dental intro and dzs Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
The assessment of the extent of pathological lesions in the course of a disease that is likely to be progressive
A
stage
2
Q
The assessment of the extent of pathological lesions in the course of a disease that is likely to be progressive
A
stage
3
Q
the quantitative assessment of the degree of severity of a disease or abnormal condition at the time of diagnosis, irrespective of whether the disease is progressive
A
grade
4
Q
A quantitative expression of predefined diagnostic criteria whereby the presence and/or severity of pathological conditions are recorded by assessing a numerical value
A
index
5
Q
toward the midline of the dental arch
A
mesial
6
Q
away from the midline/caufdal
A
distal
7
Q
contact/surface facing adjoining teeth
A
proximal
8
Q
between proximal surface of adjoining teeth
A
interproximal
9
Q
wider space between teeth
A
diastema
10
Q
occlusal
A
chewing surfaces of molars
11
Q
always means toward the root, away from the crown
A
apical
12
Q
toward the crown
A
coronal
13
Q
potential space between tooth and gingiva
A
ginigival sulcus
14
Q
only part of the periodontium visible in a normal mouth
A
gingiva
15
Q
periodontal ligament functions
A
attaches tooth to the alveolus
absorbs shock from impact of occlusal forces
supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum
provides tactile and proprioceptive info
16
Q
cheek teeth of a cat - how many roots P2 P3 P4 M1
A
1
2
3
1
on bottom - P3,4,M all have 2 roots
17
Q
enamel thickness in dogs
A
< .1 mm to .6 mm
18
Q
thickness of enamel in cats
A
< .1 - .3 mm
19
Q
T/F
enamel is replaced when damaged
A
false
20
Q
delivers nutrients to odontoblasts
A
dentinal tubules
21
Q
overlies the vomeronasal organ
A
incisive papilla
22
Q
dogs permanent incisors erupt when ?
premolars?
canines?
molars?
A
3-5 months incisors
4-6months canines and premolars
5-7months molars
23
Q
adult dog dental formula
A
3 1 4 2
3 1 4 3
I C P M
42 total
24
Q
puppy dental formula
A
3 1 3
3 1 3
I C P
25
any canine that has less than 42 teeth is considered to be missing what
premolars from the front and molars from the back
26
kitten teeth formula
3 1 3
3 1 2
I C P
27
cat formula
3 1 3 1
| 3 1 2 1
28
rule of 4 and 9
canine = 4
| first molar = 9
29
T/F
| dental rads only need done before extractions
false - do before and after to be sure
30
the quantitative assessment of the degree of severity of a disease or abnormal condition at the time of diagnosis, irrespective of whether the disease is progressive
grade
31
A quantitative expression of predefined diagnostic criteria whereby the presence and/or severity of pathological conditions are recorded by assessing a numerical value
index
32
toward the midline of the dental arch
mesial
33
away from the midline/caufdal
distal
34
contact/surface facing adjoining teeth
proximal
35
between proximal surface of adjoining teeth
interproximal
36
wider space between teeth
diastema
37
occlusal
chewing surfaces of molars
38
always means toward the root, away from the crown
apical
39
toward the crown
coronal
40
potential space between tooth and gingiva
ginigival sulcus
41
only part of the periodontium visible in a normal mouth
gingiva
42
periodontal ligament functions
attaches tooth to the alveolus
absorbs shock from impact of occlusal forces
supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum
provides tactile and proprioceptive info
43
```
cheek teeth of a cat - how many roots
P2
P3
P4
M1
```
1
2
3
1
on bottom - P3,4,M all have 2 roots
44
enamel thickness in dogs
< .1 mm to .6 mm
45
thickness of enamel in cats
46
T/F
| enamel is replaced when damaged
false
47
delivers nutrients to odontoblasts
dentinal tubules
48
overlies the vomeronasal organ
incisive papilla
49
dogs permanent incisors erupt when ?
premolars?
canines?
molars?
3-5 months incisors
4-6months canines and premolars
5-7months molars
50
adult dog dental formula
3 1 4 2
3 1 4 3
I C P M
42 total
51
puppy dental formula
3 1 3
3 1 3
I C P
52
any canine that has less than 42 teeth is considered to be missing what
premolars from the front and molars from the back
53
kitten teeth formula
3 1 3
3 1 2
I C P
54
cat formula
3 1 3 1
| 3 1 2 1
55
rule of 4 and 9
canine = 4
| first molar = 9
56
T/F
| dental rads only need done before extractions
false - do before and after to be sure
57
caused by failure of the primary tooth's roots to undergo absorption
retained deciduous tooth
* toy breeds
* canine and incisors most common
58
where does the adult maxillary canine erupt compared to the deciduous canine?
and the mandibular canine?
rostral
lingual
59
T/F
| two versions of the same tooth should never try to occupy the same space at the same time
TRUE
60
aside from canines, permanent teeth erupt ___ to deciduous teeth
lingual and palatal
61
most common breeds who experience crowding
brachycephalics
62
most common tooth in crowding
maxillary 3rd premolar
63
supernumerary teeth (polodontia) is most common with what teeth
premolars (PM3)
*tooth has extra cusp
extra root of normal size
64
joining of two teeth
fusion
65
one crown with two roots with one or two root canals
fusion
less than normal amount of teeth in arcade
66
incomplete splitting into two teeth
gemination
67
missing teeth
anodontia. oligodontia, hypodontia
68
the shelf on the palatal surface of the maxillary incisors where the mandibular incisors occlude or rest
cingulum
69
example of class one malocclusion
base narrow canine
70
what class is parrot mouth/over shot
class 2 - mandibular distocclusion
71
mandibular brachygnathism is an example of what malocclusion class
class 2- mandibular distocclusions
72
mandibular prognathism
class 3 mandibular mesiocclusion
73
undershot is what class malocclusion
class 3 mandibular malocclusion
74
what is class 4 malocclusion
wry bite -- asymmetrical skeletal malocclusion
75
most common class 2 malocclusion in dogs
base narrow canines
76
most common dog breed for lance tooth
shelties
77
rostrally displaced canine tooth - deciduous tooth in normal location
lance tooth -- extract
78
one or more of the maxiallary insicors are displaced toward the palate
rostral cross bite - class 1 malocclusion
79
maxillary premolars are lingual to mandibular premolars or molars
```
caudal cross bite - not common
class 1
```
80
considered a type of prognathism when the incisor crowns meet
level bite
81
removal of primary teeth to avoid or correct problem
interceptive orthodontics
82
fluid filled cyst surrounding the crown of an unerupted tooth resulting from persistence of portions of the enamel forming epithelium
dentigerous cyst
may see swelling/blue hue
missing teeth and pain
83
some causes of enamel hypoplasia
high fevers
distemper
periapical inflammation
endocrine dysfunction early in life
84
pathological wearing due to contact with opposing tooth
attrition
85
caused by abnormal contact with crown surface by foreign object
abrasion
86
what tooth is used to assess endodontic exposure
dental explorer -- if it enters the pulp chamber extract the tooth or root canal
87
what color is reparative dentin
brown and hard
88
draining tract associated with teeth
parulis
89
what signs can apical disease cause
retrobulbar
90
where do the roots of maxillary molars 1 and 2 lie
in te zygomatic arch
91
focal gingival hyperplasia is due to
periodontal disease
92
generalized gingival hyperplasia
boxers
93
list 3 drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia
anticonvulsants
cyclosporine
calcium channel blockers
94
post op care from gingival hyperplasia resection
twice daily for two weeks chlorhex .12% conc rinse
95
pulpitis
discoloration inside the tooth - not very reversible
| may need root canal or extraction to treat
96
cracks in the enamel with no loss in structure
enamel infraction - abraction
97
loss of enamel only
enamel fracture - not common
98
fracture where the pulp chamber is not exposed
uncomplicated crown fracture
99
fracture where the pulp is exposed
complicated
100
treatment for complicated fractures
vital pulpotomy / root canal / extraction
101
T/F
| endodontics is less invasive than extractions
true
102
what is the objective of vital pulpotomy
maintain a viable tooth that will continue to mature
103
____ is necessary to maintain dentin
the pulp
| otherwise the tooth will become dehydrated and brittle
104
age range for vital pulpotomy
young <18 - 24 months
| success lowers with age because pulp gets less resilient
105
time frame for a successful vital pulpotomy
sooner = better
<48 hours has 80% success
monitor at least yearly
106
when can a complete root canal be done
mature tooth >24 months old
this will help maintain tooth function even though the tooth is dead
107
goals of a complete root canal
complete removal of pulp contents
| completely will root canal to prevent bacterial from escaping from tooth
108
partially dislocated from alveolus but retains some attachment
luxation
109
completely displaced from alveolus
avulsion
110
after ____ minutes the success of saving an avulsed tooth goes down exponentially
30
111
recommended to owners to keep an avulsed tooth moist
milk
112
predominant activity in TRs
osteoclastic resorption
113
T/F
| tooth resorptions are not caries
trrue
114
most common disease of tooth structure in domestic felines
tooth resorption
115
what type of tooth resorption lesions has no or minimal evidence of periodontitis
type 2
116
what type of tooth resorption has moderate to severe gingivitis and frequenty periodontal disease is present
type 1
117
clinical signs of cat with tooth resorption
dropping food
chattering
anorexia
reluctance to have mouth examined
118
T/F
| type 2 tooth resorptions are good candidates for crown amputation and leaving the roots in place
true
119
the process of bone fusing across the normally non-calcified periodontal ligament
ankylosis
120
signs of gingivostomatitis
pytalism
halitosis
dysphagia
anorexia and wt loss
121
teeth most commonly affected by gingivostomatisis
maxillary teeth caudal to the canines
122
starts in siamese, maine coons, and DSH cats <9 months old
juvenile onset periodontitis
123
skin ulcerations and linear granulomas
eosinophilic granuloma
rodent ulcers
