Departure/En Route/Arrival

Question 1

How can your IFR clearance be obtained at a towered airport ?

Answer 1

• Towered airports can be received from ground control

or

specified clearance delivery frequency

Question 2

How can your IFR clearance be obtained in uncontrolled airports (untowered)?

Answer 2

• Pilots departing on an IFR flight plan should contact FSS, clearance delivery, and then center in that order using frequency and phone numbers

Question 3

What does “cleared as filed” mean?

Answer 3

• ATC will issue an abbreviated IFR clearance based on the route of flight as filed in IFR flight plan

Question 4

What is a clearance void time?

Answer 4

• Untowered pilot may receive a clearance void time meaning if departure isn’t in a specific time, the clearance is “void”
• If departure not made before void time, pilot must notify ATC of intentions
• ATC will notify pilot of time to notify ATC, this time cannot exceed 30 min

Question 5

What does “hold for release” instruction mean?

Answer 5

• ATC may hold departure of IFR flight plan for traffic management reasons (spacing, weather, traffic volume etc.)
• Pilot may not depart until additional instructions are given to do do

Question 6

What are takeoff minimums for part 91 operations?

Answer 6

• None

Question 7

What are takeoff minimums for operations other than part 91 operations, if takeoff minimums for particular airport is not prescribed under Part 97?

Answer 7

• a/c with 2 engines or less: 1 SM vis
• a/c with more than 2 engines 1/2 SM vis

Question 8

What is a good operating practice for departing IFR?

Answer 8

• Weather minimum should be at least above the lowest published IAP minimums (i.e. ILS minimums should be met before departure in case of emergency

Question 9

What are two types of departure procedures?

Answer 9

• SID: Always printed graphically, must receive ATC clearance prior to flying a SID, reduce pilot/controller workload
• ODP: Can be printed textually or graphically, provides obstacle clearance, can be flown without ATC clearance unless a SID or vectors has been assigned by ATC

Question 10

What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?

Answer 10

• Pilot crossing departure end of runway at 35’
• Climbing to 400’ above the departure end of runway before initial turn
• Maintaining minimum climb of 200 FPNM unless required to level off by crossing restriction

Question 11

Where can I find DPs?

Answer 11

• DPs will be listed by airport in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and ODP section
• SIDs and complicated ODPs will be published graphically and given procedure titles

Question 12

What does the “T” in the black triangles indicate?

Answer 12

• It means that airport has non-standard takeoff minimums

Question 13

If an ODP is published for a pilot using a specific runway that’s going to be used, is the pilot required to follow it?

Answer 13

• No. If a Part 91 pilot has not been given a SID or vectors, the ODP compliance is a pilots choice

Question 14

What does RNAV-1, RNP-1 NavSpecs mean on ODPs and performance-based navigation?

Answer 14

• It means procedures must maintain an error of no more than 1 NM for 95% of the route

Question 15

Explain the VCOA procedure and when a pilot would use this procedure?

Answer 15

• A departure option for an IFR aircraft to climb to published altitude where they will continue on with IFR flight plan
• Published “climb to” altitude on the ODP must be able to be done in VMC
• VCOA are published in the “Takeoff Minimums/ODP” section of the TPP

Question 16

During your departure, while flying an ODP, ATC vectors you off the the ODP route for traffic separation, is the ODP now canceled? Who is then responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance?

Answer 16

• If given vectors off the ODP route by ATC the ODP is now canceled
• ATC is now responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance
• In all cases, 200 FPNM is to be assumed regardless of what’s given

Question 17

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of the VOR equipment?

Answer 17

1. VOR Test Signal (+/-4°)
2. Radio Repair Station Test Signal (+/-4°)
3. VOR Ground Checkpoint at Departure Airport (+/-4°)
4. Dual VOR check (within 4 degrees of each other)
5. Airborne Over Prominent Landmark along centerline of established VOR airway (more than 20NM from VOR) +/-6° if no signal or point is available

Question 18

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

Answer 18

• Date
• Place
• Bearing Error
• Sign the a/c log or other reliable record

Question 19

Where can a pilot find the location of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?

Answer 19

• Location of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOTs are published in the chart supplements

Question 20

What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?

Answer 20

• Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0MHz
• With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0° with FROM indication or 180° with a TO indication

Remember Cessna 182: 180° TO for VOR accuracy using VOT

Question 21

Where is Mode C and ADSB-Out equipment required?

Answer 21

• Class A, B, C airspace
• Above the ceiling and lateral boundaries of B airspace
• Above Class C airspace up to 10,000’ MSL
• E airspace, at and above 10,000’ MSL in the lower 48, not including at and below 2,500 AGL
• ADSB-Out at and above 3,000’ MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 NM

Question 22

Define the MEA, and MOCA:

Answer 22

• MEA (Minimum En Route Alt.): The lowest published alt between radio fixes that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage and mees obstacle clearance requirements
• MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Alt): Lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance requirements. _nav signal only good within 25 SM (22 NM) of the VOR

Question 23

What’s the MCA?

Answer 23

• Minimum Crossing Altitude: Lowest alt. at certain fixes at which a/c must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA

Question 24

What is the minimum alt. for OROCA?

Answer 24

• 1,000’ buffer alt. in non-mountainous areas
• 2,000’ buffer alt. in mountainous areas (PNW is mountainous)
• AIM Figure 5-6-2 shows where mountainous and non mountainous areas are

Question 25

If there's no published MEA or MOCA, what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations?

Answer 25

91.177 1. Mountainous Area (Part 95) - 2,000' above the highest obstacle - 4NM horizontal distance from the course to be flown 2. In any other case: - 1,000' above the highest obstacle - 4NM horizontal distance from the course to be flown

Question 26

Cruising altitudes for IFR operations:

Answer 26

Based on Magnetic Course - 0° to 179° Odd Thousands - 180° to 359° Even Thousands

Question 27

What reports must be made to ATC without a request (radar & non-radar)?

Answer 27

- Missed approach: Intentions of alt. new inst. approach etc. - Airspeed: Change in average KTAS of 5% or 10 kts at cruise - Reached a holding fix you've been cleared to; report time & alt. - Vacating previously assigned altitude or flight level - ETA change when previous estimate in excess of 2 minutes (non-radar) - Leaving assigned holding or fix - Outer marker inbound or fix used in lieu of the OM (non-radar) - Unforecasted weather - Safety of flight compromised - VFR on top, when any altitude change is made - Final approach fix inbound (non-radar) - Radio malfunction: Any loss of impairment of nav/comm. receiver capability - Compulsory reporting points (non-radar) - 500 FPNM: Unable to descend/climb 500 FPM

Question 28

What info should be included in every position report?

Answer 28

- Identification - Position - Time - Altitude - Type of flight plan - ETA and name of next reporting point - Name only of the next succeeding reporting point - Pertinent remarks

Question 29

What's the difference with "maintain" and "cruise" an altitude when given to by ATC?

Answer 29

- Maintain: Self-explanatory - Cruise: Pilot may cruise from minimum IFR alt. up to cleared alt. - Once descent is made and **reported verbally** to ATC, he/she may not return to that altitude without further clearance from ATC

Question 30

What chapter of the AIM can I find reporting ports when not in radar contact?

Answer 30

AIM Chapter 5-3-3

Question 31

Can ATC issue you a cruise clearance that authorizes you to proceed and execute the approach at an airport with *no control tower*?

Answer 31

- Yes - When operating in uncontrolled airspace w/ a cruise clearance, you are responsible for maintaining minimum IFR altitudes

Question 32

Does VFR-On-Top clearance require a pilot to maintain VFR *"on top"*?

Answer 32

- No. It allows the pilot to maintain VFR above, below, in between layers, or areas where there are no meteorological conditions - **This clearance does not cancel IFR flight plan**

Question 33

What is the importance of an **EFC** time?

Answer 33

- It allows the pilot to leave the hold in the event of loss of comms - Plan the last lap to end at the fix as close as possible to EFC time

Question 34

When does the timing of the outbound leg of a hold begin? (AIM 5-3-8)

Answer 34

- When over/abeam the fix

Question 35

What are the differences with DME and GPS distances from a NAVAID?

Answer 35

- DME measures in slant range **vs.** - GPS are direct from point to point no matter how high or low you are on the ground

Question 36

What's the formula for converting FPNM to FPM?

Answer 36

- (GS/60) x FPNM