Dentistry Flashcards
The location of the oral orifice of the Stenon’s duct (parotid gland’s duct):
A) in the vestible at the upper premolars’ region
B) in the cavum oris proprium( oral cavity) at the second upper molars
C) in the vestible at the upper canines’ region
D) in the vestible at the upper second molars
E) in the vestible at the upper first molars’ region
D) in the vestible at the upper second molars
EXPLANATION
The Stenon’s duct is the duct of the parotid gland it enters into the vestibule of the oral cavity at the upper second molars, creating a small nodule named as Caruncula
Which drug’s characteristic side effect is the dry mouth syndrome (Xersotomia)
A) Lidocain (lidocainium chloratum anhydricum)
B) Troparin (papaverinium sulfuricum + methylhomatropinum bromatum)
C) Papaverinum (papaverinium chloratum)
D) Eunoctin (nitrazepamum)
E) Tarivid (ofloxacinum)
B) Troparin (papaverinium sulfuricum + methylhomatropinum bromatum)
EXPLANATION
The Troparine’s side effect is the xerostomia ( see also FOG 27) The other listed drugs have no effect on the salivation
The leading sign of the chronic osteomyelitis is:
A) sequestration
B) leukopenia
C) fibrinous exsudate
D) high fever
E) mostly associated with rheumatic complains
A) sequestration
EXPLANATION
The leading sign of the chronic osteomyelitis is the sequestration, the body’s chronic response. The other symptoms are characteristic to acute inflammation and or the inflammation of the cortical bone
Which is a precancerous lesion?
A) fibromatosis gingivae
B) lingua pilosa nigra
C) Fordyce’s granules
D) geographic tongue
E) leukoplakia
E) leukoplakia
EXPLANATION
The leukoplakia (white plaque) is a premalignant lesion and the prevalence of malignant transformation is ranging between 2-6% (see also FOG.93) The other entities are not premalignant conditions
The management of an abscess developed at deciduous teeth
A) immediate extraction
B) access cavity preparation with open therapy
C) access cavity preparation and putting a filling afterwards
D) the abscess is eliminated with a Volkmann curette
E) access cavity preparation and the abscess is drained and excavated
E) access cavity preparation and the abscess is drained and excavated
EXPLANATION
It is no use to extract the deciduous molars – because of their space maintaining rolls. The filling is an inadequate therapy . The access cavity preparation or the drainage of the parulis will not solve the case. A comprehensive therapy should be performed.
The consequence of the use of pacifier soaked in candy
A) caries at the upper and lower central incisors
B) gingivitis
C) periodontitis
D) circular caries on the four upper deciduous incisors
E) all of them
D) circular caries on the four upper deciduous incisors
EXPLANATION
The pacifier soak in candy or the very sweet tea given from a bottle thru a nipple can cause very characteristic lesion- the so called circular caries. It is located on the upper deciduous incisors. A dark brown lesion develops around the cervical area of the crown, later a real decay is formed and can lead to crown fracture.
It is a characteristic disease located on the soft palate:
A) aphthous stomatitis
B) herpangina
C) flue
D) morbilli ( measles)
E) pertussis (whooping cough )
B) herpangina
EXPLANATION
Only the vesicles of herpangina are located solely on the soft palate. The oral lesion associated with Morbilli (see FOG-1). The common flue and pertussis (whooping cough) have no characteristic oral symptoms. The aphthous stomatitis does not cause vesicle, it is an ulcer located on the lip, buccal mucosa the tongue or soft palate.
The optimal fluoride intake at the age of one year :
A) should not be given
B) 0,05 mg
C) 0,3 mg
D) 0,1 mg
E) 1,0 mg
C) 0,3 mg
EXPLANATION
In a non fluoride supplemented environment the optimal dose that has caries protective effect, and does not damage the enamel and has no systemic side effects or poisoning effects is 0,3 mg. the 0,15-0,2x of the adult dose.
According to the Miller’s caries theory:
A) Adenylphosfate is provided by the saliva for the fermentation of carbohydrate in the dental plaque
B) The initial caries is caused by the bacterial penetration into the enamel
C) Lactic acid is produced in the dental plaque
D) A caries is mainly caused by anaerobic microorganisms
E) The protein content of the tooth is a decisive factor in the development of dental caries
C) Lactic acid is produced in the dental plaque
EXPLANATION
The father of the modern caries theory is Miller, according to this the cause of disease is the low acidic pH. Int he dental plaque the Streptococcus mutans, sanguis, salivarius ferment the sugar and create lactic acid, as a consequence the plaque become acidic and the acids will solve- demonetize the enamel prism.
What is characteristic of the so called cariogenic plaque?
A) It can develop on any tooth surface
B) its dominant bacterial flora is organized from lactobacilli and acidifying streptococci
C) it is bacterium-free
D) its pH is always above 6.3
E) in can be recognized by naked eye
B) its dominant bacterial flora is organized from lactobacilli and acidifying streptococci
EXPLANATION
Cariogenic plaque can only be formed on the so called non self-cleaning tooth surfaces. The plaque contains several different microbial species that sometimes can only be detected by plaque disclosing agents (see –also FOG 110)
The optimal fluoride content of table salt
A) 1,25 mg/kg
B) 250 mg/kg
C) 25 mg/kg
D) 50 mg/kg
E) 150 mg/kg
B) 250 mg/kg
EXPLANATION
In the Hungarian cuisine 250mg/kg fluoridated table salt has an equivalent protective effect like a 1mg/l fluoridated water. The 150mg/kg content is only a supplement and the lower doses have no caries protective effects.
What is the cause of the gingival enlargement in leukaemia ?
A) infiltration by malignant cells
B) reactive fibrosis
C) haemangioma
D) capillary rigidity
E) neither of them
A) infiltration by malignant cells
EXPLANATION
The early sign of acute leukemia is the swelling of the interdental gingiva, the spontaneously bleeds ,and finally necrotized creating ulcers. (see also FOG-1) It is caused by the infiltrating malignant hematological cells.
The management of pregnancy gingivitis :
A) gingivoplasty
B) topical metronidazole application
C) broad spectrum antibiotics
D) improved oral hygiene
E) neither of them
D) improved oral hygiene
EXPLANATION
The gingivitis was considered as one of the physiological symptoms of the pregnancy hormonal changes. After delivery and the finish of lactation it well recede but only the prefect oral hygiene can cure the disease. Medication or surgery is contraindicated. The best remedy is the perfect oral hygiene even during pregnancy.
The characteristic sign of pulpal hyperemia :
A) cold water will alleviate pain
B) the tooth is sensitive to percussion
C) it is a reversibly phenomenon
D) it is an irreversibly phenomenon
E) it is caused by antihypertensive drugs
C) it is a reversibly phenomenon
EXPLANATION
The inflammatory hyperemia leads to the elevation of the blood pressure in the pulp chamber, this irritates the cells. The very sudden sharp pain can spontaneously recede. If it frequently returns it sooner or later will progress to pulpitis. It is the irreversibly damage of the dental pulp. The thermal insults can aggravate the process, sensitivity to percussion is not experienced.
The salivary flow will not enhanced :
A) Sjögren’s syndrome
B) acute heavy metal poisoning
C) during dental treatment
D) trigeminal neuralgia
E) in epileptic attack
A) Sjögren’s syndrome
EXPLANATION
.The mechanical, chemical and neurogenic stimuli can enhance the salivation. In this way the B,C.D are associated with elevated flow rate. The Sjogren’s disease , the autoimmune disease of the major salivary glands is associated with severe xresotomia. In this disease the mouth is totally dry and salivation cannot be stimulated.
The biological effect of vitamin-A on the oral mucosa :
A) inflammation
B) increased keratinization
C) atrophy
D) hyperplasa
E) angular cheilitis
B) increased keratinization
EXPLANATION
In vitamin-A deficiency –the is considered as an epithelial protective vitamin increased mucous membrane keratinization occurs. The other lesions listed are not directly associated with the vitamin-A deficiency.
It is not characteristic of ostitis alveolaris (dry socket) :
A) oral malodor
B) inflammation around the alveolar socket
C) severe pain at the day of extraction
D) general malaise
E) fever
C) severe pain at the day of extraction
EXPLANATION
The dry socket (alveolar ostitis) develops a couple of days after the extraction. Its main cause is the early degradation of the blood clot or the insufficient blood clot formation in the socket.
Usually the nearest tooth to the basis of the maxillary sinus is:
A) the upper wisdom tooth
B) the palatal root of the upper first premolar
C) the upper second molar
D) the distal root of the upper second premolar
E) the upper first molar
C) the upper second molar
EXPLANATION
Usually in 45% of the cases the upper second molars’ roots are in the nearest position to the alveolar recess of the maxillary sinus. Sometimes the sinus floor protrudes into the interradicular area between the mesial and palatal roots. The next is the first molar (30%) and followed by the wisdom tooth (27%) according to the approximation. It is very rare that the sinus protrudes until the apex of the first premolar
What does it mean „ the completion of the dental arch” ?
A) the eruption of the wisdom tooth
B) the eruption of a mesiodens
C) the eruption of a supernumeraly tooth
D) the eruption of the lower first permanent molar
E) all of them
D) the eruption of the lower first permanent molar
EXPLANATION
During the eruption of the first permanent molars the dental arch built up of 5 teeth by quadrants will be completed, in this way those teeth will not be exploited or changed and any damage on those teeth will be irreversible. Therefore those teeth need more attention and care from the dentist and parents.
The characteristic sing of periodontal abscess :
A) develops after the obturation of the orifice of the pocket
B) strong pulsating pain
C) the involved tooth has vital sign
D) a putrid charge from the sulcus
E) all of them
E) all of them
EXPLANATION
All the symptoms are characteristic of periodontal abscesses. The pyogenic exudates in the closed pocket will increase the pressure and this leads to acute pain and many ties can mimic the symptoms of the periapical abscess. On the other hand the tooth is vital . With pressing the pocket wall puss can be discharged from the sulcus. The location of the periodontal abscess helps the differential diagnosis, to differentiate from the acute periapical abscess. It is closer to the gingival margin than to the apex. It is usually smaller and can be drained thru the sulcus.
The oral signs and symptoms of AIDS :
A) Kaposi-sarcoma
B) severe progressing periodontitis
C) leukoplakia
D) candidiasis
E) all of them
E) all of them
EXPLANATION
All the listed conditions might associate with AIDS, their cause is the severely compromised immune status of the patient.
The lidocain cartridge/ampoule commercially delivered for dental anesthesia as
A) Inj. Lidocain 1% – Adrenalin 0,01%
B) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,1%
C) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,01%
D) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,001%
E) Inj. Lidocain 1% – Adrenalin 0,02%
D) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,001%
EXPLANATION
For dental infiltration and block anesthesia –unless the administration of adrenalin (epinephrine) contraindicated the proper anesthesia can be achieved with injections containing 2% lidocain (xilocain) +0,001% adrenalin. The commercial unit dose is 2 ml in brown ampoule. In general surgery 1 and 2% lidocain is used without epinephrine., but this has no adequate analgesic effect is dentistry . It can only be used for superficial soft tissue anesthesia for a short period of time. The reason is the special vascularisation of the oral tissues and the compact bony structure .
salivary enzymes
1) proteases
2) maltase
3) lipase
4) amylase
A) 1., 2. and 3. answers are correct
B) 1. and 3. answers are correct
C) 2. and 4. answers are correct
D) only the 4. answer is correct
E) all the answers are correct
C) 2. and 4. answers are correct
EXPLANATION
In the oral cavity the fermentation of the carbohydrates are started by the salivary enzymes. If a carbohydrate containing foodstuff - like bread stays in the oral cavity for a relatively long time due to the fermentation it will be sweet. The metabolism of fat and proteins starts only in the deeper part of the GI system.
Drugs decreasing salivary flow rate
1) homatropine
2) scopolamine
3) atropine
4) noscapine
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The tropeins ( a structure made up by the condensation of a pyridine and pirolidine ring) even in therapeutic dose cause xerostomia, dray through, thirst and mydriasis. This sometimes can be used for the transitory inhibition of the salivation. This is very useful during impression taking or special oral exams.
What can cause chronic glossitis ?
1) candidasis
2) diabetes mellitus
3) avitaminosis
4) hemophilia
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The chronic glossitis is much more common than the acute one. Associated with systemic diseases the glossitis cannot be cured without controlling the background disease. The most common causes are: pernicious anemia, vitamin-B deficiency, gastrointestinal ailments candidiasis and diabetes mellitus.
The characteristics of Pierre–Robin-syndrome
1) glossoptosis
2) micrognathia
3) palatoschisis
4) coarctatio aortae
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The Pierre Robin syndrome (palatoschisis, micrognathia and glossoptosis) is a congenital hereditary condition. Its typical sign is the gothic palate, which frequently associated with palatourano-staphyloschisis . The lower jaw is underdeveloped and the tongue is in a retro position .
Which can be a permanent trism ?
1) myogen
2) ankylosis
3) spastic
4) osteogen
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
EXPLANATION
The myogenic and spastic trismus (lockjaw) might suddenly develops and usually transitory and reversible. The ankylosis and osteogenic trismus slowly develops . The most common causes: The juvenile injuries can cause hematoma in the joint that can later maturate and finally ossifys.. In extreme cases a typical bird like face develops. In adulthood the chronic rheumatoid arthritis or other degenerative diseases like Marie—Stümpfell-spondylitis can lead to irreversible trismus .
The characteristic sign of amelogenesis imperfecta
1) a disturbed enamel development
2) many times the total enamel coverage is missing on the crown of the tooth
3) this affects both the disturbed matrix formation and the calcification
4) it occurs only in the permanent teeth
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The amelogenesis imperfecta is a developmental disease the affects only the structure of the enamel and not the form of the crown. It is characteristic that the developing enamel is porous, soft, matt. It warns down easily and turns to brown.
The characteristic signs of Down-syndrome
1) hyper salivation
2) microglossia
3) small teeth
4) very wide upper dental arch
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
Down’s syndrome is a chromosomal aberration. Its general syndromes associate with characteristic facial features. Macroglossia, hypopastic teeth, and at least in 90% orthodontic abnormalities -like open bite, cross bite occur
It is characteristic of the forceps used for the removal of an upper fractured root
1) the beaks closely approximate each other
2) the beaks are a straight continuation of the hinge
3) the beaks set in a wide angle to the hinge
4) the width of the beaks are divided and pointed
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
E) if all the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
The beaks of the root tip forceps meet the tip. For upper front teeth the beaks are symmetrical and placed in the same line as the handle. For molars the beaks are at the wide angle to the handle. The size of the beaks are variable according to the diameter of the root.
The symptoms of dental caries at a vital tooth :
1) sensitive to cold
2) softened dentine
3) it is sensitive to osmotic attack
4) sensitive to percussion
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The caries depending of its progression shows different symptoms . The early sign of the enamel caries is the sensitivity to osmotic and thermal (cold, hot) stimuli. The dentin caries due to the further demineralisation affects the decalcified structures. Although the pathology involving only the hart tissues of the teeth will not lead to sensitivity to percussion.
Drugs causing gingival hyperplasia
1) major tranquilizer drugs
2) penicillin group
3) minor tranquilizer drugs
4) dilantin –hydantoin group
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
EXPLANATION
Gingival hyperplasia can be side effects of many different drugs. One of them the dilantine (hydantoin) groups given to patients with epilepsy. After one or two months administration might cause gingival enlargement, The fibrotic tissues with minimal tendency to bleed sometime might cover the whole crows interfering with chewing. The proper oral hygiene in this case is very important.
The symptoms of sinus apertus:
1) when the patient rinses the mouth the water flows out through the nose
2) strong arterial bleeding
3) when blowing the patient’s nose the air flows through the perforation into the oral cavity creating a whistling noise
4) an extensive hematoma
A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
The characteristic feature of the sinus apertus is the antro-oral communication – the water/air pathological communication between the to cavities. The air can enter into the oral cavity from the nose, and the water from the oral cavity into the nose. Hematoma is not a common characteristic sign.
The symptoms of Arthrosis temporomandibularis
1) compromised opening movement
2) swollen joints
3) terminal crepitation
4) deviation towards the diseased joint
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The degenerative processes associated with swelling. The opening of the mouth is compromised and the forced opening movement leads to pain. Histologically the destruction of the cartilage, calcification and sever other structural destructions can be detected. The crepitation is the most prominent early morning.
It is characteristic to the central midface bone fracture:
1) diplopia
2) swollen face
3) nasal bleeding
4) liquour discharge
A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
EXPLANATION
The Le Fore II mid-facial fracture usually involves the bones of the orbital basis , the bones move caudally and therefore diplopia develops. The soft tissue injury leads to sudden swelling of the face, because the mimic muscle have no fascia sheets. The nasal bleeding is also a common sing. This fracture does not involves the cranial bones. The liquour discharge is not common
The characteristic sign of mandibular fracture
1) diplopia
2) the dental arch continuity is broken
3) xerostomia
4) traumatic occlusion
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
EXPLANATION
In case of mandibular fractures the bones due to the muscle pull will be partially or totally dislocated. Characteristic the traumatic occlusion caused by the vertical displacement of the bones and the deformation of the dental arch due to the horizontal movement of the fractured bones. Diplopia and xersotomia does not occur as a side effect of mandibular fractures.
The characteristic sign of acute periodontitis
1) the pain is exacerbated when the patient goes to bed
2) sensitivity to percussion
3) a sudden swelling around the tooth
4) when closing the mouth a sharp pain evoked when occluding the teeth
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
EXPLANATION
The acute periapical periodontitis is sensitive to percussion and also to occlusal contact. The inflammatory exudates elevates the root from the alveolar socket ant the patients feels the involved tooth erupted. The mechanism of the pain sensation is that if the root is pressed into the inflamed tissue it reacts with severe pain. The pain occurring when the patient is a laid down position is the consequence of the pulpal hyperemia and acute pulpits. It is cause by the elevated blood pressure. The sudden swelling around tooth is a characteristic sing of periodontal inflammation
In case of a closed pulpitis the anatomical situation are very disadvantageous from the inflammation point of view
1) The volume of the closed pulp cannot be expanded and one of the leading sign of any inflammations is the swelling
2) In inflammation in a closed system the inflammatory swelling leads to a pressure increase in the tissues
3) the active hyperemia is followed by a passive venous hyperemia that leads to increased pressure and finally stasis in the pulp
4) the stasis arrest the circulation in the pulp that finally results in tissue necrosis
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
E) if all the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
An inflammation process in a closed space by the concomitant swelling will evidently lead to tissue pressure increase. The listed signs are all the causative factors or the consequences of this mechanism
Join the given words marked with letters to the proper numbers below.
** It continuously growth throughout the life**
A) enamel
B) dentin
C) both of them
D) neither of them
B) dentin
