Developmental disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What happens during fertilisation?

A
  • The sperm meets the ovum usually in the ampulla 12-24 hours after ovulation
  • The sperm penetrates the corona radiate and zona pellucida and they fuse
  • The acrosome reaction makes the ovum impermeable to other sperm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens at day 2-3 of development?

A
  • Cleavage occurs
  • First mitotic division is about 30 hours after fertilisation

By day 3, there is a 16 cell embryo. Each cells is called a blastomere and the solid sphere is known as a morula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens at say 4-5 of development?

A

The morula develops a cavity and becomes known as a blastocyst. The outer layer of cells of the blastocyst becomes the trophoblast

The blastocyst reaches the uterine lumen and becomes ready for implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens at day 6-7 of development?

A
  • A bilaminar disc forms as the embryo implants

- The inner cell mass differentiates into the epiblast and hypoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What forms from the hypoblast?

A

The extraembryonic membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What forms from the epiblast?

A

The embryo and amniotic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens at day 6-8 of development?

A

The exocoelomic membrane forms from the hypoblast and creates the yolk sac which contains nutrients that supply the embryo before the placenta functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens at 3 weeks+ of development?

A

Gastrulation
- The epiblast becomes the ectoderm, hypoblast becomes the endoderm, and the mesoderm forms

The hypoblast degenerates and the epiblast gives rise to all the 3 layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens at week 4+ of development?

A

The flat disc folds in 2 directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do dermomyotomes form?

A

Connective tissue and skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do Sclerotomes form?

A

Bone and cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do dermomyotomes and sclerotomes form?

A

Somites are paired blocks of tissue that differentiate from the paraxial mesoderm. The somites will undergo further differentiation to form dermomyotomes and sclerotomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a LTRA?

A

A leukotriene receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the effects of a filaggrin gene defect?

A

About 15% of children in the UK have it.

It causes eczema, allergic rhinitis, and food allergies because the defect causes hypersensitivity of the skin barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are single birth defects?

A

The most common group of defects with multifactorial causation and a low recurrence risk
Eg. Cleft palate, cardiac defects, and congenital hip dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between a syndrome and an association?

A

Syndrome: present in a consistent pattern with common cause and recurrence rate Eg. Chromosomal abnormalities

Association: Two or more congenital anomalies occur together more often than expected but with no well-defined aetiology

17
Q

What is a sequence in developmet?

A

Multiple anomalies related to a single primary anomaly or mechanical factor
Eg. Amniotic band syndrome, Potter’s syndrome

18
Q

What is amniotic band sequence?

A

When the inner layer (amnion) of the amniotic sac ruptures or tears, exposing the foetus to strands of fibrous tissue that may float freely in the amniotic fluid or remain partially attached to the amniotic sac

If it wraps around limbs, is can cause growth restriction or malformations

19
Q

What is Potter’s sequence?

A

It describes the typical physical appearance caused by pressure in utero due to oligohydramnios

It can occur in conditions such as infantile polycystic kidney disease, renal hypoplasia, and obstructive uropathy

20
Q

What is the definition of a teratogen?

A

Environmental agents with potential to induce a structural anomaly in the developing foetus

21
Q

What are the consequences of a congenital infection (TORCH)?

A
Growth restriction
Cataracts
Hearing impairment
Microcephaly
Learning difficulties

Rubella used to be the most common cause before vaccines. Now it’s CMV

22
Q

What is foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Caused when the mother drinks alcohol during pregnancy

Causes a smooth filtrum, thin upper lip, short palpebral fissures, growth restriction, learning difficulties

23
Q

Which conditions are more common if the mother has diabetes?

A

Cardiac and neural tube defects

24
Q

What is imprinting in genetics?

A

The ability of a gene to be expressed depends upon the sex of the parent who passed on the gene

25
Q

What are some dysmorphic features of down syndrome?

A

Flat nasal bridge, epicanthic folds, protruding tongue, clinodactyly, single palmar crease, sandal-toe gap

26
Q

What are some clinical feature of Turner syndrome?

A
Short stature
Wide carrying angle
Neck webbing
Widely-spaced nipple
Streak ovaries/ ovarian failure
Learning difficulties
Cardiac anomalies
27
Q

What is neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

Causes tumours to grow along nerves

Clinical features: Cafe-au-lait spots, neurofibromas, freckling, Lisch nodules, optic gliomas, learning difficulties, pheochromocytomas

28
Q

What is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

A

Most common X-linked disorder affecting the DMD gene coding for dystrophin

Causes delayed motor milestones, progressive proximal muscle weakness, hypertrophy of calf muscles

29
Q

What is fragile X syndrome?

A

Affects mostly Males and is caused by a trinucleotide repeat disorder

It causes a broad forehead, elongated face, large prominent ears, pectus excavatum, mitral valve prolapse, hypotonia, flat feet, seizures

30
Q

What is Prader-Willi/Angleman’s syndrome?

A

Caused by de novo deletions on chromosome 15 and in a phenomenon of imprinting

PWS: caused when there is a deletion of paternally inherited copy. It causes problems with eating habits

Angleman’s: deletion of the maternally inherited copy. Causes learning difficulties