Derm General Flashcards
(93 cards)
1
Q
What is the bacteria involved in acne?
A
Propionibacterium acnes
2
Q
What are open comodones?
A
blackheads
3
Q
What are closed comodones?
A
whiteheads
4
Q
What is the most mild form of acne?
A
comodonal
5
Q
What is the worst type of acne?
A
nosulocystic
6
Q
What are the 3 phases of the hair growth cycle?
A
anagen-growth
catagen-transitional
telogen-resting
7
Q
How many hairs are normally lost in a day?
A
100
8
Q
What is alopecia totalis?
A
complete loss of scalp hair
9
Q
What is alopecia universalis?
A
loss of scalp and body hair
10
Q
What does pityriasis mean?
A
small scaley patch
11
Q
MRSA RF
A
Penetrating Trauma IVDA Abscess/Purulent Drainage History of MRSA Proximity to Others with MRSA Antibiotic Use Hospitalization
12
Q
Describe the epidermis
A
outermost layer; water barrier, mechanical and UV protection, and immune surveillance
13
Q
Describe the dermis
A
middle layer; provides mechanical protection and immune function.
- Papillary dermis
- Reticular dermis
- Adnexal structures
14
Q
Describe the subcutis (hypodermis)
A
bottom layer; mechanical protection
15
Q
What is the MC site of tumors?
A
skin
16
Q
Define macule
A
flat, smaller than 2 cm (e.g., freckle)
17
Q
Define patch
A
similar to macule but larger (e.g.,
childhood rash caused by measles)
18
Q
Define papule
A
slightly elevated, smaller than 1 cm
e.g., eczema caused by allergy
19
Q
Define nodule
A
similar to papule but greater than 1
cm (e.g., nevus)
20
Q
Define tumor
A
nodule greater than 5 cm (e.g.,
melanoma)
21
Q
Define vesicle
A
fluid-filled elevation of epidermis, smaller than 1 cm (e.g., herpesvirus lesion on the lip)
22
Q
Define bulla
A
vesicle measuring more than 1 cm (e.g., burns)
23
Q
Define pustule
A
vesicle filled with pus (e.g., impetigo)
24
Q
Define ulcer
A
defect of epidermis (e.g., syphilitic chancre)
25
Define crust
skin defect covered with coagulated plasma (“scab”; e.g., healing wound)
26
Define scales
keratin layers covering skin as flakes or sheets; can be scraped away (e.g., seborrheic keratosis, psoriasis)
27
Define squames
large scales (e.g., as in ichthyosis)
28
Define excoriation
superficial skin defect caused by
| scratching
29
Define fissure
sharp-edged defect extending
| deeper into dermis (e.g., athlete’s foot)
30
Define Hyperkeratosis
Thickening of stratum corneum by abnormal keratin
31
Define Parakeratosis
Retention of nuclei in stratum corneum. Normal in mucous membranes
32
Define Hypergranulosis
Hyperplasia of stratum granulosum, usually caused by intense rubbing
33
Define acanthosis
Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia
34
Define papillomatosis
Hyperplasia and enlargement of contiguous dermal papillae
| leading to surface elevation
35
Define dyskeratosis
abnormal keratinization occurring prematurely in cells below stratum granulosum
36
Define acantholysis
Loss of intercellular connections causing loss of cohesion between keratinocytes
37
Define spongiosis
Epidermal intercellular edema
38
Define orthokeratosis
thickened keratin without nucleus
39
Define first degree burn
Erythema, swelling; transitory, reversible
40
Define second degree burn
Blisters involving epidermis; hair follicles, adnexa
| in dermis spared
41
Define third degree burn
Full-thickness burns; massive necrosis of
| epidermis and parts of dermis, subcutis; cannot heal spontaneously
42
Define acne vulgaris
Infiltration and destruction of follicular epithelium by neutrophilic exudate
43
Define freckle
flat macule; responds to sunlight
44
Define lentigo
macule or papule; pigmented but
| does not respond to sun
45
Define nevus
congenital or acquired
pigmentation in form of macule or papule or
even nodule
46
What is Breslow's method?
measure from the granular layer of the epidermis to the deepest part oft he tumor
47
what is the most important prognostic factor of survival in MM?
tumor thickness
1mm low risk
>1mm higher risk
48
Define onychogryphosis
hypertrophic nail , related to trauma
49
Define koilonychia
thin and spoon nail, seen in iron deficiency anemia
50
Define onochomycosis
thicken, discolor, disfigure, and split nail, related to fungal infection.
51
Define paronychia
soft tissue infection, pus formation around a fingernail
52
How many eggs does an adult female head louse lay per day?
7-10/day
| can lay 300 in a lifetime
53
Describe immediate drug induced skin reaction
occur less than 1 hour of the last administered dose.
Type I hypersensitivities: Urticaria (within 1 hr), angioedema (leaky blood vessels), anaphylaxis
54
Describe delayed drug induced skin reaction
IgE mast cell mediated occurring after one hour, but usually more than 6 hrs and occasionally weeks to months after the start of administration
55
What are examples of delayed drug induced skin reactions
Exanthematous eruptions
Fixed drug eruption
Systemic reactions (DIHS, SJS, TEN)
56
What drugs cause mast cell activation?
vancomycin
| narcotics
57
What is the exception to the limited value of allergy testing for cutaneous reactions?
penicillin-want to skin test to evaluate type I, IgE mediated penicillin allergy
58
What is the most important data in determining if a rash is medication-related?
timing
59
Fitzpatrick I
White; very fair; red or blonde hair; blue eyes; freckles
| Always burns, never tans
60
Fitzpatrick II
White; fair; red or blonde hair; blue, hazel, or green eyes
| Usually burns, tans with difficulty
61
Fitzpatrick III
Cream white; fair with any eye or hair color; very common
| Sometimes mild burn, gradually tans
62
Fitzpatrick IV
Brown; typically Mediterranean skin
| Rarely burns, tans with ease
63
Fitzpatrick V
Dark brown; Middle-Eastern skin types
| Very rarely burns, tans very easily
64
Fitzpatrick VI
Black
| Never burns, tans very easily
65
How does narrow band UVB work?
focused wavelengths of 311-312 destroy immune cells that are attacking melanocytes
stimulates cytokine/GF release
66
How does PUVA work?
plant based chemical makes susceptible to UV radiation and uses UVA (less effective than UVB)
67
Etiology of folliculitis
Staph aureus
Gram ⊖
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (hot tub folliculitis)
Klebsiella, enterobacrer, Proteus
68
Etiology of paryonchia
S. aureus
69
Etiology of Impetigo
Staphlococcus aureus
| Group A β-hemolytic Strep
70
Etiology of erysipleas
GAS
| Staph aureus, Haemophilus
71
Cellulitis general etiology
Adults & Children-GAS, Staph aureus, MRSA
72
Facial & periorbital
H. influenzae
73
cellulitis etiology 2° dog & cat bites
Pasturella multocida
74
cellulitis etiology IVDA
S. aureus
75
Crepiant cellulitis etiology
Clostridia
76
Penetrating trauma, immunicomp cellulitis etiology
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
77
Phthirus pubis
crab lice
78
Pediculus humanus capitis
Head Lice
79
Pediculus humanus corporiss
body lice
80
Sarcoptes scabiei
Scabies
81
Cimex lectulrius
Bed bugs
82
Lo xosceles reclusa
Brown Recluse Spider
83
MC etiology of Tinea corporis?
T. rubrum
84
What should you tell a pateint with rosacea to avoid?
Spicy food, alcohol, extreme temperatures, caffeine
85
Etiology of Tinea versicolor
Malassezia yeast
86
What is the MC cutaneous drug eruption?
Exanthematous
87
What is ⊕Nikolsky's sign
epidermis sheds off with lateral pressure
88
What drugs can cause SJS/TENS?
```
Sulfa abx (Bactrim)
Allopurinol
Tetracyclines
Anticonvulsants (carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenobarbital, phenytoin)
NSAIDS
Nevirapine
Thiacetazone
```
89
What drugs can cause fixed drug eruption?
```
Phenolpphthalen
Tetracyclines
Metronidazole
Sulfonamides
Barbiturates
NSAIDs
Salicyates
Yellow food coloring
```
90
Etiology of necrotizing fascitis
Clostridium
91
Etiology of Fournier Gangrene
E.coli
| Bacteroides
92
Etiology of purpura fulminans
Neisseria menigitis
93
If there are >6 cafè au lait spots what do you need to do?
special considerations → check for tuberous sclerosis, neurofibramatosis, albright syndrome, fanconi anemia **
