE OR FALSE
In ultrasonic scalers, water spray acts as a lavage to flush debris from the base of the pocket.

True

23

TRUE OR FALSE
Cavitation is the formation and collapsing of bubbles in the water surrounding an ultrasonic tip.

True

24

TRUE OR FALSE
Frequency is the speed of movement which is the number of cycles per second the tip moves.

True

25

TRUE OR FALSE
The magnetostrictive unit has a tip motion of a linear pattern, forward and backward.

False

26

TRUE OR FALSE
Ultrasonic scalers can not be used if the patient is pregnant.

False

27

TRUE OR FALSE
The power control output on ultrasonic scalers control the tip amplitude.

False

28

TRUE OR FALSE
Sodium bicarbonate powder in the air polisher can be used on all patients.

False

29

TRUE OR FALSE
Air polishing can be damaging to composite restorations and porcelain crowns.

True

30

TRUE OR FALSE
You can remove calculus with an air polisher.

False

31

Before patients become concerned about oral health they must believe that:
a. dental disease can have serious side effects
b. dental care is too expensive
c. dental decay is limited to children

a. dental disease can have serious side effects

32

Patients who don't believe that they are personally SUSCEPTIBLE to dental disease are not likely to:
a. acquire a dental disease
b. adhere to a daily bacterial plaque control regimen
c. develop psychomotor skills

b. adhere to a daily bacterial plaque control regimen

33

According to the human behavior principle, once a patient has established a VALUE, it will not be dismissed easily. Therefore, (1) when a CONFLICT arises between existing values and a new behavior, (2) the new behavior will not be adopted until the value conflict is RESOLVED.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is false, the second statement is true
d. the first statement is true, the second statement is false

a. both statements are true

34

Disclosing agents can ENHANCE the teaching-learning process by:
a. allowing evaluation of skill effectiveness after plaque control measure are carried out
b. demonstrating a relationship between the presence of plaque and clinical signs of disease
c. providing self-evaluation and immediate feedback for the patients at home
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

35

The use of VISUAL AIDS can enhance the teaching-learning process by the following:
a. illustrated pamphlets reinforce oral home care instruction
b. written instructions make home care more individualized
c. demonstration on a model before intra-oral demonstration is helpful
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

36

The COGNITIVE domain of learning is concerned with the following:
a. levels of motor skill development
b. levels of moral development
c. levels of comprehension development

c. levels of comprehension development

37

In the principles of learning, from the lowest to highest stages of the LEARNING LADDER, which of the following is the correct order?
a. awareness, unawareness, involvement, self-interest, action, habit
b. unawareness, awareness, involvement, action, self-interest, habit
c. unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action, habit

c. unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action, habit

38

A clinician DEMONSTRATION of sulcular tooth-brushing on a dentoform to instruct a patient is an example of:
a. active participation
b. immediate feedback
c. visual aids

c. visual aids

39

To which level of MASLOW'S HIERARCHY would this statement apply? You really show that you care about yourself by spending time flossing your teeth before bed.
a. security
b. social
c. ego

c. ego

40

(1)HUMAN NEED THEORY explains that the need for FULFILLMENT dominates human activity, therefore, (2) human behavior is motivated by fulfillment of UNMET human needs.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is false, the second statement is true
d. the first statement is true, the second statement is false

a. both statements are true

41

Which of the following is the most REASONABLE expectation for a ONE-TIME group oral health education experience?
a. act to improve personal oral health
b. increase awareness of oral health issues
c. reduce caries rates

b. increase awareness of oral health issues

42

Which of the following statements are SOUND PRINCIPLES in teaching?
a. recognize that behavior has unconscious as well as conscious motivation
b. there's a direct cause and effect relationship in learning
c. the intellectual, physical, emotional, and social aspects of the student must be considered
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

43

The EMPHASIS for oral health education is one of:
a. preventing disease
b. maintaining oral health
c. treating emergencies

a. preventing disease

44

Dental health PAMPHLETS are most effective when they are:
a. sent through the mail to patients
b. left in the reception room
c. distributed to people in a large audience
d. given to a patient in response to a question

d. given to a patient in response to a question

45

To teach tooth-brushing to grade school children in the CLASSROOM it is best to:
a. have each child use a disclosing agent
b. demonstrate with oversized models of teeth and a brush
c. have a child demonstrate the correct brushing procedure to the class

b. demonstrate with oversized models of teeth and a brush

46

An objective should have the following EXCEPT for:
a. content dimension
b. behavioral dimension
c. measurable performance
d. attendance requirement

d. attendance requirement

47

According to MASLOW'S NEEDS HIERARCHY, which of the following needs are associated with motivating a patient?
a. self-actualization and fulfilling one's ambition
b. need for freedom
c. safety, love and self-esteem

c. safety, love and self-esteem

48

Which of the following influences motivation on a SHORT-TERM basis?
a. esthetics
b. cost
c. pain

c. pain

49

Which of the following body gestures may indicate the patient has become DEFENSIVE?
a. hands gripping the arms of the chair
b. arms crossed over the hest
c. hands linked behind the neck
d. shoulders slumped forward

b. arms crossed over the hest

50

According to the Learning Ladder Continuum, at what level is BEHAVIOR definitely modified?
a. awareness
b. self-interest
c. involvement
d. habit

d. habit

51

Making sure that a patient has taken prophylactic ANTIBIOTICS prior to dental hygiene treatment is an example of having met the patient's need of:
a. safety
b. nutrition
c. wholesome body image

a. safety

52

INFORMED CONSENT has the following advantages:
a. it serves as a legal document
b. the patient is informed of the treatment plan
c. the patient gives permission for the treatment plan to be carried out
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

53

During the IMPLEMENTATION of the dental hygiene care plan, the following are true EXCEPT for:
a. the education plan is modified according to the progress demonstrated by the patient
b. a logical sequence of instrumentation is followed
c. if pre-medication is required, the number of appointments is irrelevant

c. if pre-medication is required, the number of appointments is irrelevant

54

The DENTAL HYGIENE DIAGNOSIS allows the clinician to do the following:
a. synthesize data
b. evaluate clinical data via deductive reasoning
c. develop decision making skills
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

55

A patient having SEVERE PERIODONTAL DISEASE will most likely have the following type of treatment:
a. definitive
b. preparatory
c. transient

b. preparatory

56

The DENTAL HYGIENE DIAGNOSIS must take into consideration the following:
a. patient's perception of the problem
b. patient's economic level
c. patient's total health
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

57

PHASE I THERAPY of a dental treatment plan includes:
a. caries control
b. patient education
c. debridement/ dental prophylaxis
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

58

When organizing the LESSON PLAN, which component provides the foundation for the presentation?
a. objectives
b. teaching strategies
c. evaluation process

a. objectives

59

Before rendering any type of DENTAL HYGIENE TREATMENT on a patient, the dental hygienist must:
a. obtain a complete medical history
b. explain the office policy of broken appointments
c. obtain a complete set of radiographs

a. obtain a complete medical history

60

The DENTAL HYGIENE DIAGNOSIS is a statement about:
a. an actual dental hygiene problem
b. an actual medical problem
c. a potential dental factor

a. an actual dental hygiene problem

61

The DENTAL HYGIENE PROGNOSIS is a statement about:
a. the possible expected outcome
b. the possible length of treatment
c. the possible cost of treatment

a. the possible expected outcome

62

THE COGNITIVE DOMAIN has a content dimension according to Bloom. Which of the following demonstrates a higher intellectual task?
a. memorized knowledge
b. analysis and synthesis of knowledge

b. analysis and synthesis of knowledge

63

Which of the following is an example of the PSYCHOMOTOR DOMAIN?
a. student knows all the state capitols
b. student demonstrates proper brushing and flossing
c. student regards oral health as a priority

b. student demonstrates proper brushing and flossing

64

Which of the following is an example of the AFFECTIVE DOMAIN?
a. patient knows the cause of gingivitis
b. patient demonstrates the use of the water pik
c. patient regards her oral health highly

c. patient regards her oral health highly

65

TRUE OR FALSE
The dental hygiene intervention must specifically address the dental hygiene diagnosis.

True

66

TRUE OR FALSE
The treatment plan can be signed after the removal of all the calculus.

False

67

TRUE OR FALSE
Further inquiry of a condition is not essential in determining the dental hygiene diagnosis.

False

68

TRUE OR FALSE
The expected outcome becomes an evaluative statement.

True

69

TRUE OR FALSE
All three aspects of the cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains, when applied, will lead to patient compliance and improvement in the plaque index score.

True

70

TRUE OR FALSE
Patient assessment baseline information is very helpful in the maintenance phase.

True

71

PERIODONTAL DEBRIDEMENT includes:
a. scaling to remove calculus and all soft deposits
b. root planing to eliminate subgingival calculus and smooth the tooth surface
c. root debridement to eliminate subgingival biofilm and lightly mineralized deposits
d. only A and B
e. all of the above

e. all of the above

72

Which of the following clinical data provides the most significant information regarding the LEVEL OF PERIODONTAL ATTACHMENT tissues/bone loss?
a. clinical probing depth measurements and recession
b. clinical probing depth measurements and abrasion
c. clinical probing depth and the number of bleeding points present

a. clinical probing depth measurements and recession

73

Which one of the following describes THE OBJECTIVE OF ROOT PLANING?
a. removal of factors that promote gingival inflammation
b. removal of calculus
c. creating a clean, smooth, root surface
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

74

In root planing, as the SURFACE BECOMES SMOOTHER the strokes should be:
a. longer with reduced pressure
b. shorter with reduced pressure

a. longer with reduced pressure

75

Which of the following instruments IS BEST SUITED for root planing?
a. anterior scaler
b. posterior scaler
c. universal curette

c. universal curette

76

Step(s) that must always PRECEDE SCALING and root planing are:
a. a comprehensive periodontal examination
b. calculus detection
c. treatment plan is completed and signed
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

77

(1) When root planing, VERTICAL STROKES should be used first, followed by oblique strokes and horizontal strokes when applicable. (2) Light pressure is utilized for root planing strokes to maximize tactile sensitivity.
a. first statement is true, second statement is false
b. first statement is false, second statement is true
c. both statements are true

c. both statements are true

78

The stone used to sharpen the instruments in the DH clinic:
a. Arkansas
b. India stone
c. Ceramic stone

a. Arkansas

79

Instruments should be sharpened:
a. at the first sign of dullness
b. after every use
c. before every use

a. at the first sign of dullness

80

Along WHAT AREA OF THE BLADE of a universal curette or sickle scaler would a sharpening stone be moved during sharpening?
a. junction of the facial and lateral surfaces
b. junction of the back and lateral surfaces

a. junction of the facial and lateral surfaces

81

The GOALS OF INSTRUMENT SHARPENING is to:
a. preserve the original shape
b. to restore and maintain knife-like cutting edge
c. to increase working efficiency of the instrument
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

82

The instrument is held with the face of the blade parallel to the floor and the stone positioned on the lateral surface at the following angle:
a. 70 to 80 degree angle
b. 80 to 90 degree angle
c. 100 to 110 degree angle

c. 100 to 110 degree angle

83

Instrumentation requires a correct grasp and finger rest, and all of the following EXCEPT one:
a. adaptation
b. angulation
c. indirect vision
d. lateral pressure
e. stroke

c. indirect vision

84

Which of the following terms is used to describe the part of the instrument used to carry out the PURPOSE and function of the instrument?
a. lateral surface
b. back
c. working end

c. working end

85

GINGIVAL CURETTAGE (purposeful) is recommended for the following:
a. shallow and suprabony pockets 4-5 mm
b. necrotic pocket lining
c. soft and spongy tissues
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

86

All of the following are objectives of nonsurgical periodontal debridement EXCEPT for:
a. provide root surface free of endotoxins
b. promote shrinkage of probing depths
c. resolve bone defects
d. reduce or eliminate the amount of bleeding upon probing

c. resolve bone defects

87

(1) When scaling, the instrument is adapted for maximum usefulness of the working end or 2 to 3 mm of the toe third of a curette on a "flat" surface. (2) On a line angle or convex surface of a narrow root, less than 2 mm will be adaptable.
a. first statement is true, second statement is false
b. first statement is false, second statement is true
c. both statements are true

c. both statements are true

88

When performing gingival curettage (purposeful), the face of the curette blade should be at the following angle with the SOFT TISSUE POCKET WALL:
a. 40 degrees
b. 70 degrees
c. 95 degrees

b. 70 degrees

89

POST CARE for therapeutic periodontal scaling and root planing include the following EXCEPT:
a. a warm hypertonic salt solution
b. prescribed medication may be indicated
c. spicy and hot foods

c. spicy and hot foods

90

Of all the topical anesthetic, which type is the LEAST DESIRABLE?
a. ointment
b. gel
c. spray

c. spray

91

(1) Topical anesthetics are available in gels, spray, liquid, and transoral patches. (2) All forms of this type produce profound soft tissue anesthesia and minimal PULPAL ANESTHESIA.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true; the second is false
d. the first statement is false; the second is true

c. the first statement is true; the second is false

92

TOPICAL ANESTHETICS are used to:
a. alleviate tissue discomfort
b. relieve patient anxiety
c. prevent gagging
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

93

The only AMIDE used alone as a topical:
a. lidocaine
b. tetracaine
c. butacaine

a. lidocaine

94

TWO WEEKS after treatment, the success of your root planing may be determined by:
a. connective tissue reattachment
b. no bleeding upon probing
c. reduction in inflammation
d. a change in the micro flora
e. all of the above

e. all of the above

95

Predisposing factors in NUG:
a. stress
b. tobacco use
c. poor diet
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

96

(1) An increased incidence of NUG/NUP has been diagnosed in HIV patients. (2) In NECROTIZING STOMATITIS the necrosis may extend beyond the tooth-supporting tissues and cause bone destruction and sequestration.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true; the second is false
d. the first statement is false; the second is true

a. both statements are true

97

(1) In NUG, ulceration and necrosis begins in the col area with epithelial and connective tissue involved; the disease process progresses to involve the entire papilla and eventually the marginal gingiva on the facial and lingual surfaces. (2) The pseudomembrane covering the lesion is a necrotic slough of the surface epithelium; it contains leukocytes, bacteria, epithelial cells and fibrin.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true; the second is false
d. the first statement is false; the second is true

a. both statements are true

98

Dental hygiene interventions include the following EXCEPT:
a. calculus removal
b. polishing
c. dental fees
d. plaque index

c. dental fees

99

The MAIN MICROORGANISM found in NUG/NUP lesions is:
a. spirochetes
b. lactobacillus

a. spirochetes

100

(1) An abscess is called gingival when it is located in the marginal area, and (2) periodontal when it is in the deeper periodontal tissues.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true; the second is false
d. the first statement is false; the second is true

a. both statements are true

101

PREDISPOSING FACTORS in periodontal ABSCESS FORMATION include which of the following:
a. deep suppuration pockets, advanced periodontal infection
b. pocket extending into furcation areas or intrabony areas
c. patient susceptible to infection such as uncontrolled diabetes, with an immunodeficiency disease, or being treated with an immune-suppressible drug
d. A and C
e. all of the above

e. all of the above

102

Removes dental biofilm and the majority of calculus:

scaling

103

Removes diseased sulcular epithelium, inflamed connective tissue:

gingival curettage

104

Removes residual calculus and altered cementum

root planing

105

TRUE OR FALSE
Scaling and root planing precedes gingival curettage.

True

106

TRUE OR FALSE
Following gingival curettage, residual "tags" do not need to be removed.

False

107

TRUE OR FALSE
Number and length of appointments will be determined by the patient's tolerance level, scheduling requirements, severity and deficiency of the oral health.

True

108

TRUE OR FALSE
Topical anesthetics are less concentrated than the anesthetics injected.

False

109

TRUE OR FALSE
The Arkansas stone is a synthetic stone.

False

110

TRUE OR FALSE
Sharpening stones cannot be autoclaved.

False

111

TRUE OR FALSE
A sickle and curette have two blades to be sharpened at each end.

True

112

TRUE OR FALSE
A sharp instrument minimizes the number of strokes.

True

113

TRUE OR FALSE
During instrumentation, wrist and arm bear the weight during a stroke, rather than flexing the fingers in the grasp.

True

114

TRUE OR FALSE
An anesthesia patch provides a deep level of anesthesia to the soft tissue.

True

115

TRUE OR FALSE
To remove heavy calculus requires a very secure fulcrum, lateral pressure, and short biting strokes to avoid undue damage.

True

116

The steps for providing manual scaling: 1-2

1. Pick up the instrument using a light modified pen grasp.
2. Select the correct cutting edge of the instrument.

117

The steps for providing manual scaling: 3-4

3. Stabilize your hand in your patient's mouth using a finger rest (fulcrum).
4. Angle the instrument blade for insertion to the base of the periodontal pocket.

118

The steps for providing manual scaling: 5-6

5. Apply light lateral pressure for instrument insertion and confirmation of soft tissue attachment.
6. Adapt the toe of the cutting edge on the instrument against the tooth surface.

119

The steps for providing manual scaling: 7-8

7. Apply sufficient (moderate to heavy) lateral pressure for calculus removal.
8. Activate the instrument, maintaining the angulation and adaptation of the cutting edge evenly during the stroke.

120

The steps for providing manual scaling: 9-10

9. Repeat overlapping, channeled strokes to remove calculus.
10. Use smooth, overlapping, light pressured finishing strokes that provide tactile sensitivity to minute irregularities of the tooth surface.

121

The steps for providing manual scaling: 1-10

1. Pick up the instrument using a light modified pen grasp.
2. Select the correct cutting edge of the instrument.
3. Stabilize your hand in your patient's mouth using a finger rest (fulcrum).
4. Angle the instrument blade for insertion to the base of the periodontal pocket.
5. Apply light lateral pressure for instrument insertion and confirmation of soft tissue attachment.
6. Adapt the toe of the cutting edge on the instrument against the tooth surface.
7. Apply sufficient (moderate to heavy) lateral pressure for calculus removal.
8. Activate the instrument, maintaining the angulation and adaptation of the cutting edge evenly during the stroke.
9. Repeat overlapping, channeled strokes to remove calculus.
10. Use smooth, overlapping, light pressured finishing strokes that provide tactile sensitivity to minute irregularities of the tooth surface.

122

Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of:
a. diabetes
b. hypertension
c. angina pectoris
d. allergic reaction

c. angina pectoris

123

If a patient has recently suffered a myocardial infarction, elective dental and dental hygiene appointments should be postponed for at least:
a. more than one year
b. six months
c. one month
d. six weeks

b. six months

124

A patient experiencing tachycardia has a pulse rate:
a. less than 100 bpm
b. greater than 100 bpm
c. less than 60 bpm

b. greater than 100 bpm

125

The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart contracts is known as:
a. diastolic pressure
b. systolic pressure
c. pulse pressure

b. systolic pressure

126

Your patient has an increase in pulse and blood pressure, appears cold and clammy, and has chest pains radiating to the left arm and neck. This attack lasts approximately 3 to 4 minutes. Which of the following conditions are related to these symptoms?
a. cardiac arrest
b. angina pectoris
c congestive heart failure

b. angina pectoris

127

If a patient reports pale cool skin, cold sweats, feeling dizzy, and seeing spots before their eyes, he/she may be experiencing the following:
a. presyncope
b. syncope
c. postsyncope

a. presyncope

128

Sudden unilateral weakness, confusion, impaired speech, and unequal pupils are all symptoms of:
a. an allergic reaction
b. a drug overdose
c. a cerebrovascular accident

c. a cerebrovascular accident

129

If a patient came in for dental hygiene care, the dental hygienist would probably treat him that day unless he/she were to present with which of the following vital signs:
a. a respiration rate of 15 breaths/ min
b. a temperature of 99 degrees F
c. a blood pressure of 140/110
d. a pulse rate of 70 bpm

c. a blood pressure of 140/110

130

Once cardiac arrest occurs, the brain cells generally begin to die within
a. 4 minutes
b. 8 minutes
c. 10 minutes

a. 4 minutes

131

Myocardial infarction results from:
a. heart valve damage
b. occlusion of coronary arteries
c. infective endocarditis

b. occlusion of coronary arteries

132

The patient should be placed in a Trendelenburg position in the following situations EXCEPT:
a. acute asthma attack
b. syncope
c. patient suffering from cardiac arrest

a. acute asthma attack

133

Which of the following is indicated for the patient who is experiencing an asthma attack?
a. aspirin
b. bronchodilator
c. glucagon

b. bronchodilator

134

Oxygen must NOT be administered in the following situation:
a. anxiety induced states
b. acute hyperventilation syndrome
c. pulmonary disorders

b. acute hyperventilation syndrome

135

Which of the following is the most common medical emergency situation that occurs in the dental office?
a. heart attack
b. seizure
c. syncope

c. syncope

136

Students can prevent medical emergencies by doing the following EXCEPT:
a. patients vital signs are checked
b. medical history is reviewed/updated
c. dental exam is performed
d. drug allergies are noted in RED

c. dental exam is performed

137

Pallor, cold sweat, personality change, trembling, and disorientation are all symptoms of:
a. hypertension
b. adrenal crisis
c. insulin shock

c. insulin shock

138

During an emergency, which artery is used to check the pulse for an adult?
a. femoral
b. brachial
c. carotid
d. radial

c. carotid

139

The most important step in treating an anaphylactic reaction consists of administering:
a. oxygen
b. epinephrine
c. corticosteroids

b. epinephrine

140

A possible side effect of Dilantin that affects dental health is:
a. gingival hyperplasia
b. dry mouth
c. an increased chance of syncope
d. a decreased prothrombin time

a. gingival hyperplasia

141

Which of the following symptoms may help to differentiate between angina pectoris and myocardial infarction?
a. respiratory distress
b. excessive perspiration and apprehension
c. duration of chest pain after the administration of a vasodilator

c. duration of chest pain after the administration of a vasodilator

142

Which of the following observations is NOT indicative of hypoglycemia?
a. dry flushed skin
b. confusion
c. trembling
d. hunger

a. dry flushed skin

143

Dyspnea refers to:
a. the inability to breathe, except in an upright position
b. increased rate of breathing
c. difficulty in breathing
d. no respiratory movement

c. difficulty in breathing

144

Destruction of the alveolar wall and loss of elastic recoil of the lungs are a result of which of the following disease processes?
a. emphysema
b. asthma
c. acute pulmonary edema
d. airway obstruction

a. emphysema

145

In acute adrenal insufficiency, which of the following hormones is suddenly lacking?
a. adrenocortical
b. epinephrine
c. insulin

a. adrenocortical

146

Blockage; stage of being closed:

occlusion

147

Irregularity of heartbeat caused by a turbulent flow of blood through a valve that has failed to close:

murmur

148

Deficiency of blood to supply oxygen in part resulting from functional constriction or actual obstruction of a blood vessel:

ischemia

149

Localized area of ischemic necrosis produced by occlusion of the arterial supply or venous drainage of the part:

infarct

150

A condition in which there is a deficiency of oxygen in the blood and an increase in carbon dioxide:

asphyxia

151

Temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden fall in blood pressure, fainting:

syncope