Internal Medicine - Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

Main manifestations of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1):

A) pheochromocytoma, hyperparathyroidism, Leydig-cell testicle tumor
B) pheochromocytoma, hyperparathyroidism, pituitary adenoma
C) hyperparathyroidism, pancreas neuroendocrine tumor, pituitary adenoma
D) pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma, pituitary adenoma
E) hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, pituitary adenoma

A

C) hyperparathyroidism, pancreas neuroendocrine tumor, pituitary adenoma

EXPLANATION
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is an endocrine tumor syndrome with autosomal dominant inheritance. The disorder is caused by the mutations of the MEN1 gene encoding menin protein. Its main manifestations are primary hyperparathyroidism (in about 90% of cases), pituitary adenoma (in 30-75% of cases) and neuroendocrine tumor of the pancreas (in 10-60% of cases). Primary hyperparathyroidism usually appears as the first component of the syndrome, in young (20-30-year-old) adults. In patients suffering from MEN1 syndrome foregut carcinoid tumor (thymus, bronchus, stomach), adrenocortical tumor (most commonly hormonally inactive adenoma) and non-endocrine tumors (lipoma, angiofibroma, collagenoma) may also appear, but these tumors are considered accessory components of the syndrome. Patients and relatives carrying the disease causing mutation have to be screened regularly for these tumors. Pheochromocytoma and medullary thyroid cancer are components of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2), not MEN1. Leydig cell tumor is also not a component of MEN1 syndrome, but Carney complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The appropriate test to certify acromegaly:

A) investigation of the diurnal rhythm of serum growth hormone (GH) concentration
B) investigation of the serum growth hormone (GH) concentration in morning hours
C) investigation of the serum growth hormone (GH) concentration during oral glucose tolerance test
D) investigation of the serum growth hormone (GH) concentration after administration of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

A

C) investigation of the serum growth hormone (GH) concentration during oral glucose tolerance test

EXPLANATION
Growth hormone (GH) secretion is characterized by a diurnal rhythm and pulsatile excretion. The most important characteristic of diurnal rhythm is GH secretion during night sleep and consecutive high serum GH level, while pulsatile excretion manifests itself in high GH peaks about 13 times a day. Because of the intense variability of GH secretion, the determination of morning serum GH level and diurnal rhythm of serum GH is not suitable for diagnosing acromegaly. Serum GH measurement after the administration of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) is used to examine the GH-producing ability of the pituitary; it is applied not in the diagnosis of acromegaly, but in GH deficiency. For the confirmation or exclusion of acromegaly the most commonly used and most reliable method is serum GH determination during oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Acromegaly is confirmed, if serum GH level remains above 1 ng/ml in blood samples taken every 30 minutes for two hours after the administration of 75 grams of glucose. If OGTT is not feasible (e.g. in diabetic patients) GH profile examination is recommended (e.g. serum GH measurement every 30 minutes 7-12 times).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

It is characteristic for subclinical primary hypothyroidism:

A) clinical signs of hypothyroidism with normal serum thyroid hormone levels
B) the hormone levels refer to primary hypothyroidism without clinical signs
C) low free T4 and free T3 levels with normal serum TSH
D) normal free T4 and free T3 levels with elevated serum TSH

A

D) normal free T4 and free T3 levels with elevated serum TSH

EXPLANATION
Subclinical primary hypothyroidism is characterized by normal serum free T4 and free T3 levels and serum TSH level above the reference range. The elevation of serum TSH is relatively moderate; significantly higher TSH levels are usually associated with decreased serum free T4 and/or serum free T3 levels (primary hypothyroidism).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Primary therapy of prolactin-producing pituitary microadenoma:

A) pituitary surgery
B) pituitary irradiation
C) treatment with dopamine agonist
D) treatment with dopamine antagonist
E) treatment with somatostatin analogue

A

C) treatment with dopamine agonist

EXPLANATION
For the primary treatment of prolactin-producing pituitary microadenoma dopamine agonist drugs are applied. In Hungary the drug of choice is bromocriptine, that is given usually twice daily (the higher dose in the evening), with a low initial and gradually increased dose. Bromocriptine is a D2 dopamine receptor agonist ergoline derivative. For patients with pituitary microadenoma the average sustained daily dose of bromocriptine is 2.5-7.5 mg. Bromocriptine therapy corrects prolactin levels in 80-90% of prolactin-producing pituitary microadenoma cases, and after a few months of treatment gonadal function recovers. In 60-70% of patients the size of the pituitary microadenoma also decreases, and total tumor regression may also occur. After the discontinuation of short-term bromocriptine treatment hormonal disorders and clinical symptoms usually recur, therefore in most cases long-term (through years) treatment is needed. In case of prolactin-producing pituitary microadenoma a pituitary operation is considered only in special cases (e.g. bromocriptine intolerance or -resistance). Radiotherapy is not used in prolactin-producing pituitary microadenoma. Dopamine antagonist drugs lead to hyperprolactinemia, and are not used in prolactin-producing pituitary microadenoma. Somatostatin analogues are not used either in the treatment of prolactin-producing pituitary microadenoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In case of a patient receiving thyroid hormone substitution due to a thyroid ablation therapy of papillary thyroid carcinoma, laboratory results show a suppression of TSH level and normal free T4 and free T3 levels. Is it necessary to modify the dose of the thyroid hormone substitution (l-thyroxin)?

A) the dose of l-thyroxin is appropriate, no modification is needed
B) reduction of the daily dose of l-thyroxin is necessary due to the suppressed TSH
C) increase of the daily dose of l-thyroxin is necessary due to the suppressed TSH
D) no modification of the dose of l-thyroxin is needed, but we shall give thyreostatics in addition

A

A) the dose of l-thyroxin is appropriate, no modification is needed

EXPLANATION
TSH, in addition to stimulating hormone production of the thyroid gland, also increases thyroid cell proliferation. This effect shows also on differentiated thyroid cancer (papillary and follicular thyroid cancer) cells. Thus after the ablation therapy of differentiated thyroid cancer the thyroid hormone substitution is adjusted to a dose that keeps TSH level well below the reference range. According to the current practice, the thyroid hormone treatment for the suppression of TSH is maintained for 5 years after thyroid cancer ablation; after this, in cases without recurrent cancer the dose of thyroid hormone supplementation is set to a dose that keeps serum TSH level in the normal range. Administration of thyrostatic drugs after thyroid cancer ablation would cause at most adverse side effects of these products (agranulocytosis, hepatopathy), because in the absence of thyroid hormone producing cells thyrostatic drugs do not affect TSH levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

We can use it as a serum marker of medullary thyroid carcinoma:

A) investigation of serum thyreoglobulin
B) investigation of serum calcitonin
C) investigation of serum osteocalcin
D) investigation of serum parathyroid hormone

A

B) investigation of serum calcitonin

EXPLANATION
Medullary thyroid cancer is the tumor of the thyroid parafollicular C-cells. Parafollicular C-cells synthesize calcitonin; the calcitonin-producing ability is maintained in cancerously transformed cells. Elevated serum calcitonin level is a specific marker of medullary thyroid cancer, although rarely other tumors may also produce calcitonin (e.g. insulinoma). After the successful removal of medullary thyroid cancer, serum calcitonin level returns to normal; a renewed increase indicates recurrence or metastasis. In medullary thyroid cancer serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level is also enhanced. Serum thyroglobulin determination serves as an important tumor marker after ablation of differentiated thyroid cancer. Serum osteocalcin is the marker of bone metabolism, while serum parathyroid hormone is used for the examination of diseases and dysfunction of the parathyroid glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Endocrine disorders causing diarrhea, except:

A) medullary thyroid carcinoma
B) gastrinoma
C) carcinoid tumor
D) pheochromocytoma

A

D) pheochromocytoma

EXPLANATION
Diarrhea is a leading symptom of carcinoid syndrome evolving in case of carcinoid tumors. Gastrinoma, besides other symptoms (like recurrent multiple peptic ulcers that hardly react to treatment), is also characterised by diarrhea. Diarrhea is also common in case of medullary thyroid cancer with multiple metastases and significantly elevated serum calcitonin level. In contrast to these three tumors, pheochromocytoma is characterised by constipation due to the mesenteric vasospasm caused by catecholamine overproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The appropriate test for the clarification of Cushing’s syndrome, except:

A) investigation of 24 hour urinary free cortisol (UFC) excretion
B) investigation of serum cortisol after administration of low dose dexamethasone
C) investigation of the diurnal rhythm of serum cortisol
D) investigation of serum cortisol in morning hours
E) investigation of the diurnal rhythm of salivary cortisol

A

D) investigation of serum cortisol in morning hours

EXPLANATION
For the screening of Cushing’s syndrome we use tests that determine the daily integrated cortisol secretion, the diurnal rhythm of cortisol secretion, and the feed-back regulating function of the pituitary-adrenal axis. These tests include the examination of 24 hour urine cortisol, diurnal rhythm of serum or saliva cortisol (in samples taken at midnight and between 8-9 o’clock in the morning), and serum cortisol level after the administration of low dose dexamethasone (in the so-called low dose overnight dexamethasone test serum cortisol is measured from a sample taken between 8-9 o’clock in the morning, after having administered 1 mg dexamethasone the previous midnight). Stressful circumstances can significantly increase serum cortisol level, and on the other hand Cushing’s syndrome can be present without the significant elevation of morning serum cortisol (because of the lack of diurnal rhythm, i.e. failure of the physiologic decrease of cortisol level after the morning hours). Thus serum cortisol examination in the morning alone is not sufficient for the screening of Cushing’s syndrome in the clinical practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Radioiodine treatment can be used against the following diseases, except:

A) after the surgery of papillary thyroid carcinoma
B) after the surgery of follicular thyroid carcinoma
C) after the surgery of medullary thyroid carcinoma
D) autonomous thyroid nodule causing hyperthyroidism
E) Graves’ disease

A

C) after the surgery of medullary thyroid carcinoma

EXPLANATION
Radioiodine treatment is an important therapeutic tool for total thyroid ablation after total (near total) thyroidectomy in case of differentiated thyroid cancer (papillary and follicular thyroid cancer), for the treatment of autonomous thyroid nodules causing hyperthyroidism, and for the cessation of thyroid overproduction in Graves’ disease. Medullary thyroid cancer cells originating from the thyroid parafollicular C-cells do not have iodine uptake ability (due to the lack of sodium/iodide symporter that is necessary for iodine uptake), therefore radioiodine is not used in the treatment of medullary thyroid cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is characteristic for primary aldosteronism:

A) suppression of plasma renin and high plasma aldosteron
B) high plasma renin and high plasma aldosteron
C) normal plasma renin and high plasma aldosteron
D) high plasma aldosteron, plasma renin is not relevant

A

A) suppression of plasma renin and high plasma aldosterone

EXPLANATION
Primary aldosteronism is caused by autonomous (or partly autonomous) aldosterone overproduction of the adrenal cortex. The sodium- and water-retaining effect of excess aldosterone inhibits the secretion of renin produced in the kidney, that leads to decreased renin level. Primary aldosteronism is characterized by high plasma aldosterone and suppressed renin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In case of a patient with pituitary macroadenoma, double vision evolved. What can be the reason for that?

A) suprasellar spread of the pituitary macroadenoma
B) lateral spread of the pituitary macroadenoma to the cavernous sinus
C) downward spread of the pituitary macroadenoma and penetration into the sphenoid sinus
D) there is no connection between the pituitary macroadenoma and the double vision

A

B) lateral spread of the pituitary macroadenoma to the cavernous sinus

EXPLANATION
Pituitary macroadenoma may lead to so-called compression symptoms through the compression of the adjacent structures. The oculomotor nerves reach the oculomotor muscles through the cavernous sinus located next to the sella, therefore the lateral growth of the pituitary macroadenoma may cause the injury of the nerves innervating oculomotor muscles and consecutive diplopia. The suprasellar spreading of pituitary macroadenoma does not cause diplopia, however, may lead to visual field defect (bitemporal hemianopsia) or blindness due to the injury of the optic chiasm located above the sella. The downward growth of pituitary macroadenoma does not cause diplopia either, but may lead to nasal liquorrhea through the penetration of the sphenoidal sinus wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

It is characteristic for the lack of growth hormone (GH) in adults, except:

A) it is associated with unfavorable lipid profile
B) it is associated with increased water content of the body and water retention
C) it is associated with unfavorable fat/muscle mass ratio
D) it is associated with weakness and discomfort

A

B) it is associated with increased water content of the body and water retention

EXPLANATION
Growth hormone (GH) deficiency in adulthood is associated with - among others - unfavorable serum lipid parameters, increased body fat/muscle mass ratio, fatigue, weakness, and general malaise. Water content of the body does not increase, moreover, in adulthood GH deficiency causes reduced body water content.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diseases with polyuria, except:

A) primary aldosteronism
B) primary hyperparathyroidism
C) diabetes insipidus
D) diabetes mellitus
E) SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion)

A

E) SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion)

EXPLANATION
Polyuria (and polydipsia) are well-known symptoms of diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus; in total central diabetes insipidus the lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can cause as much as 18-20 liters of urine daily. Primary aldosteronism with prolonged hypokalemia and primary hyperparathyroidism with prolonged hypercalcemia cause the insensitivity of the vasopressin receptors of the kidney tubules (renal diabetes insipidus), and thus lead to polyuria in these diseases. Out of the listed diseases only SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion) is not associated with polyuria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

It can be the cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency in adults:

A) pituitary tumor
B) skull trauma
C) radiotherapy
D) pituitary apoplexia
E) all of the above

A

E) all of the above

EXPLANATION
GH-deficiency in adults can be caused by many processes that damage pituitary and/or hypothalamus function, including all of the listed causes (pituitary tumor, skull trauma, radiotherapy, pituitary apoplexia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diseases with hirsutism, except:

A) Cushing’s disease
B) hypopituitarism
C) polycystic ovary syndrome
D) 21-hydroxylase deficiency form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

B) hypopituitarism

EXPLANATION
Cushing’s disease may be associated with hirsutism in women; increased ACTH secretion due to ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma induces not only adrenal cortisol, but also adrenal androgen synthesis. In polycystic ovary syndrome hirsutism is caused by the increased production of both ovarian and adrenal androgens. The 21-hydroxylase deficiency form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is associated with the overproduction of androgen hormones, and this leads to hirsutism in women. In contrast to these three diseases, in hypopituitarism, due to the central decrease of gonadal and adrenal function, the androgen production of both the gonads and adrenal glands decreases, that leads to scant body hair or even the total loss of body hair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hereditary tumor syndromes with pheochromocytoma:

1) von Hippel–Lindau syndrome
2) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
3) neurofibromatosis type 1
4) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1

A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all four answers are correct

A

A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
Pheochromocytoma can be a phenomenon of three of the listed hereditary tumor syndromes (von Hippel–Lindau syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2, neurofibromatosis type 1), but it is not typical in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which are tumor suppressor genes of the followings?

1) RET
2) MEN1 (menin protein encoding gene)
3) RAS
4) VHL

A) answers 1., 2., and 3 are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) answers 2. and 4. are correct

EXPLANATION
Two of the listed genes belong to the group of tumor suppressor genes: MEN1, responsible for multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 and VHL gene causing von Hippel–Lindau syndrome. RET and RAS genes are oncogenes. The characteristic of tumor suppressor genes is that the defect of both alleles (e.g. the germinal mutation of one allele and somatic mutation of the other allele) leads to tumor formation. On the contrary, the effect of oncogenes is dominant, i.e. the disease-causing mutation of one of the alleles is enough for tumor formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

It may be a symptom of Graves’ disease:

1) diarrhea
2) tachycardia
3) pretibial myxedema
4) fine hand tremor

A) answers 1., 2. and 3 are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
All four listed symptoms are characteristic for Graves’ disease (diarrhea, tachycardia, pretibial myxedema, fine hand tremor).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which are glicoprotein hormones of the followings?

1) TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)
2) LH (luteinizing hormone)
3) hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)
4) FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)

A) answers 1., 2., and 3 are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
All of the listed hormones are glycoprotein hormones (TSH, LH, hCG, FSH). The common trait of this hormone family is that all members consist of two subunits; the alpha-subunit is identical in all four hormones, while the different beta-subunits are responsible for the specific biological effect of the various glycoprotein hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which tumors are associated with elevated serum chromogranin A concentration?

1) carcinoid tumor
2) gastrinoma
3) pheochromocytoma
4) insulinoma

A) answers 1., 2., and 3 are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
The members of the chromogranin family are proteins stored in the secretory granules of neuroendocrine cells; during hormone release they are let out of the cells together with the hormones and get into the blood, where their concentration can be determined. Chromogranin A examination is used as a specific serum marker of neuroendocrine tumors. High serum chromogranin A concentration is found in carcinoid tumors, gastrinoma, insulinoma and pheochromocytoma. Examination of serum chromogranin A helps in the diagnosis of all four listed tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Applicable treatment in thyrotoxic crisis:

1) thyrostatics
2) iodine preparation
3) beta-adrenergic receptor blocker
4) plasmapheresis

A) answers 1., 2., and 3 are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
Thyrotoxic crisis is a life-threatening state, for which the use of all listed therapeutic tools may be necessary. For the inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis thyrostatics, for the moderation of the increased adrenergic activity beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and iodine products are given. The elimination of thyroid hormones can be facilitated with plasmapheresis. Besides the listed therapeutic tools, the administration of glucocorticoids and the correction of fluid and electrolyte balance is necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Typical in subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain’s thyroiditis):

1) it is associated with the painful swelling of the thyroid gland and fever
2) it is common cause of permanent (definitive) primary hypothyroidism
3) ESR is elevated
4) it often recurs after healing

A) answers 1., 2., and 3 are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all four answers are correct

A

B) answers 1. and 3. are correct

EXPLANATION
Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain’s thyroiditis) is a disease associated with the painful swelling of the thyroid gland and fever. Its cause is unknown; upper airway inflammation often precedes its development. The most important laboratory sign is the significantly elevated ESR; thyroid hormone examinations may show different alterations depending on the phase of the disease. At the beginning of the disease hormone levels respective of primary hyperthyroidism are found (suppressed serum TSH and elevated free T4 and free T3), while later these become normal, and a transient primary hypothyroidism evolves (high serum TSH, low free T4 and free T3). The transient primary hypothyroidism heals spontaneously, and the subacute granulomatous thyroiditis does not cause sustained or permanent primary hypothyroidism. After healing recurrence is very rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In case of differentiated thyroid cancer radioiodine ablation

1) is applicable after total (near total) thyroidectomy
2) is applicable instead of total (near total) thyroidectomy
3) the condition of its application is high serum TSH level (that can be achieved by the discontinuation of thyroid supplementation for a certain time in patients receiving thyroid supplementation, or the administration of TSH product)
4) is applicable before total (near total) thyroidectomy

A) answers 1., 2., and 3 are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all four answers are correct

A

B) answers 1. and 3. are correct

EXPLANATION
In case of differentiated thyroid cancer radioiodine ablation is applicable after total (near total) thyroidectomy. Its condition is high serum TSH level, that can be achieved by the discontinuation of thyroid supplementation for a certain time, or the administration of TSH products prior the radioiodine ablation. Without thyroidectomy the high radiation dose used against cancer would cause the radiation injury and severe inflammation of the thyroid gland and the neck region. For this reason radioiodine ablation can only be applied after a total (near total) thyroidectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which diseases are associated with hyponatremia?

1) SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion)
2) diabetes insipidus
3) Addison’s disease
4) primary aldosteronism

A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all 4 answers are correct

A

B) answers 1 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
In SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion) the excess antidiuretic hormone (ADH) causes hyponatremia through fluid retention and the dilution of fluid compartments. Hyponatremia in Addison’s disease is explained partly by mineralocorticoid deficiency, partly by enhanced ADH production (ADH secretion is stimulated by hypotension, hypovolemia and vomiting, which are consequences of Addison’s disease). Diabetes insipidus is not associated with hyponatremia, moreover, if fluid intake is limited, hypernatremia evolves. Primary aldosteronism also causes (usually mild) hypernatremia through sodium retention stimulated by aldosterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The injury of the thirst center of the hypothalamus may cause primary adipsia. What are the characteristics of this?

1) hypernatremia, that leads to severe neurological symptoms
2) antidiuretic hormone (ADH, vasopressin) overdosage can be one of its causes
3) its treatment can be water administration through a nasogastric tube
4) its long-term prognosis is usually good, because other regulating systems may compensate the role of the thirst center

A) answers 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4. is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) answers 1. and 3. are correct

EXPLANATION
Primary adipsia evolving because of the injury of the hypothalamic thirst center leads to severe neurological symptoms. Due to the lack of thirst fluid intake is dangerously decreased, that may cause severe hypernatremia and consecutive central nervous system symptoms, coma and death. Long-term prognosis is pronouncedly bad, though the attending care of the patient to reach sufficient fluid intake may reduce the risk of severe hypernatremia. In vigilant patients the most simple primary treatment is giving water through nasogastric tube. In contrast to hypernatremia in primary adipsia, ADH overdosage causes hyponatremia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

It is common in acromegaly:

1) diabetes mellitus
2) hypertension
3) sleep apnoea
4) osteoarthrosis

A) answers 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4. is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
In acromegaly diabetes mellitus is common because of the contra-insulin effect of growth hormone (GH). In these patients hypertension is also common as a consequence of complex processes. The thickening of soft tissues, the stenosis of upper airways, the enlarged tongue often leads to sleep apnea. Osteoarthrosis with the pain and impaired mobility of joints is typical and common symptom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is associated with hypertension and hypokalemia?

1) steroid 21-hydroxylase deficiency
2) 11β-hydroxylase deficiency
3) defect of the gene encoding STAR protein (steroidogenesis acute regulatory protein)
4) 17α-hydroxylase/17, 20-lyase enzyme deficiency

A) answers 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4. is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) answers 2 and 4 are correct

EXPLANATION
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital syndrome) is an autosomal recessive disorder. The cause is the lack or deficiency of enzymes catalyzing cortisol synthesis; decreased cortisol synthesis, through a feedback mechanism leads to enhanced ACTH secretion, adrenal gland hyperplasia, and the accumulation of hormone precursors before the block of steroid biosynthesis. The excess of hormones with mineralocorticoid effect (e.g. deoxycorticosterone), consecutive hypertension and hypokalemia is found in 11β-hydroxylase and 17α-hydroxylase/17, 20-lyase enzyme deficiency. In contrast, the defect of 21-hydroxylase and STAR protein (steroidogenesis acute regulatory protein), that has a role in the early phase of steroid synthesis may lead to salt loss and hypotension because of decreased mineralocorticoid production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It is typical in Turner syndrome:

1) the syndrome is caused by the total absence of an X chromosome, thus the karyotype of these patients is always 45X
2) apart from the typical features (short stature, pterygium colli, low posterior hairline, low-set ears, short metatarsus, cubitus valgus) cardial and renal malformations are often associated
3) the cause of the typical primary amenorrhea is the decreased LH and FSH production of the pituitary
4) in childhood for the treatment of short stature growth hormone (GH) products are applicable

A) answers 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4. is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) answers 2. and 4. are correct

EXPLANATION
Turner syndrome is a congenital disorder with characteristic features (short stature, pterygium colli, low posterior hairline, low-set ears, short metatarsus, cubitus valgus), primary amenorrhea and often cardial and renal malformations. Although short stature is not caused by growth hormone (GH) deficiency, GH products can be administered for growth stimulation in affected children. High LH and FSH levels occur because of primary amenorrhoea due to ovarian failure (gonadal streak). The disease is caused by alterations of the X chromosome, that can be determined by karyotype of fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) method. In about half of the cases 45,X, in one quarter 46XX/45/X or other mosaicism, and in the rest of the cases other structural disorders of the X chromosome are found.

29
Q

It is typical in Klinefelter syndrome:

1) the syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome, therefore the karyotype of these patients is always 47,XXY
2) apart from the typical external features (tall stature, signs of hypogonadism, gynecomastia, obesity, small testicles) the elevated risk of diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease is also common
3) the cause of the hypogonadism typical for the disease is the decreased LH and FSH production of the pituitary
4) hypogonadism associated with the disease can be treated with testosterone products

A) answers 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) answers 1. and 3. are correct
C) answers 2. and 4. are correct
D) only answer 4. is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) answers 2. and 4. are correct

EXPLANATION
Klinefelter syndrome is a congenital disorder with characteristic features (tall stature, signs of hypogonadism, gynecomastia, obesity, small testicles), the elevated risk of diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease and in most cases infertility. The symptoms of the associated hypogonadism can be treated with testosterone products. High LH and FSH levels occur because of the testicular deficiency and hypogonadism. The karyotype is in most cases 47,XXY, but other variations (48,XXXY) and mosaic forms also occur.

30
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with letters) that it is most associated with!

A) diabetes insipidus
B) Cushing’s disease
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) panhypopituitarism

polyuria

A

A) diabetes insipidus

31
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with letters) that it is most associated with!

A) diabetes insipidus
B) Cushing’s disease
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) panhypopituitarism

scant body hair

A

C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) panhypopituitarism

32
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with letters) that it is most associated with!

A) diabetes insipidus
B) Cushing’s disease
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) panhypopituitarism

tall stature

A

C) Klinefelter syndrome

33
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with letters) that it is most associated with!

A) diabetes insipidus
B) Cushing’s disease
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) panhypopituitarism

round, “moon” face

A

B) Cushing’s disease

34
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with capital letters) that it is most associated with!

A) Kallmann syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) severe untreated primary hypothyroidism
D) severe untreated hypoparathyroidism

hypogonadism

A

A) Kallmann syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome

35
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with capital letters) that it is most associated with!

A) Kallmann syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) severe untreated primary hypothyroidism
D) severe untreated hypoparathyroidism

pericardial effusion

A

C) severe untreated primary hypothyroidism

36
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with capital letters) that it is most associated with!

A) Kallmann syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) severe untreated primary hypothyroidism
D) severe untreated hypoparathyroidism

anosmia

A

A) Kallmann syndrome

37
Q

Connect the various symptoms (indicated with numbers) with the disease (indicated with capital letters) that it is most associated with!

A) Kallmann syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) severe untreated primary hypothyroidism
D) severe untreated hypoparathyroidism

tetany

A

D) severe untreated hypoparathyroidism

38
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) secondary hyperaldosteronism
B) carcinoid tumor
C) prolactin producin pituitary adenome
D) central diabetes insipidus

bromocriptine

A

C) prolactin producin pituitary adenome

39
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) secondary hyperaldosteronism
B) carcinoid tumor
C) prolactin producin pituitary adenome
D) central diabetes insipidus

spironolactone

A

A) secondary hyperaldosteronism

40
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) secondary hyperaldosteronism
B) carcinoid tumor
C) prolactin producin pituitary adenome
D) central diabetes insipidus

octreotide (somatostatin-analogue)

A

B) carcinoid tumor

41
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) secondary hyperaldosteronism
B) carcinoid tumor
C) prolactin producin pituitary adenome
D) central diabetes insipidus

desmopressin

A

D) central diabetes insipidus

42
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) adrenocortical carcinome
B) gastrinoma
C) acromegaly
D) Addison’s disease

proton pump inhibitor

A

B) gastrinoma

43
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) adrenocortical carcinome
B) gastrinoma
C) acromegaly
D) Addison’s disease

mitotane

A

A) adrenocortical carcinome

44
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) adrenocortical carcinome
B) gastrinoma
C) acromegaly
D) Addison’s disease

fludrocortisone

A

D) Addison’s disease

45
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate treatment (labelled with numbers)!

A) adrenocortical carcinome
B) gastrinoma
C) acromegaly
D) Addison’s disease

pegvisomant

A

C) acromegaly

46
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate diagnostic serum- and urine parameters (indicated with numbers)!

A) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B) carcinoid tumor
C) Graves’ disease
D) hypercalcaemia associated with malignant diseases

TRAK (TSH receptor antibody)

A

C) Graves’ disease

47
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate diagnostic serum- and urine parameters (indicated with numbers)!

A) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B) carcinoid tumor
C) Graves’ disease
D) hypercalcaemia associated with malignant diseases

parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-RP)

A

D) hypercalcaemia associated with malignant diseases

48
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate diagnostic serum- and urine parameters (indicated with numbers)!

A) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B) carcinoid tumor
C) Graves’ disease
D) hypercalcaemia associated with malignant diseases

anti-TPO (thyroid peroxidase antibody)

A

A) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

49
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with letters) with the most appropriate diagnostic serum- and urine parameters (indicated with numbers)!

A) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B) carcinoid tumor
C) Graves’ disease
D) hypercalcaemia associated with malignant diseases

24-hour urine 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

A

B) carcinoid tumor

50
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with numbers) with the most appropriate diagnostic methods (indicated with letters)!

A) selective adrenal vein sampling for hormone determination
B) inferior petrosal sinus sampling for hormone determination
C) somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (octreoscan)
D) metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scintigraphy

pheochromocytoma

A

D) metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scintigraphy

51
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with numbers) with the most appropriate diagnostic methods (indicated with letters)!

A) selective adrenal vein sampling for hormone determination
B) inferior petrosal sinus sampling for hormone determination
C) somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (octreoscan)
D) metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scintigraphy

Cushing’s disease

A

B) inferior petrosal sinus sampling for hormone determination

52
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with numbers) with the most appropriate diagnostic methods (indicated with letters)!

A) selective adrenal vein sampling for hormone determination
B) inferior petrosal sinus sampling for hormone determination
C) somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (octreoscan)
D) metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scintigraphy

aldosterone-producing adenoma

A

A) selective adrenal vein sampling for hormone determination

53
Q

Connect the diseases (indicated with numbers) with the most appropriate diagnostic methods (indicated with letters)!

A) selective adrenal vein sampling for hormone determination
B) inferior petrosal sinus sampling for hormone determination
C) somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (octreoscan)
D) metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scintigraphy

insulinoma

A

C) somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (octreoscan)

54
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the gene (indicated with numbers) that’s determination is most helpful in the diagnosis!

A) Carney complex
B) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
C) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
D) von Hippel–Lindau syndrome

RET (rearranged during transfection gene)

A

B) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2

55
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the gene (indicated with numbers) that’s determination is most helpful in the diagnosis!

A) Carney complex
B) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
C) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
D) von Hippel–Lindau syndrome

MEN1 (menin protein coding gene)

A

C) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1

56
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the gene (indicated with numbers) that’s determination is most helpful in the diagnosis!

A) Carney complex
B) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
C) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
D) von Hippel–Lindau syndrome

VHL (VHL protein coding gene)

A

D) von Hippel–Lindau syndrome

57
Q

Connect the various diseases (indicated with letters) with the gene (indicated with numbers) that’s determination is most helpful in the diagnosis!

A) Carney complex
B) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
C) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
D) von Hippel–Lindau syndrome

PRKAR1A (protein kinase type I regulatory subunit alpha coding gene)

A

A) Carney complex

58
Q

It is not advised to give beta-adrenergic receptor blocker without alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker to patients suffering from pheochromocytoma, because the beta-adrenergic receptor blocker given alone may provoke a pheochromocytoma crisis through the inhibition of the presynaptic beta2-adrenergic receptor.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship

EXPLANATION
Both clauses are correct, with cause-effect relationship. Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers (especially non-selective ones) suspend the presynaptic beta2-adrenergic receptor that inhibits catecholamine secretion; therefore in pheochromocytoma they may cause catecholamine secretion and consecutive pheochromocytoma crisis. Thus for patients suffering from pheochromocytoma, when beta-blockers are needed (e.g. tachycardia, extrasystole), alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker has to be administered prior to the beta-adrenergic receptor blocker.

59
Q

In contrast to Addison’s disease, secondary adrenal insufficiency presenting as part of panhypopituitarism is rarely treated with mineralocorticoids, because in secondary adrenal insufficiency substantially higher doses of glucocorticoid substitution are used than for Addison’s disease.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect

EXPLANATION
The first statement is true, the second is false. In contrast to Addison’s disease, for the treatment of secondary adrenal insufficiency presenting as part of panhypopituitarism, mineralocorticoids are rarely used, but similar doses of glucocorticoids are given in both secondary adrenal insufficiency and Addison’s disease. In contrast to Addison’s disease involving insufficient adrenal glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid and androgen synthesis, in secondary adrenal insufficiency the production of mineralocorticoids regulated by the renin-angiotensin system is not disturbed. Thus mineralocorticoid substitution is rarely needed in secondary adrenal insufficiency.

60
Q

The biologically active 1α,25-dihydroxyvitamin-D (calcitriol) is produced in the proximal tubule of the kidney, therefore by patients suffering from primary hypoparathyroidism with normal renal function, hypocalcemia can be treated with vitamin D, and there is no indication of the administration of activated vitamin D (calcitriol).

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect

EXPLANATION
The first statement is true, the second is false. 25-hydroxyvitamin-D is indeed transformed into biologically active calcitriol in the proximal tubule of the kidney. However, the function of the enzyme catalyzing the transformation is dependent on parathyroid hormone; due to the decreased parathyroid hormone secretion in primary hypoparathyroidism the function of the activating enzyme is decreased and the kidney is not able or not sufficiently able to produce calcitriol. For this reason in primary hypoparathyroidism activated vitamin D (calcitriol) has to be given instead of vitamin D for the correction of hypocalcemia.

61
Q

The adult height of patients suffering from the simple virilizing form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is above average, because the permanently high level of testosterone during childhood enhances bone development and maturation.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct

EXPLANATION
The first statement is false, the second is true. The high testosterone level during childhood in the simple virilizing form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency indeed enhances bone development and maturation that leads to advanced bone age compared to the actual age in childhood. However, the sustained testosterone effect in childhood causes the early closure of epiphyseal plates of long bones, which results in shorter than average adult height.

62
Q

Hyperprolactinemia causes hypogonadism, because the increased level of serum prolactin inhibits the secretion of hypothalamic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and pituitary gonadotropins.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship

EXPLANATION
Both parts of the sentence are true, with cause-effect relationship. Hypogonadism in hyperprolactinemia is the consequence of decreased gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and gonadotropin secretion due to elevated serum prolactin.

63
Q

For patients taking chronic adrenal hormone replacement therapy for Addison’s disease, the daily glucocorticoid dose has to be increased temporarily in case of an infection with high fever, because infectious diseases with fever raise the glucocorticoid demand.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship

EXPLANATION
Both parts of the sentence are true, with cause-effect relationship. Infections with fever are associated with higher glucocorticoid demand, therefore in patients with Addison’s disease the daily dose of the chronic glucocorticoid treatment has to be elevated temporarily.

64
Q

Regarding glucocorticoid efficacy, prednisolone has a weaker effect than hydrocortisone, therefore for the chronic hormone replacement therapy of primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency the drug of choice is hydrocortisone.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct

EXPLANATION
The first statement is false, the second is true. Regarding glucocorticoid efficacy, prednisolone has about four times stronger effect than hydrocortisone. The drug of choice for the chronic hormone replacement therapy of primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency is hydrocortisone, which is identical with the physiologically produced cortisol.

65
Q

Sufficient testosterone replacement for men suffering from panhypopituitarism abolishes hypogonadism and oligospermia/aspermia associated with the disease, because serum testosterone level becomes normal after the introduction of hormone replacement.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct

EXPLANATION
The first statement is false, the second is true. With testosterone products used nowadays a normal serum testosterone level can be achieved in men suffering from panhypopituitarism, however, chronic testosterone replacement worsens, rather than improves oligospermia.

66
Q

In women with untreated primary hypothyroidism, besides elevated serum TSH level, high serum prolactin level and consecutive galactorrhea-amenorrhea syndrome are also typical, because the enhanced thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) due to decreased thyroid function triggers the secretion of both TSH and prolactin.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship

EXPLANATION
Both parts of the sentence are true, with cause-effect relationship. In untreated primary hypothyroidism, hyperprolactinemia and in women galactorrhea-amenorrhea syndrome are often present. This can be explained by the stimulating effect of the enhanced thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) on prolactin secretion.

67
Q

The treatment of secondary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (idiopathic hyperaldosteronism) is not surgical (bilateral adrenalectomy), but medicinal (spironolactone, potassium-sparing diuretics), because after bilateral adrenalectomy performed because of secondary hyperaldosteronism Nelson syndrome (aggressive ACTH-producing adenoma) may evolve.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect

EXPLANATION
The first statement is true, the second is false. Medicinal treatment (spironolactone, potassium-sparing diuretics) is justified in secondary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (idiopathic hyperaldosteronism). By definition, Nelson syndrome is the aggressive ACTH-producing adenoma evolving after bilateral adrenalectomy performed because of Cushing’s disease.

68
Q

Increased ACTH secretion triggers not only cortisol production, but also adrenal androgen production, therefore in women suffering from adrenocortical carcinoma the symptoms of both Cushing’s syndrome and hyperandrogenism may evolve.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship

EXPLANATION
Both parts of the sentence are true, but there is no cause-effect relationship between them. It is correct, that increased ACTH production stimulates both cortisol and adrenal androgen synthesis. It is also true, that in patients suffering from hormonally active adrenocortical cancer Cushing’s syndrome is often associated with hyperandrogenism. However, in case of adrenocortical carcinoma with the symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome, ACTH secretion is decreased because of the negative cortisol feedback. This excludes the role of ACTH in the development of hyperandrogenism with Cushing’s syndrome.

69
Q

For patients with Addison’s disease on chronic adrenal hormone replacement therapy the daily dose of hydrocortisone pill is given in several equally divided amounts in equal time intervals throughout the day, because the aim of the treatment is to sustain a constantly stable, unchanged serum hydrocortisone (i.e. cortisol) level throughout the 24 hours of the day.

A) both are correct, with cause-effect relationship
B) both are correct, without cause-effect relationship
C) the first clause is correct, the second clause is incorrect
D) the first clause is incorrect, the second clause is correct
E) both are incorrect

A

E) both are incorrect

EXPLANATION
Both parts of the sentence are false. It is not aim of the hydrocortisone treatment of patients with Addison’s disease on chronic adrenal hormone replacement to sustain a stable, unchanged serum cortisol level throughout 24 hours. The aim of the treatment is to provide similar serum cortisol levels as the diurnal cortisol rhythm. Thus the daily hydrocortisone dose is divided into three parts, where the greatest part has to be taken after waking in the morning, the next smaller dose is taken around noon, and the third, smallest dose is in the afternoon.