Developmental Psych Flashcards

(486 cards)

1
Q

Question and Choices

A

Answer and Rationale

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the study of changes in human
    behavior and mental processes across the lifespan?
    a. Cognitive psychology
    b. Developmental psychology
    c. Social psychology
    d. Clinical psychology
A

Correct answer: “b. Developmental psychology”
Developmental psychology focuses on the changes in human
behavior, emotions, and cognition that occur from infancy through
old age.

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3
Q
  1. The process of learning acceptable behaviors, beliefs, and
    values of one’s culture is known as:
    a. Maturation
    b. Socialization
    c. Assimilation
    d. Adaptation
A

Correct answer: “b. Socialization”
Socialization is the process through which individuals acquire the
knowledge, values, and behaviors that are considered appropriate
and acceptable within their specific cultural context.

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4
Q
  1. The debate between nature and nurture in developmental
    psychology centers around:
    a. The impact of genes versus environmental factors on
    development
    b. The role of cognitive processes in development
    c. The influence of peer interactions on development
    d. The effects of parenting styles on development
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
The nature versus nurture debate examines the extent to which
genetic factors (nature) and environmental factors (nurture)
contribute to an individual’s development and traits.

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5
Q
  1. The capacity for change and growth throughout the lifespan is
    known as:
    a. Maturation
    b. Development
    c. Adaptation
    d. Assimilation
A

Correct answer: “b. Development”
Development refers to the capacity for change and growth in
physical, cognitive, and socioemotional domains throughout an
individual’s lifespan.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a critical period in
    human development?
    a. Puberty
    b. Adolescence
    c. Early childhood
    d. Middle adulthood
A

Correct answer: “c. Early childhood”
A critical period refers to a specific time frame during development
when certain experiences must occur for normal development to
take place. Early childhood is a critical period for language
acquisition and certain cognitive and social skills.

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7
Q
  1. The study of how genetic factors interact with environmental
    factors to influence development is known as:
    a. Epigenetics
    b. Genetics
    c. Behaviorism
    d. Cognitive psychology
A

Correct answer: “a. Epigenetics”
Epigenetics is the study of how genetic factors interact with
environmental factors, such as nutrition, stress, and exposure to
toxins, to influence gene expression and shape development.

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a continuous
    development process?
    a. Puberty
    b. Learning to walk
    c. The onset of menopause
    d. The acquisition of language
A

Correct answer: “b. Learning to walk”
Continuous development refers to gradual and cumulative
changes that occur over time. Learning to walk involves a
continuous process of developing and refining motor skills.

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9
Q
  1. The belief that both nature (genes) and nurture (environment)
    interact and influence human development is known as:
    a. Nature dominance
    b. Nurture dominance
    c. Interactionist perspective
    d. Developmental equilibrium
A

Correct answer: “c. Interactionist perspective”
The interactionist perspective emphasizes that both nature
(genes) and nurture (environment) interact and contribute to
human development, recognizing the complex interplay between
genetic and environmental factors.

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10
Q
  1. The ability of a developing organism to compensate for early
    damage or deprivation and adapt to environmental changes is
    referred to as:
    a. Plasticity
    b. Stability
    c. Resilience
    d. Vulnerability
A

Correct answer: “a. Plasticity”
Plasticity refers to the capacity of a developing organism, such as
the human brain, to change and adapt in response to experiences
and environmental influences.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a normative age-
    graded influence on development?
    a. Divorce
    b. Cultural norms
    c. Personal illness
    d. Puberty
A

Correct answer: “d. Puberty”
Normative age-graded influences are experiences that are typical
and predictable based on an individual’s age. Puberty is a
normative age-graded influence as it involves the physical and
hormonal changes that occur during adolescence.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is the basic unit of heredity?
    a. Chromosome
    b. Genotype
    c. Phenotype
    d. Gene
A

Correct answer: “d. Gene”
A gene is the basic unit of heredity, carrying the instructions for
specific traits.

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13
Q
  1. What is the term used to describe the genetic makeup of an
    individual?
    a. Phenotype
    b. Allele
    c. Genotype
    d. Chromosome
A

Correct answer: “c. Genotype”
Genotype refers to the specific combination of genes an individual
possesses.

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14
Q
  1. Julia, a college student, travels to a foreign country and
    expresses a belief that her own culture is superior to the local
    culture. This perspective is an example of:
    a. Cultural relativism
    b. Multiculturalism
    c. Ethnocentrism
    d. Cultural assimilation
A

Correct answer: “c. Ethnocentrism”
Julia’s belief that her own culture is superior to the local culture
reflects an ethnocentric perspective. Ethnocentrism involves
evaluating and judging other cultures based on the standards and
values of one’s own culture, often resulting in a biased or
prejudiced view of other cultures.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following factors influences gene expression?
    a. Environment
    b. Chromosomes
    c. Alleles
    d. Genes
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
Gene expression can be influenced by environmental factors, such
as nutrition, exposure to toxins, and social interactions.
15. Sarah, a social worker, believes that every culture should be
appreciated and respected for its unique contributions and
perspectives. This attitude reflects:

Cultural relativism

Multiculturalism

Ethnocentrism

Cultural assimilation
Feedback
Sarah’s belief that every culture should be appreciated and
respected for its unique contributions and perspectives aligns with
a multicultural perspective. Multiculturalism emphasizes the value
of diversity and promotes the understanding and acceptance of
different cultures, avoiding ethnocentric biases.

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16
Q
  1. Which type of twins share approximately 50% of their genes?
    I. Identical Twins
    II. Monozygotic Twins
    III. Dizygotic Twins
    IV. Fraternal Twins
    a. I and II
    b. I and III
    c. III and IV
    d. II and III
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
Dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, develop from
separate eggs fertilized by different sperm. They share about 50%
of their genes, like any non-twin siblings.

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17
Q
  1. What is the purpose of twin studies in genetics research?
    a. To compare the traits of twins with non-twin individuals.
    b. To determine the exact contribution of genes and
    environment to traits.
    c. To identify specific genes responsible for certain traits.
    d. To study the effects of genetic mutations in twins.
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
Twin studies help researchers estimate the relative influence of
genes and environmental factors by comparing the similarities
between identical twins and fraternal twins.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a dominant genetic
    disorder?
    a. Huntington’s disease
    b. Cystic fibrosis
    c. Hemophilia
    d. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
A

Correct answer: “a. Huntington’s disease”
Huntington’s disease is an example of a dominant genetic
disorder, where a single copy of the mutated gene from either
parent is sufficient to cause the disorder.

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19
Q
  1. Anna and David have been together for several years. They
    have a deep emotional connection and trust each other, but their
    relationship lacks passion and sexual attraction. According to
    Sternberg’s Triangular Theory of Love, their love is characterized
    as:
    a. Companionate love
    b. Romantic love
    c. Consummate love
    d. Empty love
A

Correct answer: “a. Companionate love”
In Sternberg’s Triangular Theory of Love, companionate love is
characterized by intimacy and commitment but lacks passion.
Anna and David have a deep emotional bond and trust,
representing the intimacy and commitment components of love,
but their relationship lacks the passionate and sexual elements.

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20
Q
  1. Sarah and Michael have a passionate and intense
    relationship, but they frequently argue and have difficulty
    maintaining a long-term commitment. According to Sternberg’s
    Triangular Theory of Love, their love is characterized as:
    a. Companionate love
    b. Romantic love
    c. Consummate love
    d. Fatuous love
A

Correct answer: “b. Romantic love”
In Sternberg’s Triangular Theory of Love, romantic love is
characterized by passion and intimacy but lacks commitment.
Sarah and Michael have a passionate and intense relationship,
indicating the presence of passion, but their difficulties in
maintaining commitment suggest a lack of long-term commitment.

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21
Q
  1. The life-span perspective in psychology emphasizes:
    a. The importance of early childhood experiences.
    b. Development that occurs only during adolescence.
    c. Continuity and change across the entire life span.
    d. The influence of genetic factors on development.
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
The life-span perspective recognizes that development is a lifelong
process involving both continuity (consistency in patterns and
traits) and change (growth, learning, and adaptation) from birth
until death.

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22
Q
  1. According to the life-span perspective, development is
    influenced by:
    a. Genetic factors only.
    b. Environmental factors only.
    c. Interaction between genetic and environmental factors.
    d. Biological factors only.
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
The life-span perspective acknowledges that development is
shaped by the interaction between genetic factors (nature) and
environmental factors (nurture), rather than being solely
determined by one or the other.

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is a key assumption of the life-span
    perspective?
    a. Development occurs in distinct stages.
    b. Development is complete by early adulthood.
    c. Development is influenced by cultural and historical
    contexts.
    d. Development is primarily driven by biological factors.
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
The life-span perspective recognizes that development is
influenced by cultural norms, historical events, and societal
changes that vary across time and place. It emphasizes the
importance
of
considering
these
contextual
factors
in
understanding human development.

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24
Q
  1. The life-span perspective considers development in multiple
    domains, including:
    a. Physical, emotional, and cognitive.
    b. Biological, social, and cultural.
    c. Motor, sensory, and intellectual.
    d. Behavioral, psychological, and genetic.
    Feedback
    The life-span perspective acknowledges that development occurs
    in various domains, including physical (e.g., changes in the body
    and motor skills), emotional (e.g., changes in emotions and
    relationships), and cognitive (e.g., changes in thinking, memory,
    and problem-solving abilities).
  2. The life-span perspective recognizes that development is:

    Linear and unidirectional.

    Irreversible and fixed.

    Multidimensional and multidirectional.

    Predictable and predetermined.
A

Correct answer: “Unknown”
The life-span perspective emphasizes that development is
multidimensional, involving various aspects of an individual’s life,
and multidirectional, with growth occurring in some areas while
decline happens in others. It rejects the notion of development
being solely linear or unidirectional.

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26. Which of the following best characterizes the life-span perspective's view of aging? a. Aging is solely a decline in physical and cognitive abilities. b. Aging is a universal experience across cultures. c. Aging involves gains and losses in multiple domains. d. Aging is primarily determined by genetic factors.
Correct answer: "Unknown" The life-span perspective acknowledges that aging is a complex process that involves both positive aspects (gains) such as wisdom and emotional well-being, as well as negative aspects (losses) such as physical decline and memory difficulties. It recognizes that the experience of aging varies across individuals and cultures.
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27. According to the life-span perspective, development is influenced by both: a. Biology and socioeconomic status. b. Early childhood experiences and genetic factors. c. Nature and nurture. d. Cultural norms and cognitive abilities.
Correct answer: "Unknown" The life-span perspective emphasizes the importance of both genetic factors (nature) and environmental influences (nurture) in shaping human development. It recognizes that these factors interact and contribute to an individual's growth and outcomes.
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28. The life-span perspective considers development: a. As a series of predictable and predetermined stages. b. As primarily driven by biological maturation. c. As influenced by historical and social changes. d. As a process that occurs exclusively in childhood.
Correct answer: "Unknown" The life-span perspective recognizes that development occurs in a dynamic context influenced by historical, social, and cultural changes. It moves beyond the notion that development is limited to childhood and acknowledges its ongoing nature throughout the entire life span.
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29. Which of the following is an example of a life event that can impact development according to the life-span perspective? a. Physical growth spurts during adolescence. b. Transition from high school to college. c. Genetic factors inherited from parents. d. Stable personality traits from childhood.
Correct answer: "Unknown" According to the life-span perspective, life events such as transitions, milestones, and societal changes can significantly impact an individual's development. The transition from high school to college represents a significant life event that can influence various aspects of development, including identity formation, social relationships, and academic achievement.
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30. The life-span perspective acknowledges that development is influenced by both: a. Genetics and socioeconomic status. b. Prenatal factors and childhood experiences. c. Nature and nurture. d. Cognitive abilities and personality traits.
Correct answer: "Unknown" The life-span perspective emphasizes that development is influenced by both genetic factors (nature) and environmental influences (nurture). It recognizes the complex interaction between these factors in shaping human development and behavior.
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31. According to the Mechanistic Model, development is primarily driven by: a. Genetic factors b. External stimuli and reinforcement c. Internal growth and maturation d. Cultural norms and expectations
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Mechanistic Model views development as a result of external environmental influences, such as rewards, punishments, and social reinforcement, which shape behavior and learning.
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32. The Organismic Model emphasizes that development occurs through: a. Passive responses to environmental stimuli b. Social interactions and cultural norms c. Active exploration and self-regulation d. Genetic programming and predetermined stages
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Organismic Model proposes that development is driven by the active engagement of the individual with their environment. It emphasizes the role of an individual's internal drive, curiosity, and ability to regulate their own behavior and learning.
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33. The Mechanistic Model views development as: a. Continuous and gradual b. Discontinuous and stage-based c. Influenced by cultural norms and values d. Determined by genetic factors
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Mechanistic Model sees development as a continuous process, with changes occurring incrementally over time. It rejects the notion of distinct stages and emphasizes the importance of environmental influences.
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34. The Organismic Model proposes that development follows: a. Linear and predictable patterns b. Preprogrammed and fixed stages c. Complex and interconnected pathways d. Cultural and socially determined trajectories
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Organismic Model suggests that development follows dynamic and complex pathways, influenced by interactions between the individual and their environment. It recognizes that development is influenced by multiple factors and is not strictly predetermined or fixed.
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35. Normative influences refer to: a. Genetic factors that shape development b. Cultural and societal expectations c. Individual differences and unique characteristics d. Changes that occur during critical periods
Correct answer: "Unknown" Normative influences are societal or cultural expectations and norms that shape an individual's behavior, values, and development. They reflect the social standards and expectations within a particular context.
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36. The Mechanistic Model is closely aligned with which theoretical approach? a. Social learning theory b. Evolutionary psychology c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Ecological systems theory
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Mechanistic Model aligns with social learning theory, which emphasizes the importance of external environmental influences, reinforcement, and observational learning in shaping behavior and development.
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37. The Organismic Model highlights the role of: a. Cognitive processes and problem-solving b. Genetic determinism and inherited traits c. Social interactions and cultural norms d. Psychosexual stages and unconscious conflicts
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Organismic Model emphasizes the active role of an individual's cognitive processes, such as perception, memory, problem-solving, and reasoning, in driving their development and adaptation to the environment.
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38. Normative influences are primarily concerned with: a. Individual differences and unique characteristics b. Developmental changes during critical periods c. Cultural and societal expectations d. Genetic factors and inherited traits
Correct answer: "Unknown" Normative influences focus on the cultural and societal expectations that shape an individual's behavior, values, and development. They represent the shared norms, values, and standards within a specific cultural or social group.
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39. The Mechanistic Model is often associated with which approach to psychology? a. Behaviorism b. Humanistic psychology c. Cognitive psychology d. Psychodynamic theory
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Mechanistic Model aligns with the behaviorist approach to psychology, which emphasizes the role of environmental influences, conditioning, and reinforcement in shaping behavior and development. 40. Normative influences can be categorized as: • Universal or individual • Developmental or contextual • Biological or environmental • Prescriptive or proscriptive Feedback Normative influences can be categorized as developmental, referring to changes that occur during specific periods of development, or contextual, referring to the influence of cultural, societal, and environmental factors on an individual's development and behavior.
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41. The American Psychological Association (AP provides guidelines for ethical conduct in: a. Research and practice b. Counseling and therapy c. Teaching and supervision d. All of the above
Correct answer: "Unknown" The APA provides guidelines for ethical conduct in all areas of psychology, including research, practice, counseling, therapy, teaching, and supervision. These guidelines ensure that psychologists uphold the highest standards of professionalism and ethical behavior.
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42. Informed consent is an ethical principle that emphasizes the importance of: a. Protecting participants' privacy b. Providing accurate and unbiased information c. Maintaining confidentiality of client information d. Respecting participants' autonomy and voluntary participation
Correct answer: "Unknown" Informed consent requires that participants in research or clients in therapy have a clear understanding of the purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits involved. It emphasizes their right to make an informed decision about whether to participate.
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43. The APA encourages psychologists to maintain confidentiality, except when: a. There is a legal obligation to disclose information b. It is necessary to protect the welfare of the psychologist c. Disclosure is necessary to advance scientific knowledge d. All of the above
Correct answer: "Unknown" While psychologists are generally expected to maintain confidentiality, there are situations where they may be legally or ethically obligated to disclose information. These include situations where there is a duty to warn or protect others from harm, when required by law, or when necessary to advance scientific knowledge with appropriate safeguards.
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44. The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) promotes: a. Research and scholarship in psychology. b. Collaboration with international psychology organizations. c. Accessible mental healthcare for all individuals. d. All of the above.
Correct answer: "Unknown" The PAP promotes research and scholarship in psychology, collaboration with international psychology organizations to foster knowledge exchange and professional growth, and advocates for accessible mental healthcare for all individuals in the Philippines.
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45. The PAP emphasizes the importance of: a. Ethical principles in psychological research and practice. b. Biomedical approaches to psychological interventions. c. Exclusive focus on individual psychological disorders. d. Rigid adherence to specific theoretical orientations.
Correct answer: "Unknown" The PAP places a strong emphasis on ethical principles in conducting research and providing psychological services. It promotes the highest standards of ethical conduct to ensure the well-being and protection of individuals participating in research or seeking psychological help.
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46. The PAP promotes the development of: a. Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice. b. Exclusion of psychological research from policy-making. c. Limited involvement in community outreach. d. Biomedical models as the sole approach to psychology. Correct answer Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice.
Correct answer: "Unknown" The PAP promotes the development of cultural competence and sensitivity among psychologists. This includes understanding and respecting diverse cultural backgrounds, values, and beliefs of clients to provide effective and appropriate psychological services that are sensitive to cultural differences and needs.
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47. The American Psychological Association (AP was founded in: a. 1892 b. 1901 c. 1917 d. 1955
Correct answer: "a. 1892" The American Psychological Association (AP was founded in 1892 by a small group of psychologists and has since grown to become the largest professional organization for psychologists in the United States. It was initially established to advance psychology as a science and profession.
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48. The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) was established in: a. 1939 b. 1957 c. 1962 d. 1971
Correct answer: "a. 1939" The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) was established in 1939 as a professional organization for psychologists in the Philippines. It was formed with the aim of promoting the development of psychology as a discipline and profession in the country.
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49. The first president of the APA was: a. G. Stanley Hall b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. B. F. Skinner
Correct answer: "Unknown" G. Stanley Hall served as the first president of the American Psychological Association (AP from 1892 to 1893. He was a prominent psychologist and played a significant role in establishing psychology as a distinct scientific discipline in the United States.
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50. The first president of the PAP was: Lourdes Ignacio Virgilio Enriquez Natividad Dayan Virginia C. Caintic Feedback Virgilio Enriquez served as the first president of the Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) from 1958 to 1963. He was a pioneer in the field of Filipino psychology and played a significant role in promoting the indigenous psychologies of the Philippines. 51. The APA played a key role in the development of which psychological testing standard? a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale b. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory d. Rorschach Inkblot Test
Correct answer: "Unknown" The APA played a significant role in the development and standardization of the MMPI, which is one of the most widely used psychological tests for assessing personality traits and psychopathology.
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52. The PAP has been actively involved in promoting the development of: a. Indigenous psychologies b. Behavior therapy techniques c. Neuropsychological assessments d. Psychoanalytic theories
Correct answer: "a. Indigenous psychologies" The PAP has been actively involved in promoting the development and recognition of indigenous psychologies in the Philippines. It aims to integrate traditional Filipino knowledge, values, and practices with Western psychology to create a culturally sensitive and relevant approach to psychological research and practice.
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53. The APA played a crucial role in the establishment of which major ethics code? a. Belmont Report b. Nuremberg Code c. Helsinki Declaration d. APA Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct
Correct answer: "Unknown" The APA played a crucial role in the establishment and ongoing revision of its own ethics code, which is known as the Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct. This code provides guidelines for ethical behavior in research, teaching, and practice for psychologists in the United States.
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54. The PAP has been actively involved in advocating for the improvement of: a. Mental healthcare policies and services b. Educational assessment practices c. Criminal justice system reforms d. Industrial-organizational psychology practices
Correct answer: "a. Mental healthcare policies and services" The PAP has been actively involved in advocating for the improvement of mental healthcare policies and services in the Philippines. It works to promote access to quality mental healthcare, raise awareness about mental health issues, and advocate for the rights and well-being of individuals with mental health concerns.
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55. Which research design examines changes and differences between age groups at a single point in time? a. Cross-sectional design b. Longitudinal design c. Sequential design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "Unknown" Cross-sectional designs involve collecting data from different age groups at a single point in time. Researchers can compare different age groups to examine developmental changes or differences in variables.
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56. Which research design follows the same participants over an extended period of time? a. Cross-sectional design b. Experimental design c. Longitudinal design d. Quasi-experimental design Correct answer Longitudinal design
Correct answer: "Unknown" Longitudinal designs involve following the same participants over an extended period of time. Researchers collect data at multiple time points, allowing them to examine individual trajectories of development and changes over time.
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57. Which research design combines elements of both cross- sectional and longitudinal designs? a. Cross-sequential design b. Sequential design c. Experimental design d. Correlational design
Correct answer: "Unknown" Sequential designs involve collecting data from different age groups at multiple time points. This design allows researchers to examine both cross-sectional and longitudinal effects and provides a more comprehensive understanding of development.
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58. Which research design is best suited for studying the effects of a specific intervention or treatment on development? a. Cross-sectional design b. Longitudinal design c. Experimental design d. Quasi-experimental design
Correct answer: "Unknown" Experimental designs involve manipulating an independent variable to observe its effects on a dependent variable. Researchers can use this design to study the effects of specific interventions or treatments on developmental outcomes.
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59. Which research design is used when random assignment to groups is not possible? a. Cross-sectional design b. Quasi-experimental design c. Longitudinal design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "Unknown" Quasi-experimental designs are used when random assignment to groups is not possible or practical. Researchers still manipulate an independent variable but do not have full control over the assignment of participants to groups.
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60. Which research design combines different age groups, multiple time points, and experimental manipulation? a. Sequential design b. Cross-sectional design c. Longitudinal design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "Unknown" Sequential designs involve combining different age groups, multiple time points, and experimental manipulation. This design allows researchers to examine both age-related and cohort-related effects on development while also manipulating variables of interest.
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61. According to Sigmund Freud's Psychosexual Theory, which stage is associated with the focus on developing sexual and romantic relationships? a. Oral stage b. Anal stage c. Phallic stage d. Latency stage
Correct answer: "c. Phallic stage" In Freud's Psychosexual Theory, the phallic stage occurs during the preschool years (around 3 to 6 years ol. During this stage, children develop curiosity about their bodies and become aware of gender differences. The Oedipus and Electra complexes are significant conflicts during this stage, related to the child's developing sexual and romantic feelings.
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62. Olivia is a 65-year-old retiree who spends her time reflecting on her life and feeling a sense of fulfillment and satisfaction. She enjoys sharing her wisdom with younger generations and finds purpose in mentoring others. Olivia is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Identity vs. Role Confusion c. Ego Integrity vs. Despair d. Generativity vs. Stagnation
Correct answer: "Unknown" Olivia's reflection on her life, feeling of fulfillment, and sharing wisdom with younger generations indicate that she is in the stage of Ego Integrity vs. Despair. This stage occurs during late adulthood, and individuals strive to develop a sense of integrity and satisfaction with their life choices.
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63. Daniel, a 16-year-old high school student, is exploring various interests, values, and potential career paths. He is actively seeking to understand his own identity and experimenting with different roles and relationships. Daniel is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt c. Identity vs. Role Confusion d. Intimacy vs. Isolation
Correct answer: "Unknown" Daniel's active exploration of interests, values, and potential career paths, as well as his search for identity, indicate that he is in the stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion. This stage occurs during adolescence, and individuals strive to establish a sense of identity and a coherent understanding of themselves.
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64. Maya, a 9-year-old, is eagerly participating in extracurricular activities, taking pride in her accomplishments, and developing a sense of competence. She is motivated to learn new skills and receives praise for her efforts. Maya is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Initiative vs. Guilt b. Industry vs. Inferiority c. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt d. Integrity vs. Despair
Correct answer: "Unknown" Maya's participation in extracurricular activities, pride in her accomplishments, and motivation to learn new skills indicate that she is in the stage of Industry vs. Inferiority. This stage occurs during middle childhood, and individuals strive to develop a sense of competence and industry.
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65. Ethan, a 4-year-old, enjoys playing with blocks and building various structures. He is able to mentally represent objects and actions, such as imagining how a tower of blocks would look if he added more blocks to it. Ethan is most likely in which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "Unknown" Ethan's ability to mentally represent objects and actions and imagine how a tower of blocks would look with more blocks indicates that he is in the Preoperational stage. This stage occurs roughly from 2 to 7 years old and is characterized by the development of symbolic thought, pretend play, and egocentric thinking.
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66. Mia, a 10-year-old, is given a conservation task where she is shown two identical glasses filled with the same amount of water. One glass is then poured into a taller, narrower glass, which appears to have more water. Mia concludes that the taller glass has more water. Mia's response is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "Unknown" Mia's inability to understand conservation, as evidenced by her belief that the taller glass has more water, is characteristic of the Preoperational stage. In this stage, children have difficulty grasping the concept of conservation and often focus on perceptual aspects rather than logical reasoning.
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67. Lily, a 7-year-old, is able to understand that if A is greater than B and B is greater than C, then A is also greater than C. She can apply this transitive logic to various relationships. Lily's ability to understand transitivity is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "Unknown" Lily's ability to understand transitivity, as demonstrated by her understanding of the relationship between A, B, and C, is characteristic of the Concrete operational stage. This stage typically occurs around 7 to 11 years old and is characterized by the ability to think logically about concrete objects and events.
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68. Ethan, a 6-month-old baby, is playing with a colorful rattle. He shakes the rattle and watches it move. As he shakes it again, he begins to smile and shake it more vigorously. Ethan is most likely demonstrating which substage of Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage? a. Object permanence b. Circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Tertiary circular reactions
Correct answer: "b. Circular reactions" Ethan's behavior of shaking the rattle and smiling in response to the movement is characteristic of the circular reactions substage. During this substage (around 4 to 8 months ol, infants repeat actions to explore their effects and learn about cause and effect relationships.
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69. Ava, a 16-months-old, is pretending to cook using her cookware set toys with a dish she saw in her mother. According to Piaget, Ava's action suggests the development of which concept? a. Object permanence b. Mental representation c. Deferred imitation d. Symbolic play
Correct answer: "c. Deferred imitation" Deferred imitation is a psychological term for a process that all humans undergo, most notably during early childhood. It is a process in which a child will observe someone, usually an adult, completing an action. The child will then, after a period of time, imitate the action.
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70. Noah, a 5-month-old, is playing with a toy car. He accidentally pushes it off the table, but he doesn't show any reaction or attempt to retrieve the car. Noah's behavior is characteristic of which substage of Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage? a. Reflexive schemes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Tertiary circular reactions Feedback Noah's lack of reaction or attempts to retrieve the toy car suggests that he is in the reflexive schemes substage of the Sensorimotor Stage. During this substage (from birth to 1 month ol, infants' actions are reflexive and not purposeful or goal-directed. 71. Sofia, a 9-year-old, is given a conservation task where she is shown two identical glasses filled with the same amount of water. One glass is then poured into a taller, narrower glass, which appears to have more water. Sofia correctly concludes that the amount of water remains the same. Sofia's response is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? • Sensorimotor stage • Preoperational stage • Concrete operational stage • Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "Unknown" Sofia's ability to correctly conclude that the amount of water remains the same, despite the change in appearance, reflects her understanding of conservation. Conservation is a hallmark of the Concrete operational stage (around 7 to 11 years ol, during which children acquire the ability to think logically about concrete objects and events.
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72. Ethan, an 11-year-old, is able to understand and apply logical principles to solve arithmetic problems. He can perform mental operations, such as mentally calculating the area of a rectangle based on its dimensions. Ethan's ability to engage in mental operations is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "Unknown" Ethan's ability to engage in mental operations, such as mentally calculating the area of a rectangle, reflects his cognitive development in the Concrete operational stage. Mental operations involve the ability to manipulate and reason about abstract concepts, which is a hallmark of this stage.
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73. Sarah, a 6-year-old, witnesses her classmate stealing a toy from another student's bag. When asked about it, Sarah responds, "It's wrong to steal because you'll get punished." Sarah's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Preconventional level, Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience Orientation b. Preconventional level, Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange c. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships d. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
Correct answer: "Unknown" Sarah's response that stealing is wrong because of the fear of punishment reflects the moral reasoning of Stage 1. At this stage, individuals focus on avoiding punishment and obeying authority.
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74. Emma, a 9-year-old, is asked to return a wallet she found on the street to its owner. Emma decides to return the wallet because she believes it's the right thing to do and wants to be seen as a trustworthy person. Emma's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Preconventional level, Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience Orientation b. Preconventional level, Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange c. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships d. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
Correct answer: "Unknown" Emma's decision to return the wallet based on her belief that it's the right thing to do and to be seen as trustworthy reflects the moral reasoning of Stage 3. At this stage, individuals seek to maintain good interpersonal relationships and conform to social expectations.
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75. Jacob, a 16-year-old, actively participates in volunteering activities and supports social justice causes because he believes it's his moral duty to contribute to the well-being of others. Jacob's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships b. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order c. Postconventional level, Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights d. Postconventional level, Stage 6: Universal Ethical Principles
Correct answer: "Unknown" Jacob's active participation in volunteering activities based on his belief in contributing to the well-being of others reflects the moral reasoning of Stage 6. At this highest stage of moral development, individuals operate based on universal ethical principles that transcend specific social norms.
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76. Which age group’s mental health was most affected by the restrictions associated with COVID-19? a. 18–34 b. 35–49 c. 50–64 d. ≥65 77. Maria, a 7-year-old, is having difficulty adjusting to her new school environment. She feels overwhelmed by the large class size and struggles to make friends. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Maria's experience? • Microsystem • Mesosystem • Exosystem • Macrosystem
Correct answer: "Unknown" Maria's difficulty adjusting to the new school environment and struggling to make friends are influenced by the interactions and relationships within her immediate settings, such as her interactions with classmates and teachers. The mesosystem refers to the connections and interactions between different microsystems.
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78. James, a 15-year-old, spends a significant amount of time playing video games and engaging in online communities. He finds support, friendship, and a sense of belonging through these virtual interactions. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting James' experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "c. Exosystem" James' experience of finding support, friendship, and a sense of belonging through online communities is influenced by the exosystem. The exosystem represents broader social settings that indirectly affect an individual, such as societal norms, media, and technology.
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79. Alex, a 3-year-old, attends a high-quality early childhood education program where he receives nurturing care and developmentally appropriate activities. The program emphasizes positive relationships and individualized attention. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Alex's experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "a. Microsystem" Alex's experience of attending a high-quality early childhood education program, receiving nurturing care, and engaging in developmentally appropriate activities is influenced by the microsystem. The microsystem refers to the immediate settings in which an individual interacts, such as family, school, and peer groups.
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80. Emily, a 25-year-old, grew up in a society that promotes gender equality and provides ample opportunities for women's empowerment. She has pursued higher education, established a successful career, and actively participates in leadership roles. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Emily's experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "d. Macrosystem" Emily's experience of growing up in a society that promotes gender equality, provides opportunities for women's empowerment, and supports her educational and career pursuits is influenced by the macrosystem. The macrosystem encompasses cultural values, societal norms, and broader social and political ideologies.
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81. Sarah, a 4-year-old, is playing with building blocks in a preschool classroom. She is struggling to stack the blocks in a stable tower. The teacher, noticing her difficulty, provides guidance and demonstrates the proper technique for building a stable tower. This interaction is an example of: a. Scaffolding b. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "a. Scaffolding" The teacher providing guidance and demonstrating the proper technique for building a stable tower is an example of scaffolding in Sociocultural Theory. Scaffolding refers to the support or assistance provided by a more knowledgeable individual to help a learner accomplish a task that they would not be able to do independently.
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82. Jack, a 7-year-old, is struggling with a complex math problem. His classmate, Lily, who has a better understanding of the topic, sits next to him and explains the steps to solve the problem. Jack successfully solves the problem with Lily's help. This scenario best illustrates: a. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) b. Scaffolding c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "Unknown" Jack's interaction with Lily, where she explains the steps to solve the complex math problem and Jack successfully solves it with her help, illustrates the Zone of Proximal Development. The ZPD refers to the range of tasks that a learner cannot yet accomplish independently but can achieve with the guidance or support of a more knowledgeable person.
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83. Ethan, a 15-year-old, is working on a group project with his classmates. They are assigned to research and present a topic to the class. During their collaboration, Ethan actively listens to his classmates' ideas, provides feedback, and builds upon their contributions. This collaborative process reflects the importance of: a. Scaffolding b. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "d. Social interaction" Ethan's active listening, providing feedback, and building upon his classmates' contributions during the group project exemplify the importance of social interaction in Sociocultural Theory. Vygotsky emphasized the role of social interaction and collaboration in shaping cognitive development and learning.
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84. Emma, a 2-year-old, demonstrates an ________ attachment style. When her primary caregiver returns after a brief separation, Emma shows little interest or reaction, avoiding physical contact. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "b. Avoidant attachment" Emma's lack of interest or reaction and avoidance of physical contact upon the return of her primary caregiver are consistent with the behavior of a child with an avoidant attachment style. In this attachment pattern, children may appear emotionally distant or detached and minimize seeking comfort from the caregiver.
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85. Noah, a 1-year-old, exhibits a ________ attachment style. When his primary caregiver returns after a brief separation, Noah shows ambivalent behavior, both seeking comfort and avoiding contact. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "c. Resistant attachment" Noah's ambivalent behavior, seeking comfort but also resisting contact upon the return of his primary caregiver, aligns with the behavior of a child with a resistant attachment style. In this attachment pattern, children may display clingy or inconsistent behavior, expressing a mix of approach and resistance toward the caregiver.
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86. Ethan, a 2-year-old, shows ________ behavior during a reunion with his primary caregiver after a brief separation. He displays a combination of contradictory behaviors, such as freezing, appearing confused, or displaying stereotypical movements. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "d. Disorganized attachment" Ethan's display of contradictory behaviors, freezing, confusion, or stereotypical movements during the reunion with his primary caregiver, reflects the behavior of a child with a disorganized attachment style. Disorganized attachment is characterized by inconsistent or atypical behaviors and is often associated with adverse caregiving experiences.
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87. Mia, a 1-year-old, is actively exploring her environment but frequently checks back with her primary caregiver, seeking reassurance and comfort. Mia displays a balance between exploration and attachment behaviors. This behavior is consistent with which developmental phase described by Margaret Mahler? a. Rapprochement b. Separation-individuation c. Symbiotic phase d. Object constancy
Correct answer: "a. Rapprochement" Mia's active exploration of her environment while frequently checking back with her primary caregiver for reassurance and comfort aligns with the behavior observed during the Rapprochement phase described by Mahler. During this phase (around 1 to 2 years ol, children develop a balance between the need for autonomy and the need for a secure attachment figure.
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88. Sarah, a 16-year-old, has always accepted her parents' religious beliefs without question. However, recently, she has started to explore different religions and beliefs to determine her own spiritual path. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Sarah's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "Unknown" Sarah's exploration of different religions and beliefs indicates a state of identity moratorium. In this identity status, individuals are actively exploring different options and possibilities without having made firm commitments.
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89. Jake, an 18-year-old, has decided to pursue a career in medicine, which aligns with his long-standing interest in healthcare. He has considered various factors, such as his skills, values, and future goals, and has made a commitment to his career choice. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Jake's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "Unknown" Jake's consideration of different factors and his commitment to a career in medicine align with the identity achievement status. In this identity status, individuals have actively explored options and made firm commitments based on their own values and goals.
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90. Emma, a 20-year-old, has always felt pressured by her parents to follow a particular career path. Despite feeling unsure and unenthusiastic about it, Emma decides to pursue that career because it is expected of her. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Emma's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "b. Identity foreclosure" Emma's decision to pursue a career that is expected of her, without exploring other options or considering her own interests and values, reflects the identity foreclosure status. In this identity status, individuals make commitments without engaging in exploration.
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91. Liam, a 19-year-old, is uncertain about his career path and has not made any firm commitments yet. He feels confused and overwhelmed by the many possibilities and is unsure of his own abilities and interests. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Liam's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "a. Identity diffusion" Liam's uncertainty, confusion, and lack of firm commitments reflect the identity diffusion status. In this identity status, individuals have not yet explored different options or made commitments, often resulting in a state of confusion and uncertainty.
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92. Jeremy is born with a genetic disorder that affects the production of red blood cells, leading to anemia. This condition is most likely caused by a: a. Gene-linked abnormality b. Chromosomal abnormality c. Single-gene disorder d. Polygenic disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" Jeremy's genetic disorder affecting the production of red blood cells is likely caused by a mutation or abnormality in a single gene. Single-gene disorders are caused by changes in a specific gene and can result in various health conditions.
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93. Emma is born with Down syndrome, a condition characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21. This condition is an example of a: a. Gene-linked abnormality b. Chromosomal abnormality c. Single-gene disorder d. Polygenic disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" Emma's condition of having an extra copy of chromosome 21 is an example of a chromosomal abnormality. Chromosomal abnormalities occur when there are structural changes or numerical variations in the chromosomes.
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94. Ava, a 30-year-old, has a family history of Alzheimer's disease, a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. She is concerned about her own risk of developing the condition. Alzheimer's disease is primarily influenced by: a. Genetic and environmental factors b. Autosomal recessive inheritance c. Chromosomal abnormalities d. Multifactorial inheritance
Correct answer: "Unknown" Alzheimer's disease is primarily influenced by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. While specific genes can contribute to the risk of developing the disease, other factors such as lifestyle, diet, and environmental exposures also play a role.
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95. Sarah, a 30-year-old, is diagnosed with Down syndrome. This condition is caused by an extra copy of which chromosome? a. Chromosome 21 b. Chromosome 18 c. Chromosome X d. Chromosome Y
Correct answer: "a. Chromosome 21" Down syndrome, also known as Trisomy 21, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21. Individuals with Down syndrome have three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two copies.
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96. Christine, a 15-year-old, is diagnosed with Turner syndrome. This condition is characterized by the absence or partial absence of which chromosome? a. Chromosome 21 b. Chromosome 18 c. Chromosome X d. Chromosome Y
Correct answer: "Unknown" Turner syndrome is caused by the absence or partial absence of one of the X chromosomes in females. Instead of having the usual XX chromosome pattern, individuals with Turner syndrome have a single X chromosome.
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97. During which period of prenatal development do major organ systems form, making the embryo particularly vulnerable to teratogens? a. Germinal period b. Embryonic period c. Fetal period d. Preconception period
Correct answer: "Unknown" The embryonic period, which occurs from approximately the third to the eighth week of prenatal development, is a critical time for the formation and development of major organ systems. It is during this period that the embryo is particularly vulnerable to teratogens, which are substances that can cause developmental abnormalities.
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98. Which of the following is a potential consequence of maternal exposure to harmful substances, such as drugs or alcohol, during prenatal development? a. Impaired cognitive development b. Delayed physical growth c. Increased risk of socioemotional difficulties d. All of the above
Correct answer: "Unknown" Maternal exposure to harmful substances during prenatal development can have detrimental effects on various aspects of the developing fetus. It can lead to impaired cognitive development, delayed physical growth, and an increased risk of socioemotional difficulties in the child.
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99. Which sense is the most developed and functional during prenatal development? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Taste d. Touch
Correct answer: "b. Hearing" The sense of hearing is the most developed and functional sense during prenatal development. By the third trimester of pregnancy, the fetus can hear and respond to sounds in the environment. This early exposure to auditory stimuli can have an impact on later cognitive and language development.
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100. Which factor has the greatest influence on healthy prenatal development? a. Genetic factors b. Environmental factors c. Socioeconomic factors d. Cultural factors
Correct answer: "a. Genetic factors" While genetic factors play a significant role in prenatal development, environmental factors, such as the mother's nutrition, exposure to toxins, and overall health, have the greatest influence on healthy prenatal development. The prenatal environment, including the mother's lifestyle and care, can significantly impact the developing fetus.
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101. When a newborn's cheek is touched, they turn their head toward the stimulus and begin sucking. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "b. Rooting reflex" The rooting reflex is triggered when a newborn's cheek is touched, causing them to turn their head toward the stimulus in search of a nipple or a source of food. This reflex helps facilitate breastfeeding and early feeding behaviors.
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102. When a newborn is startled or experiences a sudden loss of support, they spread their arms and then bring them back toward the body. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "a. Moro reflex" The Moro reflex is commonly referred to as the startle reflex. It is triggered by sudden stimuli, such as a loud noise or a sensation of falling, and results in the newborn spreading their arms and then bringing them back toward the body. This reflex is thought to have served a protective function in ancestral human infants.
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103. When the sole of a newborn's foot is stroked, their toes fan out and curl upward. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "c. Babinski reflex" The Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the sole of a newborn's foot. The reflex causes the toes to fan out and curl upward. This response is a normal reflex in newborns, but it typically disappears as the nervous system develops.
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104. When an object is placed in a newborn's palm or fingers, they automatically grasp it. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "d. Grasp reflex" The grasp reflex is observed when an object is placed in a newborn's palm or fingers, and they automatically close their hand around the object. This reflex is an early motor response and typically disappears after a few months.
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105. When a newborn's head is tilted to one side, they extend the arm and leg on that side while flexing the opposite arm and leg. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Tonic neck reflex
Correct answer: "Unknown" The tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex or asymmetric tonic neck reflex, is observed when a newborn's head is turned to one side. In response, the arm and leg on the side the head is facing extend, while the opposite arm and leg flex. This reflex helps lay the foundation for later voluntary movements.
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106. When the roof of a newborn's mouth is touched, they begin to suck. This reflex is known as the: a. Babinski reflex b. Suck reflex c. Rooting reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "b. Suck reflex" The suck reflex is triggered when the roof of a newborn's mouth is touched, initiating a rhythmic sucking motion. This reflex is vital for feeding and allows newborns to obtain nourishment from breastfeeding or bottle-feeding.
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107. When a newborn's head is turned to one side, they automatically rotate their body in the same direction. This reflex is known as the: a. Tonic neck reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "Unknown" The tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex or asymmetric tonic neck reflex, is observed when a newborn's head is turned to one side. In response, the newborn automatically rotates their body in the same direction. This reflex aids in the development of coordination and helps prepare the infant for more complex movements.
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108. When a newborn's foot is pressed against a surface, they push against it with their toes. This reflex is known as the: a. Plantar reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "a. Plantar reflex" The plantar reflex is observed when a newborn's foot is pressed against a surface, causing them to push against it with their toes. This reflex helps with balance and posture development.
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109. When a newborn's lips are touched or stroked, they pucker their lips as if preparing to suck. This reflex is known as the: a. Suck reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "a. Suck reflex" The suck reflex is triggered when a newborn's lips are touched or stroked, resulting in the puckering of their lips as if preparing to suck. This reflex facilitates feeding and the intake of nourishment.
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110. When a newborn is held in an upright position with their feet touching a solid surface, they make stepping movements as if walking. This reflex is known as the: a. Walking reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "Unknown" The walking reflex, also referred to as the stepping reflex, is observed when a newborn is held upright with their feet touching a solid surface. They will make stepping movements as if attempting to walk. Although this reflex is present at birth, it typically disappears within a few weeks.
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111. Emily, a 9-month-old infant, does not respond when her name is called and shows minimal interest in social interactions. These behaviors may be indicative of: a. Autism spectrum disorder b. Sensory processing disorder c. Separation anxiety d. Language delay
Correct answer: "a. Autism spectrum disorder" The lack of response to name calling and minimal interest in social interactions in a 9-month-old infant may raise concerns about autism spectrum disorder (AS. It is important to consult with healthcare professionals for a comprehensive evaluation and diagnosis.
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112. Liam, a 15-month-old toddler, exhibits excessive tantrums, difficulties with transitions, and intense emotional reactions. These behaviors may be suggestive of: a. Sensory processing disorder b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Normal temperamental variations d. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" Excessive tantrums, difficulties with transitions, and intense emotional reactions are common in toddlers and often represent normal temperamental variations. Toddlers are learning to regulate their emotions and assert their independence, which can manifest in emotional outbursts.
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113. Chloe, a 6-month-old infant, has not yet rolled over or shown any attempts to sit independently. This delay in motor milestones may warrant further assessment for: a. Gross motor delay b. Fine motor delay c. Sensory processing disorder d. Cognitive impairment
Correct answer: "Unknown" The absence of rolling over or attempts to sit independently in a 6- month-old infant may indicate a gross motor delay. It is important to monitor motor development and consult a healthcare professional if there are significant delays or concerns.
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114. Emma, a 4-year-old, often struggles with sharing toys and taking turns during playtime. This behavior is typical of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal egocentrism c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Social anxiety disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" During early childhood, children are still developing their understanding of others' perspectives and may exhibit egocentric behaviors, such as difficulty sharing and taking turns. This behavior is a typical part of their cognitive and social-emotional development.
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115. Liam, a 5-year-old, experiences difficulties following instructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured activities. These challenges may raise concerns about: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal developmental variations c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Social communication disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" Difficulties in following instructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured activities in a 5-year-old may raise concerns about attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADH. A comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals is needed to make an accurate diagnosis.
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116. Sophia, a 3-year-old, frequently engages in imaginary play, creating elaborate storylines and characters. This imaginative play is an indication of: a. Fantasy-prone personality disorder b. Normal pretend play c. Autism spectrum disorder d. Oppositional defiant disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" Engaging in imaginary play, creating elaborate storylines, and inventing characters is a normal part of early childhood development. Pretend play enhances creativity, social skills, and cognitive abilities, fostering overall development.
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117. Emily, an 8-year-old, frequently struggles with organizing her school materials, keeping track of assignments, and completing tasks on time. These challenges may be indicative of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Learning difficulties or attention deficits c. Normal developmental variations d. Social communication disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" Difficulties in organizing materials, managing assignments, and completing tasks on time in an 8-year-old may indicate learning difficulties or attention deficits. A comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals can help identify specific areas of need and provide appropriate support.
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118. Liam, a 10-year-old, often experiences negative emotions, such as sadness or irritability, and demonstrates difficulties regulating his emotions. These challenges may raise concerns about: a. Bipolar disorder b. Normal emotional development c. Anxiety disorder d. Conduct disorder
Correct answer: "Unknown" Experiencing negative emotions, such as sadness or irritability, and difficulties in emotion regulation are common during middle and late childhood as children navigate the complexities of emotions and social interactions. These challenges are often part of normal emotional development.
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119. Sophia, a 9-year-old, frequently engages in arguments and conflicts with peers, exhibits defiance toward authority figures, and refuses to follow rules. These behaviors may be suggestive of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal testing of boundaries c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Autism spectrum disorder
Correct answer: "a. Oppositional defiant disorder" Engaging in arguments and conflicts with peers, defiance toward authority figures, and refusal to follow rules in a 9-year-old may raise concerns about oppositional defiant disorder (OD. A comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals is needed for an accurate diagnosis.
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120. Ethan, a 12-year-old, demonstrates a strong desire for peer acceptance and conformity, often changing opinions or behaviors to fit in with the group. This behavior is characteristic of: a. Low self-esteem b. Peer pressure c. Social withdrawal d. Oppositional defiant disorder
Correct answer: "b. Peer pressure" A strong desire for peer acceptance and conformity, along with changing opinions or behaviors to fit in with the group, are common aspects of peer pressure during middle and late childhood. Peer influence plays a significant role in shaping social behaviors and choices during this stage.
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121. Which of the following traits is NOT part of McCrae's Five- Factor Model? a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Honesty
Correct answer: "Unknown" McCrae's Five-Factor Model includes the following traits: openness to experience, extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and neuroticism. "Honesty" is not specifically identified as one of the primary factors in this model.
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122. John is known for being imaginative, curious, and open to new experiences. In the Five-Factor Model, John would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Neuroticism
Correct answer: "a. Openness to experience" Openness to experience refers to an individual's willingness to explore new ideas, engage in creative pursuits, and be receptive to novel experiences. John's characteristics of being imaginative, curious, and open to new experiences align with this trait.
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123. Sarah is known for being friendly, outgoing, and sociable. In the Five-Factor Model, Sarah would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Neuroticism
Correct answer: "b. Extraversion" Extraversion refers to the degree to which an individual seeks social interactions, enjoys being around others, and is outgoing and assertive. Sarah's traits of being friendly, outgoing, and sociable align with the extraversion factor.
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124. Michael is known for being kind, considerate, and cooperative. In the Five-Factor Model, Michael would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness
Correct answer: "c. Agreeableness" Agreeableness refers to an individual's tendency to be compassionate, cooperative, and empathetic towards others. Michael's traits of being kind, considerate, and cooperative align with the agreeableness factor.
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125. Julia is often described as organized, disciplined, and reliable. In the Five-Factor Model, Julia would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness
Correct answer: "d. Conscientiousness" Conscientiousness refers to an individual's level of organization, self-discipline, and reliability. Julia's traits of being organized, disciplined, and reliable align with the conscientiousness factor.
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151. During the Sensorimotor Stage, infants explore their environment through which senses? a. Vision and hearing b. Touch and taste c. Smell and hearing d. Touch and hearing
Correct answer: "Unknown" During the Sensorimotor Stage, infants primarily explore their environment through the senses of touch and hearing. They use their hands and mouths to explore objects and rely on auditory cues to make sense of their surroundings.
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152. Which of the following behaviors is characteristic of the later stages of the Sensorimotor Stage? a. Simple reflexive responses b. Coordination of sensory and motor actions c. Symbolic representation and pretend play d. Object permanence and understanding of cause and effect
Correct answer: "Unknown" In the later stages of the Sensorimotor Stage, infants develop the ability for symbolic representation, which allows them to use symbols or mental images to represent objects or events. They may engage in pretend play, using objects to represent other objects, people, or situations.
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153. The Sensorimotor Stage is characterized by the absence of which cognitive process? a. Imitation b. Symbolic thought c. Object permanence d. Sensorimotor integration
Correct answer: "Unknown" Symbolic thought, the ability to use symbols or mental representations to represent objects or events, is not fully developed in the Sensorimotor Stage. This ability emerges in later stages of cognitive development.
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154. Which of the following is NOT a substage of the Sensorimotor Stage? a. Reflexes b. Circular reactions c. Mental representation d. Tertiary circular reactions
Correct answer: "c. Mental representation" Mental representation is not a substage of the Sensorimotor Stage. The actual substage progression includes reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, and beginning of representational thought.
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155. The Sensorimotor Stage lays the foundation for the development of which cognitive concept in later stages? a. Conservation b. Egocentrism c. Object permanence d. Abstract reasoning
Correct answer: "Unknown" The Sensorimotor Stage, particularly the development of object permanence, lays the foundation for later cognitive concepts such as conservation, egocentrism, and abstract reasoning. It provides the building blocks for understanding the world and engaging in more complex cognitive processes.
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156. Which pattern of crying in infants is characterized by a high- pitched, intense cry that is sudden and without obvious cause? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Anguished cry
Correct answer: "c. Pain cry" The pain cry is a high-pitched, intense cry that occurs suddenly and is usually accompanied by physical signs of distress. It can be triggered by discomfort, injury, or illness and may indicate the need for immediate attention and care.
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157. Which pattern of crying in infants is a rhythmic, repetitive cry with a lower intensity than other cries and is often associated with fatigue or frustration? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Whining cry
Correct answer: "d. Whining cry" The whining cry is a rhythmic, repetitive cry with a lower intensity than other cries. It is often associated with fatigue, frustration, or mild discomfort. Infants may display this cry when they are tired, bored, or seeking attention.
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158. Which pattern of crying in infants is a combination of cries and vowel-like sounds, and it is the most common type of cry? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Whining cry
Correct answer: "a. Basic cry" The basic cry is a combination of cries and vowel-like sounds and is the most common type of cry observed in infants. It typically indicates general needs such as hunger, fatigue, or discomfort. The basic cry can vary in intensity and can be accompanied by facial expressions and body movements.
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159. Easy children are typically characterized by: a. High activity level and intense reactions b. Regular routines and adaptability to change c. Shyness and withdrawal in new situations d. Strong-willed and challenging behavior
Correct answer: "Unknown" Easy children are known for their adaptable nature and ability to establish regular routines. They tend to have a positive mood, display low intensity of reactions, and adapt well to new experiences or changes in their environment.
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160. Slow-to-warm-up children are characterized by: a. High activity level and intense reactions b. Regular routines and adaptability to change c. Shyness and withdrawal in new situations d. Strong-willed and challenging behavior
Correct answer: "Unknown" Slow-to-warm-up children are initially hesitant and cautious in new or unfamiliar situations. They may exhibit shyness, withdrawal, and a slow adaptation to new people or environments. Given time and support, they gradually become more comfortable and less hesitant.
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161. Which temperament profile is associated with the greatest challenges for caregivers? a. Easy children b. Difficult children c. Slow-to-warm-up children d. All temperament profiles present unique challenges
Correct answer: "Unknown" Difficult children, due to their strong-willed and challenging behavior, often present the greatest challenges for caregivers. Their resistance to change and intense reactions can make it more demanding to meet their needs and manage their behaviors effectively. However, it's important to note that all temperament profiles present unique challenges, and caregivers may need to adjust their approaches to meet the needs of each child.
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162. Preoperational thought is a stage of cognitive development proposed by which theorist? a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Erikson c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg
Correct answer: "Unknown" Preoperational thought is a stage of cognitive development proposed by Jean Piaget. It occurs approximately between the ages of 2 and 7 years old and is characterized by significant gains in language and symbolic representation.
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163. Symbolic function refers to the ability of children in the preoperational stage to: a. Understand the conservation of quantity b. Reason logically and systematically c. Use symbols and mental representation to represent objects or events d. Develop empathy and social understanding
Correct answer: "Unknown" Symbolic function is a significant cognitive milestone in the preoperational stage. It involves the ability to use symbols, such as words, images, or gestures, to represent objects, actions, or events that are not physically present. This ability forms the basis for imaginative play, language development, and the understanding of symbolic representations in various domains.
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164. Intuitive thought is a characteristic of which stage of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "Unknown" Intuitive thought is a characteristic of the preoperational stage. During this stage, which occurs roughly between ages 4 and 7, children begin to engage in more advanced thinking but still lack the ability for logical and systematic reasoning. Intuitive thought refers to children's reliance on immediate perceptions and hunches rather than logical reasoning when solving problems or making judgments.
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165. Which of the following is a limitation of preoperational thought? a. Lack of symbolic representation b. Inability to engage in make-believe play c. Difficulty understanding the concept of conservation d. Limited vocabulary and language skills
Correct answer: "Unknown" One of the limitations of preoperational thought is the difficulty in understanding the concept of conservation, which refers to the understanding that certain properties of objects remain the same despite changes in appearance or arrangement. Preoperational children often focus on the most salient features and may not grasp the idea that the quantity or volume of a substance can remain the same even if it appears differently. This limitation gradually diminishes as children progress into the concrete operational stage.
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166. Animism is a concept commonly observed during which stage of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" Animism is a concept commonly observed during the preoperational stage of cognitive development, as proposed by Jean Piaget. Preoperational children tend to attribute lifelike qualities and intentions to inanimate objects, believing that they have thoughts, feelings, and intentions similar to humans.
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167. Transduction is a cognitive process characterized by: a. Focusing on the most salient features of an object or event b. Understanding that others have different beliefs and perspectives c. Recognizing that certain properties of objects remain the same despite changes in appearance d. Mentally connecting unrelated events or ideas based on perceived associations
Correct answer: "Unknown" Transduction is a cognitive process observed during the preoperational stage of cognitive development. It involves making connections between unrelated events or ideas based on perceived associations, without necessarily understanding logical or cause-and-effect relationships.
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168. According to Parten's stages of play, associative play involves: a. Independent play with minimal interaction with others b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities c. Playing alongside others but without significant interaction or coordination d. Cooperative play with shared goals and organized group activities
Correct answer: "Unknown" According to Parten's stages of play, associative play is a stage where children play alongside others, sharing materials and showing interest in what others are doing, but without significant organization or coordination of activities. They may observe, imitate, and be influenced by others' actions, but there is no formal organization or shared goals.
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169. The highest level of cognitive play is characterized by: a. Independent play b. Parallel play c. Cooperative play d. Onlooker play
Correct answer: "c. Cooperative play" Cooperative play is the highest level of cognitive play. It involves children engaging in organized group activities with shared goals, coordinating their actions, and working together towards a common objective. In this stage, children display advanced cognitive and social skills, such as negotiation, problem-solving, and perspective-taking.
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170. Onlooker play is characterized by: a. Independent play with minimal interaction with others b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities c. Observing others play without actively participating d. Cooperative play with shared goals and organized group activities
Correct answer: "Unknown" Onlooker play is a stage where children observe others play without actively participating themselves. They may watch, comment, or ask questions about the play of others but do not engage directly in the play activity. It provides an opportunity for children to learn from observing and gain insight into different play behaviors and social interactions.
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171. According to Emile Durkheim's classification, which type of suicide is characterized by a lack of integration and social cohesion? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "b. Egoistic suicide" Egoistic suicide occurs when individuals experience a lack of social integration and connection to others. They may feel isolated, detached, or disconnected from social groups, resulting in higher suicide rates.
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172. Altruistic suicide is characterized by: a. High levels of social integration and collective identity b. A lack of social norms and regulation c. Despair and hopelessness due to oppressive societal conditions d. A disregard for social values and norms
Correct answer: "Unknown" Altruistic suicide occurs when individuals have a high level of social integration and a strong collective identity. They may be willing to sacrifice their lives for the greater good or the expectations of their social group.
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173. Which type of suicide is associated with a breakdown of social norms and a lack of moral regulation? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "c. Anomic suicide" Anomic suicide occurs in situations where there is a breakdown of social norms, such as during times of social or economic upheaval. Individuals may feel a sense of normlessness, uncertainty, and a lack of moral regulation, which can contribute to higher suicide rates.
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174. In a small village where conformity to tradition is highly valued, a woman takes her own life after failing to fulfill societal expectations and facing ostracism from her community. In a highly traditional society where strict social norms and obligations are valued, individuals may be more prone to which type of suicide? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "a. Altruistic suicide" In this scenario, the woman's suicide is motivated by her strong adherence to societal expectations and her willingness to sacrifice her life for the sake of conformity and meeting social obligations. Altruistic suicide occurs in societies where there is a high degree of social integration and collective identity.
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175. In a country suffering from economic depression and widespread unemployment, individuals feel a sense of despair, hopelessness, and lose their sense of purpose and direction in life. In a society experiencing economic collapse and social unrest, individuals may be more susceptible to which type of suicide? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "c. Anomic suicide" In this scenario, the economic collapse and social unrest have disrupted the social order and undermined social norms and regulations. As a result, individuals may experience a sense of normlessness, uncertainty, and a lack of moral regulation, leading to higher suicide rates. Anomic suicide occurs during times of social or economic upheaval.
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176. A chromosomal abnormalities who's the child has a missing X chromosome for females a. Jacob's Syndrome b. Trisomy 18 c. Monosomy X d. Fragile X Syndrome
Correct answer: "c. Monosomy X" Monosomy X is also called Turner Syndrome, it is a syndrome wherein females have a missing X
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177. A chromosomal abnormalities in a child who have an extra Y chromosome on its genes. a. Klinefelter Syndrome b. Edward's Syndrome c. Patau's Syndrome d. Jacobs Syndrome
Correct answer: "Unknown" Jacob's Syndrome is also called as XYY Syndrome.
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178. Extra copy of chromosome 13 a. Fragile X Syndrome b. Patau's Syndrome c. XYY Syndrome d. Down Syndrome
Correct answer: "b. Patau's Syndrome" Patau's Syndrome is also called as Trisomy 13.
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179. A overproduction of mucus in the lungs and digestive tract a. Phenylketonuria b. Cystic Fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Sickle-cell Anemia 180. It does not produce enough insulin. • Diabetes • Huntington's Disease • Tay-Sachs Disease • Alpha Antitrypsin Deficiency 181. Males with muscle weakness and minor mental retardation • Beta Thalassemia • Spina Bifida • Alpha Thalassemia • Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy 182. It limits the body oxygen supply • Hemophilia • Cystic Fibrosis • Anencephaly • Sickle-cell Anemia 183. CNS deteriorates producing problem in muscles and mental decline • Huntington's Disease • Tay-Sachs Disease • Alpha Thalassemia • Beta Thalassemia 184. Severe Anemia; fatal in adolescence or young adulthood • Cooley's Anemia • Alpha Thalassemia • Alpha Antitrypsin Deficiency • Polycystic Kidney Disease 185. Severe Anemia; nearly all die soon after birth • Beta Thalassemia • Alpha Thalassemia • Polycystic Kidney Disease • Cystic Fibrosis 186. The birth weight who is less than 3 pounds ; 4 ounces • Normal Birth Weight • Low Birth Weight • Very Low Birth Weight • Extremely Low Birth Weight
Correct answer: "Unknown" NBW - At least 7 pounds ; 5 ounces LBW - Less than 5 pounds ; 8 ounces VLB - Less than 3 pounds ; 4 ounces ELB - Less than 2 pounds
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187. A miscarriage occurred after 20 weeks of gestation (approximately 5 months) a. Spontaneous Abortion b. Stillbirth c. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome d. Premature Babies
Correct answer: "a. Spontaneous Abortion" Spontaneous Abortion - Less than 20 weeks Stillbirth - After 20 weeks (approx. 5 months) SIDS - Crib death
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188. Eager willingness to cooperate harmoniously with a parent, not only in disciplinary actions, but in variety of daily interactions. a. Receptive Cooperation b. Situational Compliance c. Committed Compliance d. Riding-in-tandem Compliance
Correct answer: "b. Situational Compliance" Situational Compliance - Extra assistance provided by their parents reminder and prompts to complete the task Committed Compliance - They were committed to following request and could do so without their parents direct intervention Riding-in-tandem Compliance - is gawa-gawa lang sowi huhu
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189. An awareness that gender does not change a. Gender Constancy b. Gender Stability c. Gender Identity d. Gender Schema Theory
Correct answer: "a. Gender Constancy" Gender Identity - Awareness of one's own gender and that of others Gender Constancy - The realization that a girl remains a girl even if she has a short haircut Gender Schema Theory - It views children as actively extracting knowledge about gender from their environment before engaging in gender-typed behavior 190. Frequently nominated both bestie and most disliked • Controversial Children • Rejected Children • Popular Children • Neglected Children Feedback Average Children - Receive an average number of both positive and negative nominations Neglected Children - Infrequently nominated as bestie but not really disliked Rejected Children - Disliked by peers Controversial Children - Frequently nominated both as bestie and most disliked Popular Children - Frequently nominated as bestie and rarely disliked by peers
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191. Frequently nominated as bestie and rarely disliked by peers a. Popular Children b. Average Children c. Controversial Children d. Neglected Children 192. Involves adjusting the identity schema to fit new experiences • Accommodation • Assimilation • Identity Accommodation • Identity Assimilation Identity Accommodation
Correct answer: "Unknown" Assimilation - Interpretation of new information via existing cognitive structure Accommodation - Involves changing cognitive structures to more closely align with what is encountered Identity Assimilation - Involves holding onto a consistent sense of self in the face of new experiences that do not fit the current understanding of the self
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193. Involves holding onto a consistent sense of self in the face of new experiences that do not fit the current understanding of the self a. Identity Accommodation b. Identity Assimilation c. Assimilation d. Accommodation
Correct answer: "a. Identity Accommodation" Assimilation - Interpretation of new information via existing cognitive structure Accommodation - Involves changing cognitive structures to more closely align with what is encountered Identity Accommodation - Involves adjusting the identity schema to fit new experiences
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194. Occurs when the youngest child leaves home. a. Generativity Scripts b. Boomerang Phenomenon c. Revolving Door Syndrome d. Empty Nest
Correct answer: "a. Generativity Scripts" Generativity Scripts – feature redemption and associated with psychological well-being Revolving Door Syndrome or Boomerang Phenomenon – returning to parent’s home, sometimes with their own families
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195. Feature redemption and associated with psychological well- being a. Generativity Scripts b. Narrative Psychology c. Empty Nest d. Boomerang Phenomenon
Correct answer: "b. Narrative Psychology" Narrative Psychology - Views the development of self as a continuous process of constructing one's life story Empty Nest – occurs when the youngest child leaves home Revolving Door Syndrome or Boomerang Phenomenon – returning to parent’s home, sometimes with their own families
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196. Caught in squeeze between the competing needs of their own children and the emerging needs of their parents a. Filial Crisis b. Respite Care c. Sandwich Generation d. Kinship Care
Correct answer: "a. Filial Crisis" Filial Crisis - Adults learn to balance love and duty to their parents with autonomy in a two-way relationship Respite Care - Giving caregivers some time off Kinship Care - Grandparents that provides care but don’t become foster parents or gain custody, have no legal status and few rights
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197. It includes relief of pain and suffering, controlling of symptoms, alleviation of stress, and attempts to maintain a satisfactory quality of life a. Hospice Care b. Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline c. Near-Death Experience d. Palliative Care
Correct answer: "b. Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline" Hospice Care – personal, patient- and family-centered, compassionate care for the terminally ill Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline – specifically to a widely observed decline in cognitive abilities shortly before death Near-Death Experience – often involving a sense of being out of the body or sucked into a tunnel and visions of bright lights or mystical encounters
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198. Aging is the results of random processes that vary from person to person (Error theories) a. Evolutionary Theory b. Immunological Theory c. Endocrine Theory d. Variable-Rate Theories
Correct answer: "a. Evolutionary Theory" Endocrine Theory - Biological clocks act through hormones to control the pace of aging Immunological Theory - Programmed decline in immune system functions leads to increased vulnerability to infectious disease and thus to aging and death Evolutionary Theory - Aging is an evolved trait thus genes that promote reproduction are selected at higher rates than genes that extend lives
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199. Clearly intent to end their lives, but they act out of a belief that the process is already under the way and that they are simply hastening the process a. Death Seekers b. Death Initiators c. Death Ignorers d. Death Darers
Correct answer: "a. Death Seekers" Death Seekers – clearly intend to end their lives at the time they attempt suicide Death Ignorers – do not believe that their self- inflicted death will mean the end of their existence Death Darers – experience mixed feelings, or ambivalence, about their intent to die, even at the moment of their attempt, and they show this ambivalence in the act itself
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200. Focuses on the scientific study of the systematic processes of change and stability in people. a. Life-Span Development b. Life-Span Perspective c. Human Development d. Growth Development
Correct answer: "a. Life-Span Development" Life-Span Development – Concept of human development as lifelong process, which can be studied scientifically Life-Span Perspective – Views development as lifelong, multidimensional, multidirectional, plastic, multidisciplinary, and contextual, and as a process that involves growth, maintenance, and regulation of loss Growth Development - Uhmm... :> DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY RANDOM DRILLS BY MCGRAW- HILL GLOBAL EDUCATION HOLDINGS, LLC
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1. Life-span development begins with _______ and ends with _______. a. birth; death b. conception; old age c. infancy; old age d. conception; death 2. Parents adhering to the fundamental premise of Jean-Jacques Rousseau's "innate goodness" argument would: • reject the need to "teach" language since speech is inherited. • provide their children with little monitoring and few constraints. • view their child as intellectually indistinguishable from themselves. • argue that their newborn's brain is like a "blank slate." 3. Which view of children is stated in the doctrine of "original sin"? • Children, although born good, are destined to become evil. • Evil children are born only to parents who have sinned.. • Children are basically bad, and are born as evil beings. • Children are born good and remain that way until adulthood. 4. Which philosophical view assumes that the child's mind at birth is a "blank tablet"? • original sin • tabula rasa • determinism • innate goodness 5. Contrary to the view held centuries ago, today we believe that: • children are miniature adults.. • childhood is a unique and important period in life. • children ought to be treated as small adults in need of training but little else. • children are autonomous and may be expected to grow and develop with very little parental support. 6. The traditional approach to development emphasizes: • little change from birth through old age. • extensive change from birth to adolescence, adulthood, and old age. • extensive change from birth to adulthood, then little change for the rest of the life span. • extensive change from birth to adolescence, little or no change in adulthood, then decline in late old age. 7. The traditional and life-span perspectives are contrasting views of developmental change. According to the life-span perspective, when do developmental changes occur? • during infancy and early childhood • during adolescence and early adulthood • during middle and late adulthood • throughout the entire life cycle 8. Allan spends a great deal of time working and trying to establish his career. He also has been thinking about how his personal relationship is going and considering whether it could be long-term and lead to establishing a family. Allan is MOST LIKELY in: • late adolescence.. • early adulthood. • middle adulthood. • late adulthood 9. The period of development during which school readiness skills are developed and most free time is spent playing with friends is called: • infancy. • early childhood. • middle childhood. • late childhood. 10. Paul depends almost completely on his parents. He is just learning to recognize things that he wants and how to get them. Paul is in the development period called: • late childhood. • middle childhood. • early childhood. • infancy. 11. Which period of development is characterized by establishing independence, developing an identity, and thinking more abstractly? • middle childhood • late childhood. • adolescence • early adulthood 12. Many older persons become wiser with age, yet perform more poorly on cognitive speed tests. This supports the life-span perspective notion that development is: • multidirectional.. • multidimensional. • lifelong. • plastic. 13. Development consists of many aspects: biological, cognitive, socioemotional, etc. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional. • plastic. 14. Development is characterized by growth and decline. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional. • plastic. 15. In one study, the reasoning abilities of older adults were improved through retraining. This is an example of how development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional.. • plastic. 16 INCORRECT Differences in families, neighborhoods, cultures, and even time periods affect development. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional. • plastic. 17. In many cultures, people retire from their careers in their fifties or sixties. This is an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • nonnormative socioemotional event. 18. Like many others her age, Velma does not know how to use a computer, but her six-year-old grandson has no problem navigating the Internet and using a word processing program. This is an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • nonnormative socioemotional event. 19. When Ben was thirteen when his father was killed in a car accident. This is an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • nonnormative socioemotional event. 20. The onset of puberty is an example of: • normative age-graded influences. • normative history-graded influences. • nonnormative life events. • storm-and-stress events. 21. The AIDS epidemic in the United States would be an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • storm-and-stress event. 22. The number of years since a person was born is a key element in the definition of:. • chronological age. • biological age. • psychological age. • developmental age. 23. The expectations society has that a person will act his or her age refers to: • biological age.. • social age. • psychological age. • historical age. 24. Rozee is 86 years young. She continues to learn phrases in new languages, she writes poetry, and she enjoys going to museums to see the latest up-and-coming artists. These examples of her adaptive capacities demonstrate: • chronological age. • biological age.. • psychological age. • social age. 25. As he was studying life-span development, Tyrell had to learn several interrelated, coherent sets of ideas that would help him explain and make predictions about development. Tyrell had to learn: • theories. • hypotheses. • models. • scientific methods. 26. Which theoretical perspectives describe development as an unconscious process? • contextual theories • ecological theories • psychoanalytical theories • ethological theories 27. Callie is learning about the psychoanalytic perspective and understands there are three parts to the personality. According to Freud, they are the: • libido, ego, id. • unconscious, conscious, superego. • ego, superego, subego. • superego, ego, id. 28. Erik Erikson's theory emphasized: • repeated resolutions of unconscious conflicts about sexual energy.. • developmental change throughout the human life span. • changes in children's thinking as they mature. • the influence of sensitive periods in the various stages of biological maturation. 29. Most life-span developmentalists recognize that: • nature, continuity, and stability are the primary determinants of behavior. • nurture, discontinuity, and change are the primary determinants of behavior. • while nurture (the environment) is important, nature (heredity) plays the stronger role. • extreme positions on these issues are unwise. 30. The information-processing approach to development emphasizes: • the quality of thinking among children of different ages. • overcoming certain age-related problems or crises. • age-appropriate expressions of sexual energy.. • perception, memory, reasoning ability, and problem solving. 31. From B.F. Skinner's point of view, behavior is explained through: • external consequences of that behavior. • the self-produced consequences of that behavior. • individuals' cognitive interpretations of their environmental experiences • the biological processes that determine maturation. 32. According to Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory, the three factors that reciprocally influence development involve: • behavior, the person, and the environment. • punishment, reward, and reinforcement. • memory, problem solving, and reasoning. • cognition, reward, and observation 33. Because Dr. Samuels is a cognitive theorist, we know that she stresses the importance of _______ for understanding development. • thought processes • repressed memories • reciprocal interactions • biologically determined critical periods 34. Which theory would be BEST to consider if you wanted to understand how and why children copy the behaviors they see in TV cartoons? • Skinner's behaviorism • Piaget's cognitive theory • Erikson's psychosocial stages. • Bandura and Mischel's social cognitive theory 35. Which theory believes there are sensitive periods of development? • ethological theory • ecological theory • behavioral theory • social cognition theory 36. In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the microsystem refers to the: • contexts in which the individual lives and plays an active role. • b contexts in which the individual lives but does not play an active role. • cultural context within which an individual is raised. • changes in one's culture over time. 37. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory of development, family is to time as _______is to _______. • macrosystem; mesosystem • exosystem; microsystem • exosystem; chronosystem. • microsystem; chronosystem 38. Alex believes people are primarily influenced by the environment and learned experiences, so he believes _______ plays a more powerful role in human development. • nurture • maturation • change • nature 39. Which statement BEST resolves the nature-nurture controversy? • Nature is clearly more important in development. • The interaction between nature and nurture is most important in development. • Nurture is clearly more important in development. • Neither plays a particularly strong role in development. 40. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining: • environmental influences on development. • biological influences on development. • cognitive development. • affective processes in development. 41. An approach consisting of several different theoretical perspectives is referred to as: • nondescript. • eclectic. • quasi-experimental. • pseudoscientific. 42. One difficulty of conducting research in the laboratory setting is that:. • it is artificial. • random assignment is impossible. • extraneous factors are difficult to control. • participants tend to be unaware that they are in an experiment 43 CORRECT The main advantage of the naturalistic observation technique involves: • real-world validity. • great control over extraneous variables. • the ability to utilize inferential statistics. • a lack of ethical controls. 44. An important part of an observational measure is that it be conducted: • in a real-world setting rather than a laboratory. • in a laboratory rather than a real-world setting. • in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance. • with the consent and prior knowledge of all people being observed. 45. Dr. Somberg is using a method of gathering information that gives an in-depth look at one individual. She is using the: • interview. • emic approach. • participant observation. • case study. 46. A common caution for correlational research is: • it is difficult to administer. • correlation does not equal causation. • correlations do not tell direction of relationship. • correlations do not indicate the strength of a relationship. 47. Experimental designs are superior to correlational approaches when dealing with: • concepts that have not been studied in any great detail.. • variables that need to be manipulated. • variables that are unethical to manipulate. • variables that can be controlled easily. 48 INCORRECT A _______ design compares individuals of different ages (e.g., 30-year-olds, 40-year-olds, and 50-year-olds) at one testing time. • cross-sectional • longitudinal • Latin squares • correlational 49. Which measure allows a researcher to compare one person's score with the scores of a large group of similar people? • case study • questionnaire. • standardized test • naturalistic observation 50. Which method of collecting information about life-span development is most likely to include a life calendar? • life-history record • case study • sequential approach • interview 51. Which research strategy is the BEST for determining cause- and-effect relationships? • experimental • correlational • observational • standardized test DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY DRILLS BY REGINA RPMTWT: @loafbred 3 year old Kidlat, spends hours building towers out of wooden blocks and occasionally knocks them over to start again. His teacher observes that he enjoys experimenting with different ways to stack the blocks to create new shapes. What type of play is Kidlat demonstrating based on Smilansky’s stages of play? • Functional play • Constructive play • Dramatic play • Formal games with rules
Correct answer: "Unknown" Constructive play involves using objects or materials to create or build something. Si Kidlat, nag-eexplore ng blocks para mag- create ng towers, which fits this type of play. Functional play is simpler—like movements or sensorimotor actions (e.g., running or jumping) Dramatic play involves imagination and pretend scenarios Formal games with rules require organized procedures or penalties Whiskerson often sits by himself in the corner of the playroom. He doesn’t interact with toys or children but appears to occasionally look around, seemingly lost in thought. Based on Parten’s dimensions of play, which type of play behavior is Whiskerson demonstrating? • Onlooker behavior • Solitary independent play • Unoccupied behavior • Parallel play Feedback Unoccupied behavior happens when a child is not actively engaging with toys, other children, or any structured activity Onlooker behavior involves watching others play, pero walang namention that Whiskerson actively observes the other kids Solitary independent play means playing alone with toys Parallel play is playing side by side with others without direct interaction At 50, Chandler Bing notices that he has to hold reading materials further away to read clearly, and he also finds it harder to hear conversations in noisy environments. What is most likely happening to Chandler's sensory functioning? • Presbyopia and presbycusis • Myopia and diminishing taste sensitivity • Loss of muscle strength and presbycusis • Diminishing olfactory cells and nearsightedness Feedback Presbyopia is the age related difficulty in focusing on near objects, that's why Chandler has to hold reading materials farther away. Presbycusis is the gradual hearing loss that usually happens as people get older, kaya nahihirapan siyang makarinig in a noisy environment Myopia (nearsightedness) and diminishing taste sensitivity are not directly related to Chandler's specific issue Loss of muscle strength and diminishing olfactory cells are also relevant age-related changes but don’t directly explain Chandler’s vision and hearing struggles During recess, Koko overhears her classmates gossiping about her, spreading false rumors to exclude her from their group. Which type of aggression does this scenario best illustrate? • Instrumental aggression • Relational aggression • Hostile attributional bias • Physical bullying Feedback Relational aggression involves harming someone’s social status or relationships. Yung pag-spread ng rumors para ma-exclude si Koko is an example of relational aggression Instrumental aggression usually happens when aggression is used to achieve a goal (e.g., taking a toy) Hostile attributional bias refers to assuming bad intentions from others Dionela, who is beginning to take responsibility for completing his schoolwork without constant reminders. However, his parents still monitor his progress and provide guidance when needed. This scenario best illustrates which of the following concepts? • Coregulation • Authoritative parenting • Internalizing behavior • Externalizing behavior Feedback Coregulation happens during a transitional stage where parents provide general supervision, while children learn self-regulation. Dionela's parents guide him and monitor his progress, pero si Dionela na mismo yung gumagawa ng assignments niya Koi spilled her juice on the table despite her mother’s repeated warnings to be careful. Her mother reacts by turning away and ignoring Koi for the rest of the afternoon. Which parenting discipline strategy is Koi’s mother using? • Power assertion • Withdrawal of love • Inductive reasoning • Positive reinforcement Feedback Withdrawal of love happens when a parent ignores, isolates, or shows disapproval to discipline a child. Yung ginawa ng mom ni Koi—ignoring her after the incident—fits this description Power assertion would involve direct enforcement like yelling or punishment, which didn’t happen here. Inductive reasoning involves explaining and teaching Positive reinforcement is about rewarding good behavior Mirako, a 6 year old, is playing with her toys and says aloud, "Okay, the car goes here, then the truck goes there." Her mom notices this and asks why she's talking to herself. Mirako explains, "I’m just figuring out where to put them." What type of speech is Mirako using? • Private speech • Pragmatics • Social speech • Fast mapping Feedback Private speech is when a child talks to themselves, usually to help guide their actions or thoughts. Yung ginagawa ni Mirako, nagpaplan siya habang naglalaro, kaya nagmo-monologue siya for self-guidance Pragmatics deals with how we use language in social context Social speech would involve trying to communicate with someone, but Mirako is just talking to herself Fast mapping refers to learning new words Normandy excels in solving complex mathematical problems and analyzing research data. However, he often struggles with adjusting to new and creative challenges like brainstorming unique ideas for a project. Which component of Sternberg's Triarchic Theory of Intelligence does Normandy demonstrate strength in? • Analytical intelligence • Creative intelligence • Practical intelligence • Emotional intelligence Feedback Analytical intelligence is about academic problem solving and computation. Normandy is good at tasks like solving math problems and analyzing data—mga skills na aligned sa analytical abilities Creative intelligence deals with imaginative problem solving, like brainstorming unique ideas, which Normandy struggles with, so it’s not the answer Practical intelligence focuses on "street smarts" or real-world application Emotional intelligence isn’t part of the Triarchic Theory Maladaptive Tendency: Ruthlessness Malignant Tendency: Inhibition • Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt • Inferiority vs. Guilt • Initiative vs. Guilt • Initiative vs. Inferiority Anne decides to drive recklessly with her friends, claiming, "Wala namang mangyayari sa akin. I’m not like those other people who get into accidents." She often feels like her emotions are deeper and more intense than anyone else’s, saying, "No one will ever understand what I’m going through." What concept best explains Anne’s mindset? • Imaginary audience • Egocentrism • Personal fable • Hypothetical-deductive reasoning Feedback Personal fable explains yung belief ni Anne na she’s unique and invulnerable. Yung reckless driving at pag feel na hindi siya maaaksidente shows this "special" mindset na parang exempted siya sa consequences. Plus, yung feeling niya na "no one understands her" is another sign ng personal fable, kasi parang super unique and intense ng emotions niya compared to others. Imaginary audience involves the belief na lahat ng tao ay nakatingin or napapansin siya Egocentrism is more general self focus and doesn’t specifically cover her sense of invulnerability Hypothetical-deductive reasoning is about systematic problem- solving ETHICS DRILLS BY YEONSU RPMTWT: @audaa_ A psychologist is working with a client who belongs to a cultural background different from their own. The client expresses beliefs that the psychologist personally disagrees with. What is the most ethical response? • Politely correct the client’s beliefs to align them with mainstream psychological knowledge. • Respect the client's beliefs and incorporate cultural sensitivity into therapy. • End the session early to avoid discussing the beliefs further. • Inform the client that their beliefs are outdated and suggest they change them. Feedback This aligns with respecting the dignity of persons by recognizing cultural diversity and avoiding discrimination. The psychologist must ensure therapy remains respectful and inclusive. A therapist is treating a 13 year old girl who shares personal concerns but asks the therapist not to tell their parents. What should the therapist do? • Promise full confidentiality and never share anything with the parents. • Respect the girl’s confidentiality unless there is a risk of harm. • Immediately inform the parents of everything discussed in the session. • Stop the therapy sessions to avoid legal complications. Feedback While confidentiality is crucial, therapists must break it only if there is a risk of harm. Since the therapist's client is 13 years old making her a minor, respecting the minor’s dignity means maintaining trust while ensuring safety. A psychologist is conducting research that requires participants to share sensitive personal information. What is the most ethical approach? • Proceed with the research without informing participants fully, so they don’t get discouraged from participating. • Obtain informed consent, explaining risks and ensuring participants voluntarily agree. • Collect data without consent, as long as names are kept anonymous. • Tell participants only the positive aspects of the study to encourage participation. Feedback Informed consent is essential to respecting participants' autonomy and dignity. Deception or withholding information would violate ethical standards. A psychologist encounters a client with a rare psychological disorder that they are not trained to treat. What is the most ethical course of action? • Continue working with the client, relying on general psychological knowledge. • Research the disorder quickly and attempt to treat the client independently. • Refer the client to a specialist with expertise in the disorder. • Continue treating the client but avoid discussing topics related to the disorder. Feedback Ethical psychologists should only practice within their areas of competence. Referring the client to a specialist ensures they receive proper care rather than risking harm through inadequate treatment. A therapist is feeling emotionally drained and notices they are struggling to focus during client sessions. What is the most ethical response? • Continue seeing clients without making any changes. • Take steps for self-care and, if necessary, take a temporary break from seeing clients. • Start shortening sessions to reduce personal stress. • Ignore personal well-being, as helping clients should always come first. Feedback Competent care includes maintaining the psychologist’s own well- being. If a therapist is unwell, they risk providing ineffective or harmful treatment. Seeking self-care ensures they can continue helping clients effectively. A client reports experiencing severe anxiety, and the psychologist decides to use a controversial therapy technique they saw online but have never been trained in. Is this ethical? • Yes, as long as the psychologist believes it will help the client. • No, because using unverified methods without proper training can cause harm. • Yes, but only if the psychologist tells the client it’s experimental. • No, unless the psychologist has seen other therapists use it successfully. Feedback Ethical practice requires psychologists to use only scientifically supported methods they are trained in. Experimenting with unverified techniques could endanger the client's well-being. A psychologist is attending a workshop on new therapeutic techniques. How should they ethically apply this knowledge? • Immediately use the techniques on clients, assuming they are effective. • Wait until they receive full training and supervision before using them. • Apply the techniques only to clients who consent to be test subjects. • Avoid using the new techniques entirely, as change in therapy is risky. Feedback Professional competence requires proper training before applying new techniques. Psychologists should ensure they are fully skilled in any method they use to protect their clients' well-being. A psychologist is publishing research results, but the data does not strongly support their hypothesis. What is the most ethical response? • Modify the data slightly to make the results look more convincing. • Publish the actual findings, even if they are not as expected. • Exclude the data that does not support the hypothesis and publish only the favorable results. • Delay publication until they find better supporting data. Feedback Integrity requires honesty in reporting research. Modifying or selectively reporting data is unethical and can mislead the scientific community. A therapist realizes they made a mistake in diagnosing a client. What should they do? • Inform the client and make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. • Ignore the mistake to avoid losing the client’s trust. • Continue with the incorrect diagnosis to maintain consistency. • Avoid discussing the issue but subtly change the treatment approach. Feedback Integrity means being honest about errors and taking responsibility for correcting them. Transparency builds trust and ensures ethical practice. A psychologist has a personal business selling wellness products. Can they ethically recommend these products to their clients? • Yes, as long as the products are beneficial. • Yes, but only if they disclose that they own the business. • No, unless they give the products at a discount. • No, because this creates a conflict of interest. Feedback Integrity requires psychologists to avoid conflicts of interest. Recommending personal products could bias their advice and exploit clients for financial gain. A psychologist is invited to speak at a public seminar and is asked to exaggerate claims about a new therapy technique to attract more participants. What should they do? • Present the technique honestly, with its actual effectiveness. • Exaggerate the claims to make the talk more engaging. • Refuse to participate in the seminar altogether. • Give vague, misleading information without making outright false statements. Feedback Integrity requires psychologists to be truthful and not mislead the public. Presenting exaggerated claims is unethical and can harm clients who rely on accurate information. A psychologist discovers that a colleague is spreading misinformation about a mental health treatment on social media. What is the most ethical response? • Publicly criticize the colleague to warn people about the misinformation. • Ignore the situation, as it is not their responsibility. • Privately discuss the issue with the colleague and encourage them to correct the information. • Report the colleague to the licensing board immediately. Feedback Ethical responsibility to society includes promoting accurate psychological knowledge. Addressing the issue privately first allows for professional resolution before escalating the matter. A psychologist is conducting a study that could benefit society, but it involves deceiving participants. How should they proceed? • Use deception without informing participants, as long as the study results are valuable. • Avoid using deception entirely, even if it means canceling the study. • Use deception but ensure participants are fully debriefed afterward. • Offer participants a financial incentive to make up for the deception. Feedback deception is sometimes necessary in research, ethical guidelines require that participants are debriefed afterward to uphold their dignity and well-being. A psychologist is invited to consult for a company that wants to improve employee mental health. However, the company also asks them to provide personal psychological data about employees. What is the most ethical course of action? * • Agree to share the data, as it could help improve workplace well-being. • Provide only partial data without identifying individuals. • Decline the offer entirely to avoid any ethical risks. • Refuse to share personal data but still offer general recommendations for improving mental health. Feedback Psychologists have a responsibility to help society but must also protect individuals' privacy. Providing general advice without breaching confidentiality is the ethical approach. A psychologist is asked to participate in a public campaign promoting mental health awareness. However, the campaign is sponsored by a company selling unproven supplements for mental well-being. What should they do? • Join the campaign but clarify that they do not endorse the supplements. • Accept the offer since the campaign benefits mental health awareness. • Decline the offer to avoid endorsing misleading products. • Participate but ask the company to remove their name from advertisements. Feedback Psychologists have a duty to society to promote ethical and accurate mental health information. Associating with a company selling unproven supplements could mislead the public and damage professional integrity.
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Question and Choices
Answer and Rationale
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1. Which of the following refers to the study of changes in human behavior and mental processes across the lifespan? a. Cognitive psychology b. Developmental psychology c. Social psychology d. Clinical psychology
Correct answer: "b. Developmental psychology" Developmental psychology focuses on the changes in human behavior, emotions, and cognition that occur from infancy through old age.
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2. The process of learning acceptable behaviors, beliefs, and values of one's culture is known as: a. Maturation b. Socialization c. Assimilation d. Adaptation
Correct answer: "b. Socialization" Socialization is the process through which individuals acquire the knowledge, values, and behaviors that are considered appropriate and acceptable within their specific cultural context.
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3. The debate between nature and nurture in developmental psychology centers around: a. The impact of genes versus environmental factors on development b. The role of cognitive processes in development c. The influence of peer interactions on development d. The effects of parenting styles on development
Correct answer: "a. The impact of genes versus environmental factors on" the nature versus nurture debate examines the extent to which genetic factors (nature) and environmental factors (nurture) contribute to an individual's development and traits.
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4. The capacity for change and growth throughout the lifespan is known as: a. Maturation b. Development c. Adaptation d. Assimilation
Correct answer: "b. Development" Development refers to the capacity for change and growth in physical, cognitive, and socioemotional domains throughout an individual's lifespan.
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5. Which of the following is an example of a critical period in human development? a. Puberty b. Adolescence c. Early childhood d. Middle adulthood
Correct answer: "c. Early childhood" A critical period refers to a specific time frame during development when certain experiences must occur for normal development to take place. Early childhood is a critical period for language acquisition and certain cognitive and social skills.
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6. The study of how genetic factors interact with environmental factors to influence development is known as: a. Epigenetics b. Genetics c. Behaviorism d. Cognitive psychology
Correct answer: "a. Epigenetics" Epigenetics is the study of how genetic factors interact with environmental factors, such as nutrition, stress, and exposure to toxins, to influence gene expression and shape development.
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7. Which of the following is an example of a continuous development process? a. Puberty b. Learning to walk c. The onset of menopause d. The acquisition of language
Correct answer: "b. Learning to walk" Continuous development refers to gradual and cumulative changes that occur over time. Learning to walk involves a continuous process of developing and refining motor skills.
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8. The belief that both nature (genes) and nurture (environment) interact and influence human development is known as: a. Nature dominance b. Nurture dominance c. Interactionist perspective d. Developmental equilibrium
Correct answer: "c. Interactionist perspective" The interactionist perspective emphasizes that both nature (genes) and nurture (environment) interact and contribute to human development, recognizing the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors.
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9. The ability of a developing organism to compensate for early damage or deprivation and adapt to environmental changes is referred to as: a. Plasticity b. Stability c. Resilience d. Vulnerability
Correct answer: "a. Plasticity" Plasticity refers to the capacity of a developing organism, such as the human brain, to change and adapt in response to experiences and environmental influences.
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10. Which of the following is an example of a normative age- graded influence on development? a. Divorce b. Cultural norms c. Personal illness d. Puberty
Correct answer: "d. Puberty" Normative age-graded influences are experiences that are typical and predictable based on an individual's age. Puberty is a normative age-graded influence as it involves the physical and hormonal changes that occur during adolescence.
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11. Which of the following is the basic unit of heredity? a. Chromosome b. Genotype c. Phenotype d. Gene
Correct answer: "d. Gene" A gene is the basic unit of heredity, carrying the instructions for specific traits.
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12. What is the term used to describe the genetic makeup of an individual? a. Phenotype b. Allele c. Genotype d. Chromosome
Correct answer: "c. Genotype" Genotype refers to the specific combination of genes an individual possesses.
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13. Julia, a college student, travels to a foreign country and expresses a belief that her own culture is superior to the local culture. This perspective is an example of: a. Cultural relativism b. Multiculturalism c. Ethnocentrism d. Cultural assimilation
Correct answer: "c. Ethnocentrism" Julia's belief that her own culture is superior to the local culture reflects an ethnocentric perspective. Ethnocentrism involves evaluating and judging other cultures based on the standards and values of one's own culture, often resulting in a biased or prejudiced view of other cultures.
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14. Which of the following factors influences gene expression? a. Environment b. Chromosomes c. Alleles d. Genes
Correct answer: "a. Environment" gene expression can be influenced by environmental factors, such as nutrition, exposure to toxins, and social interactions. 15. sarah, a social worker, believes that every culture should be appreciated and respected for its unique contributions and perspectives. this attitude reflects: • cultural relativism • multiculturalism • ethnocentrism • cultural assimilation feedback sarah's belief that every culture should be appreciated and respected for its unique contributions and perspectives aligns with a multicultural perspective. multiculturalism emphasizes the value of diversity and promotes the understanding and acceptance of different cultures, avoiding ethnocentric biases.
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16. Which type of twins share approximately 50% of their genes? I. Identical Twins II. Monozygotic Twins III. Dizygotic Twins IV. Fraternal Twins a. I and II b. I and III c. III and IV d. II and III
Correct answer: "I. Fraternal Twins" dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, develop from separate eggs fertilized by different sperm. they share about 50% of their genes, like any non-twin siblings.
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17. What is the purpose of twin studies in genetics research? a. To compare the traits of twins with non-twin individuals. b. To determine the exact contribution of genes and environment to traits. c. To identify specific genes responsible for certain traits. d. To study the effects of genetic mutations in twins.
Correct answer: "a. To compare the traits of twins with non-twin individuals." twin studies help researchers estimate the relative influence of genes and environmental factors by comparing the similarities between identical twins and fraternal twins.
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18. Which of the following is an example of a dominant genetic disorder? a. Huntington's disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Correct answer: "a. Huntington's disease" Huntington's disease is an example of a dominant genetic disorder, where a single copy of the mutated gene from either parent is sufficient to cause the disorder.
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19. Anna and David have been together for several years. They have a deep emotional connection and trust each other, but their relationship lacks passion and sexual attraction. According to Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, their love is characterized as: a. Companionate love b. Romantic love c. Consummate love d. Empty love
Correct answer: "a. Companionate love" In Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, companionate love is characterized by intimacy and commitment but lacks passion. Anna and David have a deep emotional bond and trust, representing the intimacy and commitment components of love, but their relationship lacks the passionate and sexual elements.
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20. Sarah and Michael have a passionate and intense relationship, but they frequently argue and have difficulty maintaining a long-term commitment. According to Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, their love is characterized as: a. Companionate love b. Romantic love c. Consummate love d. Fatuous love
Correct answer: "b. Romantic love" In Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, romantic love is characterized by passion and intimacy but lacks commitment. Sarah and Michael have a passionate and intense relationship, indicating the presence of passion, but their difficulties in maintaining commitment suggest a lack of long-term commitment.
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21. The life-span perspective in psychology emphasizes: a. The importance of early childhood experiences. b. Development that occurs only during adolescence. c. Continuity and change across the entire life span. d. The influence of genetic factors on development.
Correct answer: "a. The importance of early childhood experiences." the life-span perspective recognizes that development is a lifelong process involving both continuity (consistency in patterns and traits) and change (growth, learning, and adaptation) from birth until death.
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22. According to the life-span perspective, development is influenced by: a. Genetic factors only. b. Environmental factors only. c. Interaction between genetic and environmental factors. d. Biological factors only.
Correct answer: "a. Genetic factors only." the life-span perspective acknowledges that development is shaped by the interaction between genetic factors (nature) and environmental factors (nurture), rather than being solely determined by one or the other.
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23. Which of the following is a key assumption of the life-span perspective? a. Development occurs in distinct stages. b. Development is complete by early adulthood. c. Development is influenced by cultural and historical contexts. d. Development is primarily driven by biological factors.
Correct answer: "a. Development occurs in distinct stages." the life-span perspective recognizes that development is influenced by cultural norms, historical events, and societal changes that vary across time and place. it emphasizes the importance of considering these contextual factors in understanding human development.
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24. The life-span perspective considers development in multiple domains, including: a. Physical, emotional, and cognitive. b. Biological, social, and cultural. c. Motor, sensory, and intellectual. d. Behavioral, psychological, and genetic. Feedback The life-span perspective acknowledges that development occurs in various domains, including physical (e.g., changes in the body and motor skills), emotional (e.g., changes in emotions and relationships), and cognitive (e.g., changes in thinking, memory, and problem-solving abilities). 25. The life-span perspective recognizes that development is: • Linear and unidirectional. • Irreversible and fixed. • Multidimensional and multidirectional. • Predictable and predetermined.
Correct answer: " . " the life-span perspective emphasizes that development is multidimensional, involving various aspects of an individual's life, and multidirectional, with growth occurring in some areas while decline happens in others. it rejects the notion of development being solely linear or unidirectional.
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26. Which of the following best characterizes the life-span perspective's view of aging? a. Aging is solely a decline in physical and cognitive abilities. b. Aging is a universal experience across cultures. c. Aging involves gains and losses in multiple domains. d. Aging is primarily determined by genetic factors.
Correct answer: "p. spective's view of aging?" the life-span perspective acknowledges that aging is a complex process that involves both positive aspects (gains) such as wisdom and emotional well-being, as well as negative aspects (losses) such as physical decline and memory difficulties. it recognizes that the experience of aging varies across individuals and cultures.
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27. According to the life-span perspective, development is influenced by both: a. Biology and socioeconomic status. b. Early childhood experiences and genetic factors. c. Nature and nurture. d. Cultural norms and cognitive abilities.
Correct answer: "a. Biology and socioeconomic status." the life-span perspective emphasizes the importance of both genetic factors (nature) and environmental influences (nurture) in shaping human development. it recognizes that these factors interact and contribute to an individual's growth and outcomes.
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28. The life-span perspective considers development: a. As a series of predictable and predetermined stages. b. As primarily driven by biological maturation. c. As influenced by historical and social changes. d. As a process that occurs exclusively in childhood.
Correct answer: "a. As a series of predictable and predetermined stages." the life-span perspective recognizes that development occurs in a dynamic context influenced by historical, social, and cultural changes. it moves beyond the notion that development is limited to childhood and acknowledges its ongoing nature throughout the entire life span.
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29. Which of the following is an example of a life event that can impact development according to the life-span perspective? a. Physical growth spurts during adolescence. b. Transition from high school to college. c. Genetic factors inherited from parents. d. Stable personality traits from childhood.
Correct answer: "i. act development according to the life-span perspective?" according to the life-span perspective, life events such as transitions, milestones, and societal changes can significantly impact an individual's development. the transition from high school to college represents a significant life event that can influence various aspects of development, including identity formation, social relationships, and academic achievement.
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30. The life-span perspective acknowledges that development is influenced by both: a. Genetics and socioeconomic status. b. Prenatal factors and childhood experiences. c. Nature and nurture. d. Cognitive abilities and personality traits.
Correct answer: "i. luenced by both:" the life-span perspective emphasizes that development is influenced by both genetic factors (nature) and environmental influences (nurture). it recognizes the complex interaction between these factors in shaping human development and behavior.
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31. According to the Mechanistic Model, development is primarily driven by: a. Genetic factors b. External stimuli and reinforcement c. Internal growth and maturation d. Cultural norms and expectations
Correct answer: "d. Cultural norms and expectations" the mechanistic model views development as a result of external environmental influences, such as rewards, punishments, and social reinforcement, which shape behavior and learning.
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32. The Organismic Model emphasizes that development occurs through: a. Passive responses to environmental stimuli b. Social interactions and cultural norms c. Active exploration and self-regulation d. Genetic programming and predetermined stages
Correct answer: "a. Passive responses to environmental stimuli" the organismic model proposes that development is driven by the active engagement of the individual with their environment. it emphasizes the role of an individual's internal drive, curiosity, and ability to regulate their own behavior and learning.
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33. The Mechanistic Model views development as: a. Continuous and gradual b. Discontinuous and stage-based c. Influenced by cultural norms and values d. Determined by genetic factors
Correct answer: "a. Continuous and gradual" the mechanistic model sees development as a continuous process, with changes occurring incrementally over time. it rejects the notion of distinct stages and emphasizes the importance of environmental influences.
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34. The Organismic Model proposes that development follows: a. Linear and predictable patterns b. Preprogrammed and fixed stages c. Complex and interconnected pathways d. Cultural and socially determined trajectories
Correct answer: "a. Linear and predictable patterns" the organismic model suggests that development follows dynamic and complex pathways, influenced by interactions between the individual and their environment. it recognizes that development is influenced by multiple factors and is not strictly predetermined or fixed.
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35. Normative influences refer to: a. Genetic factors that shape development b. Cultural and societal expectations c. Individual differences and unique characteristics d. Changes that occur during critical periods
Correct answer: "a. Genetic factors that shape development" normative influences are societal or cultural expectations and norms that shape an individual's behavior, values, and development. they reflect the social standards and expectations within a particular context.
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36. The Mechanistic Model is closely aligned with which theoretical approach? a. Social learning theory b. Evolutionary psychology c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Ecological systems theory
Correct answer: "a. Social learning theory" the mechanistic model aligns with social learning theory, which emphasizes the importance of external environmental influences, reinforcement, and observational learning in shaping behavior and development.
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37. The Organismic Model highlights the role of: a. Cognitive processes and problem-solving b. Genetic determinism and inherited traits c. Social interactions and cultural norms d. Psychosexual stages and unconscious conflicts
Correct answer: "a. Cognitive processes and problem-solving" the organismic model emphasizes the active role of an individual's cognitive processes, such as perception, memory, problem-solving, and reasoning, in driving their development and adaptation to the environment.
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38. Normative influences are primarily concerned with: a. Individual differences and unique characteristics b. Developmental changes during critical periods c. Cultural and societal expectations d. Genetic factors and inherited traits
Correct answer: "a. Individual differences and unique characteristics" normative influences focus on the cultural and societal expectations that shape an individual's behavior, values, and development. they represent the shared norms, values, and standards within a specific cultural or social group.
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39. The Mechanistic Model is often associated with which approach to psychology? a. Behaviorism b. Humanistic psychology c. Cognitive psychology d. Psychodynamic theory
Correct answer: "b. Humanistic psychology" the mechanistic model aligns with the behaviorist approach to psychology, which emphasizes the role of environmental influences, conditioning, and reinforcement in shaping behavior and development. 40. normative influences can be categorized as: • universal or individual • developmental or contextual • biological or environmental • prescriptive or proscriptive feedback normative influences can be categorized as developmental, referring to changes that occur during specific periods of development, or contextual, referring to the influence of cultural, societal, and environmental factors on an individual's development and behavior.
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41. The American Psychological Association (AP provides guidelines for ethical conduct in: a. Research and practice b. Counseling and therapy c. Teaching and supervision d. All of the above
Correct answer: "g. delines for ethical conduct in:" the apa provides guidelines for ethical conduct in all areas of psychology, including research, practice, counseling, therapy, teaching, and supervision. these guidelines ensure that psychologists uphold the highest standards of professionalism and ethical behavior.
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42. Informed consent is an ethical principle that emphasizes the importance of: a. Protecting participants' privacy b. Providing accurate and unbiased information c. Maintaining confidentiality of client information d. Respecting participants' autonomy and voluntary participation
Correct answer: "a. " informed consent requires that participants in research or clients in therapy have a clear understanding of the purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits involved. it emphasizes their right to make an informed decision about whether to participate.
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43. The APA encourages psychologists to maintain confidentiality, except when: a. There is a legal obligation to disclose information b. It is necessary to protect the welfare of the psychologist c. Disclosure is necessary to advance scientific knowledge d. All of the above
Correct answer: "a. There is a legal obligation to disclose information" while psychologists are generally expected to maintain confidentiality, there are situations where they may be legally or ethically obligated to disclose information. these include situations where there is a duty to warn or protect others from harm, when required by law, or when necessary to advance scientific knowledge with appropriate safeguards.
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44. The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) promotes: a. Research and scholarship in psychology. b. Collaboration with international psychology organizations. c. Accessible mental healthcare for all individuals. d. All of the above.
Correct answer: "p. chology" the pap promotes research and scholarship in psychology, collaboration with international psychology organizations to foster knowledge exchange and professional growth, and advocates for accessible mental healthcare for all individuals in the philippines.
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45. The PAP emphasizes the importance of: a. Ethical principles in psychological research and practice. b. Biomedical approaches to psychological interventions. c. Exclusive focus on individual psychological disorders. d. Rigid adherence to specific theoretical orientations.
Correct answer: "a. Ethical principles in psychological research and practice." the pap places a strong emphasis on ethical principles in conducting research and providing psychological services. it promotes the highest standards of ethical conduct to ensure the well-being and protection of individuals participating in research or seeking psychological help.
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46. The PAP promotes the development of: a. Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice. b. Exclusion of psychological research from policy-making. c. Limited involvement in community outreach. d. Biomedical models as the sole approach to psychology. Correct answer Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice.
Correct answer: "a. Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice." the pap promotes the development of cultural competence and sensitivity among psychologists. this includes understanding and respecting diverse cultural backgrounds, values, and beliefs of clients to provide effective and appropriate psychological services that are sensitive to cultural differences and needs.
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47. The American Psychological Association (AP was founded in: a. 1892 b. 1901 c. 1917 d. 1955
Correct answer: "a. 1892" The American Psychological Association (AP was founded in 1892 by a small group of psychologists and has since grown to become the largest professional organization for psychologists in the United States. It was initially established to advance psychology as a science and profession.
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48. The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) was established in: a. 1939 b. 1957 c. 1962 d. 1971
Correct answer: "a. 1939" The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) was established in 1939 as a professional organization for psychologists in the Philippines. It was formed with the aim of promoting the development of psychology as a discipline and profession in the country.
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49. The first president of the APA was: a. G. Stanley Hall b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. B. F. Skinner
Correct answer: "a. G. Stanley Hall" g. stanley hall served as the first president of the american psychological association (ap from 1892 to 1893. he was a prominent psychologist and played a significant role in establishing psychology as a distinct scientific discipline in the united states.
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50. The first president of the PAP was: Lourdes Ignacio Virgilio Enriquez Natividad Dayan Virginia C. Caintic Feedback Virgilio Enriquez served as the first president of the Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) from 1958 to 1963. He was a pioneer in the field of Filipino psychology and played a significant role in promoting the indigenous psychologies of the Philippines. 51. The APA played a key role in the development of which psychological testing standard? a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale b. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory d. Rorschach Inkblot Test
Correct answer: "V. gilio Enriquez served as the first president of the Psychological" the apa played a significant role in the development and standardization of the mmpi, which is one of the most widely used psychological tests for assessing personality traits and psychopathology.
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52. The PAP has been actively involved in promoting the development of: a. Indigenous psychologies b. Behavior therapy techniques c. Neuropsychological assessments d. Psychoanalytic theories
Correct answer: "a. Indigenous psychologies" The PAP has been actively involved in promoting the development and recognition of indigenous psychologies in the Philippines. It aims to integrate traditional Filipino knowledge, values, and practices with Western psychology to create a culturally sensitive and relevant approach to psychological research and practice.
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53. The APA played a crucial role in the establishment of which major ethics code? a. Belmont Report b. Nuremberg Code c. Helsinki Declaration d. APA Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct
Correct answer: "C. duct" the apa played a crucial role in the establishment and ongoing revision of its own ethics code, which is known as the ethical principles of psychologists and code of conduct. this code provides guidelines for ethical behavior in research, teaching, and practice for psychologists in the united states.
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54. The PAP has been actively involved in advocating for the improvement of: a. Mental healthcare policies and services b. Educational assessment practices c. Criminal justice system reforms d. Industrial-organizational psychology practices
Correct answer: "a. Mental healthcare policies and services" The PAP has been actively involved in advocating for the improvement of mental healthcare policies and services in the Philippines. It works to promote access to quality mental healthcare, raise awareness about mental health issues, and advocate for the rights and well-being of individuals with mental health concerns.
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55. Which research design examines changes and differences between age groups at a single point in time? a. Cross-sectional design b. Longitudinal design c. Sequential design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "a. Cross-sectional design" cross-sectional designs involve collecting data from different age groups at a single point in time. researchers can compare different age groups to examine developmental changes or differences in variables.
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56. Which research design follows the same participants over an extended period of time? a. Cross-sectional design b. Experimental design c. Longitudinal design d. Quasi-experimental design Correct answer Longitudinal design
Correct answer: "c. Longitudinal design" longitudinal designs involve following the same participants over an extended period of time. researchers collect data at multiple time points, allowing them to examine individual trajectories of development and changes over time.
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57. Which research design combines elements of both cross- sectional and longitudinal designs? a. Cross-sequential design b. Sequential design c. Experimental design d. Correlational design
Correct answer: "b. Sequential design" sequential designs involve collecting data from different age groups at multiple time points. this design allows researchers to examine both cross-sectional and longitudinal effects and provides a more comprehensive understanding of development.
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58. Which research design is best suited for studying the effects of a specific intervention or treatment on development? a. Cross-sectional design b. Longitudinal design c. Experimental design d. Quasi-experimental design
Correct answer: "c. Experimental design" experimental designs involve manipulating an independent variable to observe its effects on a dependent variable. researchers can use this design to study the effects of specific interventions or treatments on developmental outcomes.
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59. Which research design is used when random assignment to groups is not possible? a. Cross-sectional design b. Quasi-experimental design c. Longitudinal design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "b. Quasi-experimental design" quasi-experimental designs are used when random assignment to groups is not possible or practical. researchers still manipulate an independent variable but do not have full control over the assignment of participants to groups.
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60. Which research design combines different age groups, multiple time points, and experimental manipulation? a. Sequential design b. Cross-sectional design c. Longitudinal design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "a. Sequential design" sequential designs involve combining different age groups, multiple time points, and experimental manipulation. this design allows researchers to examine both age-related and cohort-related effects on development while also manipulating variables of interest.
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61. According to Sigmund Freud's Psychosexual Theory, which stage is associated with the focus on developing sexual and romantic relationships? a. Oral stage b. Anal stage c. Phallic stage d. Latency stage
Correct answer: "c. Phallic stage" In Freud's Psychosexual Theory, the phallic stage occurs during the preschool years (around 3 to 6 years ol. During this stage, children develop curiosity about their bodies and become aware of gender differences. The Oedipus and Electra complexes are significant conflicts during this stage, related to the child's developing sexual and romantic feelings.
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62. Olivia is a 65-year-old retiree who spends her time reflecting on her life and feeling a sense of fulfillment and satisfaction. She enjoys sharing her wisdom with younger generations and finds purpose in mentoring others. Olivia is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Identity vs. Role Confusion c. Ego Integrity vs. Despair d. Generativity vs. Stagnation
Correct answer: "c. Ego Integrity vs. Despair" olivia's reflection on her life, feeling of fulfillment, and sharing wisdom with younger generations indicate that she is in the stage of ego integrity vs. despair. this stage occurs during late adulthood, and individuals strive to develop a sense of integrity and satisfaction with their life choices.
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63. Daniel, a 16-year-old high school student, is exploring various interests, values, and potential career paths. He is actively seeking to understand his own identity and experimenting with different roles and relationships. Daniel is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt c. Identity vs. Role Confusion d. Intimacy vs. Isolation
Correct answer: "c. Identity vs. Role Confusion" daniel's active exploration of interests, values, and potential career paths, as well as his search for identity, indicate that he is in the stage of identity vs. role confusion. this stage occurs during adolescence, and individuals strive to establish a sense of identity and a coherent understanding of themselves.
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64. Maya, a 9-year-old, is eagerly participating in extracurricular activities, taking pride in her accomplishments, and developing a sense of competence. She is motivated to learn new skills and receives praise for her efforts. Maya is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Initiative vs. Guilt b. Industry vs. Inferiority c. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt d. Integrity vs. Despair
Correct answer: "b. Industry vs. Inferiority" maya's participation in extracurricular activities, pride in her accomplishments, and motivation to learn new skills indicate that she is in the stage of industry vs. inferiority. this stage occurs during middle childhood, and individuals strive to develop a sense of competence and industry.
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65. Ethan, a 4-year-old, enjoys playing with blocks and building various structures. He is able to mentally represent objects and actions, such as imagining how a tower of blocks would look if he added more blocks to it. Ethan is most likely in which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" ethan's ability to mentally represent objects and actions and imagine how a tower of blocks would look with more blocks indicates that he is in the preoperational stage. this stage occurs roughly from 2 to 7 years old and is characterized by the development of symbolic thought, pretend play, and egocentric thinking.
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66. Mia, a 10-year-old, is given a conservation task where she is shown two identical glasses filled with the same amount of water. One glass is then poured into a taller, narrower glass, which appears to have more water. Mia concludes that the taller glass has more water. Mia's response is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" mia's inability to understand conservation, as evidenced by her belief that the taller glass has more water, is characteristic of the preoperational stage. in this stage, children have difficulty grasping the concept of conservation and often focus on perceptual aspects rather than logical reasoning.
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67. Lily, a 7-year-old, is able to understand that if A is greater than B and B is greater than C, then A is also greater than C. She can apply this transitive logic to various relationships. Lily's ability to understand transitivity is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "c. Concrete operational stage" lily's ability to understand transitivity, as demonstrated by her understanding of the relationship between a, b, and c, is characteristic of the concrete operational stage. this stage typically occurs around 7 to 11 years old and is characterized by the ability to think logically about concrete objects and events.
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68. Ethan, a 6-month-old baby, is playing with a colorful rattle. He shakes the rattle and watches it move. As he shakes it again, he begins to smile and shake it more vigorously. Ethan is most likely demonstrating which substage of Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage? a. Object permanence b. Circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Tertiary circular reactions
Correct answer: "b. Circular reactions" Ethan's behavior of shaking the rattle and smiling in response to the movement is characteristic of the circular reactions substage. During this substage (around 4 to 8 months ol, infants repeat actions to explore their effects and learn about cause and effect relationships.
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69. Ava, a 16-months-old, is pretending to cook using her cookware set toys with a dish she saw in her mother. According to Piaget, Ava's action suggests the development of which concept? a. Object permanence b. Mental representation c. Deferred imitation d. Symbolic play
Correct answer: "c. Deferred imitation" Deferred imitation is a psychological term for a process that all humans undergo, most notably during early childhood. It is a process in which a child will observe someone, usually an adult, completing an action. The child will then, after a period of time, imitate the action.
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70. Noah, a 5-month-old, is playing with a toy car. He accidentally pushes it off the table, but he doesn't show any reaction or attempt to retrieve the car. Noah's behavior is characteristic of which substage of Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage? a. Reflexive schemes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Tertiary circular reactions Feedback Noah's lack of reaction or attempts to retrieve the toy car suggests that he is in the reflexive schemes substage of the Sensorimotor Stage. During this substage (from birth to 1 month ol, infants' actions are reflexive and not purposeful or goal-directed. 71. Sofia, a 9-year-old, is given a conservation task where she is shown two identical glasses filled with the same amount of water. One glass is then poured into a taller, narrower glass, which appears to have more water. Sofia correctly concludes that the amount of water remains the same. Sofia's response is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? • Sensorimotor stage • Preoperational stage • Concrete operational stage • Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "•. " sofia's ability to correctly conclude that the amount of water remains the same, despite the change in appearance, reflects her understanding of conservation. conservation is a hallmark of the concrete operational stage (around 7 to 11 years ol, during which children acquire the ability to think logically about concrete objects and events.
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72. Ethan, an 11-year-old, is able to understand and apply logical principles to solve arithmetic problems. He can perform mental operations, such as mentally calculating the area of a rectangle based on its dimensions. Ethan's ability to engage in mental operations is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "c. Concrete operational stage" ethan's ability to engage in mental operations, such as mentally calculating the area of a rectangle, reflects his cognitive development in the concrete operational stage. mental operations involve the ability to manipulate and reason about abstract concepts, which is a hallmark of this stage.
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73. Sarah, a 6-year-old, witnesses her classmate stealing a toy from another student's bag. When asked about it, Sarah responds, "It's wrong to steal because you'll get punished." Sarah's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Preconventional level, Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience Orientation b. Preconventional level, Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange c. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships d. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
Correct answer: "S. ge" sarah's response that stealing is wrong because of the fear of punishment reflects the moral reasoning of stage 1. at this stage, individuals focus on avoiding punishment and obeying authority.
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74. Emma, a 9-year-old, is asked to return a wallet she found on the street to its owner. Emma decides to return the wallet because she believes it's the right thing to do and wants to be seen as a trustworthy person. Emma's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Preconventional level, Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience Orientation b. Preconventional level, Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange c. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships d. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
Correct answer: "S. ge" emma's decision to return the wallet based on her belief that it's the right thing to do and to be seen as trustworthy reflects the moral reasoning of stage 3. at this stage, individuals seek to maintain good interpersonal relationships and conform to social expectations.
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75. Jacob, a 16-year-old, actively participates in volunteering activities and supports social justice causes because he believes it's his moral duty to contribute to the well-being of others. Jacob's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships b. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order c. Postconventional level, Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights d. Postconventional level, Stage 6: Universal Ethical Principles
Correct answer: "S. ge" jacob's active participation in volunteering activities based on his belief in contributing to the well-being of others reflects the moral reasoning of stage 6. at this highest stage of moral development, individuals operate based on universal ethical principles that transcend specific social norms.
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76. Which age group’s mental health was most affected by the restrictions associated with COVID-19? a. 18–34 b. 35–49 c. 50–64 d. ≥65 77. Maria, a 7-year-old, is having difficulty adjusting to her new school environment. She feels overwhelmed by the large class size and struggles to make friends. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Maria's experience? • Microsystem • Mesosystem • Exosystem • Macrosystem
Correct answer: "•. " maria's difficulty adjusting to the new school environment and struggling to make friends are influenced by the interactions and relationships within her immediate settings, such as her interactions with classmates and teachers. the mesosystem refers to the connections and interactions between different microsystems.
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78. James, a 15-year-old, spends a significant amount of time playing video games and engaging in online communities. He finds support, friendship, and a sense of belonging through these virtual interactions. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting James' experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "c. Exosystem" James' experience of finding support, friendship, and a sense of belonging through online communities is influenced by the exosystem. The exosystem represents broader social settings that indirectly affect an individual, such as societal norms, media, and technology.
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79. Alex, a 3-year-old, attends a high-quality early childhood education program where he receives nurturing care and developmentally appropriate activities. The program emphasizes positive relationships and individualized attention. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Alex's experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "a. Microsystem" Alex's experience of attending a high-quality early childhood education program, receiving nurturing care, and engaging in developmentally appropriate activities is influenced by the microsystem. The microsystem refers to the immediate settings in which an individual interacts, such as family, school, and peer groups.
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80. Emily, a 25-year-old, grew up in a society that promotes gender equality and provides ample opportunities for women's empowerment. She has pursued higher education, established a successful career, and actively participates in leadership roles. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Emily's experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "d. Macrosystem" Emily's experience of growing up in a society that promotes gender equality, provides opportunities for women's empowerment, and supports her educational and career pursuits is influenced by the macrosystem. The macrosystem encompasses cultural values, societal norms, and broader social and political ideologies.
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81. Sarah, a 4-year-old, is playing with building blocks in a preschool classroom. She is struggling to stack the blocks in a stable tower. The teacher, noticing her difficulty, provides guidance and demonstrates the proper technique for building a stable tower. This interaction is an example of: a. Scaffolding b. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "a. Scaffolding" The teacher providing guidance and demonstrating the proper technique for building a stable tower is an example of scaffolding in Sociocultural Theory. Scaffolding refers to the support or assistance provided by a more knowledgeable individual to help a learner accomplish a task that they would not be able to do independently.
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82. Jack, a 7-year-old, is struggling with a complex math problem. His classmate, Lily, who has a better understanding of the topic, sits next to him and explains the steps to solve the problem. Jack successfully solves the problem with Lily's help. This scenario best illustrates: a. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) b. Scaffolding c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "H. classmate, Lily, who has a better understanding of the topic," jack's interaction with lily, where she explains the steps to solve the complex math problem and jack successfully solves it with her help, illustrates the zone of proximal development. the zpd refers to the range of tasks that a learner cannot yet accomplish independently but can achieve with the guidance or support of a more knowledgeable person.
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83. Ethan, a 15-year-old, is working on a group project with his classmates. They are assigned to research and present a topic to the class. During their collaboration, Ethan actively listens to his classmates' ideas, provides feedback, and builds upon their contributions. This collaborative process reflects the importance of: a. Scaffolding b. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "d. Social interaction" Ethan's active listening, providing feedback, and building upon his classmates' contributions during the group project exemplify the importance of social interaction in Sociocultural Theory. Vygotsky emphasized the role of social interaction and collaboration in shaping cognitive development and learning.
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84. Emma, a 2-year-old, demonstrates an ________ attachment style. When her primary caregiver returns after a brief separation, Emma shows little interest or reaction, avoiding physical contact. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "b. Avoidant attachment" Emma's lack of interest or reaction and avoidance of physical contact upon the return of her primary caregiver are consistent with the behavior of a child with an avoidant attachment style. In this attachment pattern, children may appear emotionally distant or detached and minimize seeking comfort from the caregiver.
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85. Noah, a 1-year-old, exhibits a ________ attachment style. When his primary caregiver returns after a brief separation, Noah shows ambivalent behavior, both seeking comfort and avoiding contact. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "c. Resistant attachment" Noah's ambivalent behavior, seeking comfort but also resisting contact upon the return of his primary caregiver, aligns with the behavior of a child with a resistant attachment style. In this attachment pattern, children may display clingy or inconsistent behavior, expressing a mix of approach and resistance toward the caregiver.
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86. Ethan, a 2-year-old, shows ________ behavior during a reunion with his primary caregiver after a brief separation. He displays a combination of contradictory behaviors, such as freezing, appearing confused, or displaying stereotypical movements. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "d. Disorganized attachment" Ethan's display of contradictory behaviors, freezing, confusion, or stereotypical movements during the reunion with his primary caregiver, reflects the behavior of a child with a disorganized attachment style. Disorganized attachment is characterized by inconsistent or atypical behaviors and is often associated with adverse caregiving experiences.
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87. Mia, a 1-year-old, is actively exploring her environment but frequently checks back with her primary caregiver, seeking reassurance and comfort. Mia displays a balance between exploration and attachment behaviors. This behavior is consistent with which developmental phase described by Margaret Mahler? a. Rapprochement b. Separation-individuation c. Symbiotic phase d. Object constancy
Correct answer: "a. Rapprochement" Mia's active exploration of her environment while frequently checking back with her primary caregiver for reassurance and comfort aligns with the behavior observed during the Rapprochement phase described by Mahler. During this phase (around 1 to 2 years ol, children develop a balance between the need for autonomy and the need for a secure attachment figure.
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88. Sarah, a 16-year-old, has always accepted her parents' religious beliefs without question. However, recently, she has started to explore different religions and beliefs to determine her own spiritual path. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Sarah's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "c. Identity moratorium" sarah's exploration of different religions and beliefs indicates a state of identity moratorium. in this identity status, individuals are actively exploring different options and possibilities without having made firm commitments.
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89. Jake, an 18-year-old, has decided to pursue a career in medicine, which aligns with his long-standing interest in healthcare. He has considered various factors, such as his skills, values, and future goals, and has made a commitment to his career choice. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Jake's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "d. Identity achievement" jake's consideration of different factors and his commitment to a career in medicine align with the identity achievement status. in this identity status, individuals have actively explored options and made firm commitments based on their own values and goals.
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90. Emma, a 20-year-old, has always felt pressured by her parents to follow a particular career path. Despite feeling unsure and unenthusiastic about it, Emma decides to pursue that career because it is expected of her. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Emma's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "b. Identity foreclosure" Emma's decision to pursue a career that is expected of her, without exploring other options or considering her own interests and values, reflects the identity foreclosure status. In this identity status, individuals make commitments without engaging in exploration.
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91. Liam, a 19-year-old, is uncertain about his career path and has not made any firm commitments yet. He feels confused and overwhelmed by the many possibilities and is unsure of his own abilities and interests. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Liam's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "a. Identity diffusion" Liam's uncertainty, confusion, and lack of firm commitments reflect the identity diffusion status. In this identity status, individuals have not yet explored different options or made commitments, often resulting in a state of confusion and uncertainty.
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92. Jeremy is born with a genetic disorder that affects the production of red blood cells, leading to anemia. This condition is most likely caused by a: a. Gene-linked abnormality b. Chromosomal abnormality c. Single-gene disorder d. Polygenic disorder
Correct answer: "c. Single-gene disorder" jeremy's genetic disorder affecting the production of red blood cells is likely caused by a mutation or abnormality in a single gene. single-gene disorders are caused by changes in a specific gene and can result in various health conditions.
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93. Emma is born with Down syndrome, a condition characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21. This condition is an example of a: a. Gene-linked abnormality b. Chromosomal abnormality c. Single-gene disorder d. Polygenic disorder
Correct answer: "b. Chromosomal abnormality" emma's condition of having an extra copy of chromosome 21 is an example of a chromosomal abnormality. chromosomal abnormalities occur when there are structural changes or numerical variations in the chromosomes.
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94. Ava, a 30-year-old, has a family history of Alzheimer's disease, a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. She is concerned about her own risk of developing the condition. Alzheimer's disease is primarily influenced by: a. Genetic and environmental factors b. Autosomal recessive inheritance c. Chromosomal abnormalities d. Multifactorial inheritance
Correct answer: "a. Genetic and environmental factors" alzheimer's disease is primarily influenced by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. while specific genes can contribute to the risk of developing the disease, other factors such as lifestyle, diet, and environmental exposures also play a role.
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95. Sarah, a 30-year-old, is diagnosed with Down syndrome. This condition is caused by an extra copy of which chromosome? a. Chromosome 21 b. Chromosome 18 c. Chromosome X d. Chromosome Y
Correct answer: "a. Chromosome 21" Down syndrome, also known as Trisomy 21, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21. Individuals with Down syndrome have three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two copies.
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96. Christine, a 15-year-old, is diagnosed with Turner syndrome. This condition is characterized by the absence or partial absence of which chromosome? a. Chromosome 21 b. Chromosome 18 c. Chromosome X d. Chromosome Y
Correct answer: "T. s condition is characterized by the absence or partial absence" turner syndrome is caused by the absence or partial absence of one of the x chromosomes in females. instead of having the usual xx chromosome pattern, individuals with turner syndrome have a single x chromosome.
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97. During which period of prenatal development do major organ systems form, making the embryo particularly vulnerable to teratogens? a. Germinal period b. Embryonic period c. Fetal period d. Preconception period
Correct answer: "b. Embryonic period" the embryonic period, which occurs from approximately the third to the eighth week of prenatal development, is a critical time for the formation and development of major organ systems. it is during this period that the embryo is particularly vulnerable to teratogens, which are substances that can cause developmental abnormalities.
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98. Which of the following is a potential consequence of maternal exposure to harmful substances, such as drugs or alcohol, during prenatal development? a. Impaired cognitive development b. Delayed physical growth c. Increased risk of socioemotional difficulties d. All of the above
Correct answer: "b. Delayed physical growth" maternal exposure to harmful substances during prenatal development can have detrimental effects on various aspects of the developing fetus. it can lead to impaired cognitive development, delayed physical growth, and an increased risk of socioemotional difficulties in the child.
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99. Which sense is the most developed and functional during prenatal development? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Taste d. Touch
Correct answer: "b. Hearing" The sense of hearing is the most developed and functional sense during prenatal development. By the third trimester of pregnancy, the fetus can hear and respond to sounds in the environment. This early exposure to auditory stimuli can have an impact on later cognitive and language development.
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100. Which factor has the greatest influence on healthy prenatal development? a. Genetic factors b. Environmental factors c. Socioeconomic factors d. Cultural factors
Correct answer: "a. Genetic factors" While genetic factors play a significant role in prenatal development, environmental factors, such as the mother's nutrition, exposure to toxins, and overall health, have the greatest influence on healthy prenatal development. The prenatal environment, including the mother's lifestyle and care, can significantly impact the developing fetus.
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101. When a newborn's cheek is touched, they turn their head toward the stimulus and begin sucking. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "b. Rooting reflex" The rooting reflex is triggered when a newborn's cheek is touched, causing them to turn their head toward the stimulus in search of a nipple or a source of food. This reflex helps facilitate breastfeeding and early feeding behaviors.
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102. When a newborn is startled or experiences a sudden loss of support, they spread their arms and then bring them back toward the body. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "a. Moro reflex" The Moro reflex is commonly referred to as the startle reflex. It is triggered by sudden stimuli, such as a loud noise or a sensation of falling, and results in the newborn spreading their arms and then bringing them back toward the body. This reflex is thought to have served a protective function in ancestral human infants.
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103. When the sole of a newborn's foot is stroked, their toes fan out and curl upward. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "c. Babinski reflex" The Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the sole of a newborn's foot. The reflex causes the toes to fan out and curl upward. This response is a normal reflex in newborns, but it typically disappears as the nervous system develops.
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104. When an object is placed in a newborn's palm or fingers, they automatically grasp it. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "d. Grasp reflex" The grasp reflex is observed when an object is placed in a newborn's palm or fingers, and they automatically close their hand around the object. This reflex is an early motor response and typically disappears after a few months.
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105. When a newborn's head is tilted to one side, they extend the arm and leg on that side while flexing the opposite arm and leg. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Tonic neck reflex
Correct answer: "d. Tonic neck reflex" the tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex or asymmetric tonic neck reflex, is observed when a newborn's head is turned to one side. in response, the arm and leg on the side the head is facing extend, while the opposite arm and leg flex. this reflex helps lay the foundation for later voluntary movements.
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106. When the roof of a newborn's mouth is touched, they begin to suck. This reflex is known as the: a. Babinski reflex b. Suck reflex c. Rooting reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "b. Suck reflex" The suck reflex is triggered when the roof of a newborn's mouth is touched, initiating a rhythmic sucking motion. This reflex is vital for feeding and allows newborns to obtain nourishment from breastfeeding or bottle-feeding.
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107. When a newborn's head is turned to one side, they automatically rotate their body in the same direction. This reflex is known as the: a. Tonic neck reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "a. Tonic neck reflex" the tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex or asymmetric tonic neck reflex, is observed when a newborn's head is turned to one side. in response, the newborn automatically rotates their body in the same direction. this reflex aids in the development of coordination and helps prepare the infant for more complex movements.
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108. When a newborn's foot is pressed against a surface, they push against it with their toes. This reflex is known as the: a. Plantar reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "a. Plantar reflex" The plantar reflex is observed when a newborn's foot is pressed against a surface, causing them to push against it with their toes. This reflex helps with balance and posture development.
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109. When a newborn's lips are touched or stroked, they pucker their lips as if preparing to suck. This reflex is known as the: a. Suck reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "a. Suck reflex" The suck reflex is triggered when a newborn's lips are touched or stroked, resulting in the puckering of their lips as if preparing to suck. This reflex facilitates feeding and the intake of nourishment.
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110. When a newborn is held in an upright position with their feet touching a solid surface, they make stepping movements as if walking. This reflex is known as the: a. Walking reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "a. Walking reflex" the walking reflex, also referred to as the stepping reflex, is observed when a newborn is held upright with their feet touching a solid surface. they will make stepping movements as if attempting to walk. although this reflex is present at birth, it typically disappears within a few weeks.
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111. Emily, a 9-month-old infant, does not respond when her name is called and shows minimal interest in social interactions. These behaviors may be indicative of: a. Autism spectrum disorder b. Sensory processing disorder c. Separation anxiety d. Language delay
Correct answer: "a. Autism spectrum disorder" The lack of response to name calling and minimal interest in social interactions in a 9-month-old infant may raise concerns about autism spectrum disorder (AS. It is important to consult with healthcare professionals for a comprehensive evaluation and diagnosis.
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112. Liam, a 15-month-old toddler, exhibits excessive tantrums, difficulties with transitions, and intense emotional reactions. These behaviors may be suggestive of: a. Sensory processing disorder b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Normal temperamental variations d. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
Correct answer: "c. Normal temperamental variations" excessive tantrums, difficulties with transitions, and intense emotional reactions are common in toddlers and often represent normal temperamental variations. toddlers are learning to regulate their emotions and assert their independence, which can manifest in emotional outbursts.
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113. Chloe, a 6-month-old infant, has not yet rolled over or shown any attempts to sit independently. This delay in motor milestones may warrant further assessment for: a. Gross motor delay b. Fine motor delay c. Sensory processing disorder d. Cognitive impairment
Correct answer: "a. Gross motor delay" the absence of rolling over or attempts to sit independently in a 6- month-old infant may indicate a gross motor delay. it is important to monitor motor development and consult a healthcare professional if there are significant delays or concerns.
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114. Emma, a 4-year-old, often struggles with sharing toys and taking turns during playtime. This behavior is typical of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal egocentrism c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Social anxiety disorder
Correct answer: "t. ing turns during playtime. This behavior is typical of:" during early childhood, children are still developing their understanding of others' perspectives and may exhibit egocentric behaviors, such as difficulty sharing and taking turns. this behavior is a typical part of their cognitive and social-emotional development.
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115. Liam, a 5-year-old, experiences difficulties following instructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured activities. These challenges may raise concerns about: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal developmental variations c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Social communication disorder
Correct answer: "i. tructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured" difficulties in following instructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured activities in a 5-year-old may raise concerns about attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adh. a comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals is needed to make an accurate diagnosis.
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116. Sophia, a 3-year-old, frequently engages in imaginary play, creating elaborate storylines and characters. This imaginative play is an indication of: a. Fantasy-prone personality disorder b. Normal pretend play c. Autism spectrum disorder d. Oppositional defiant disorder
Correct answer: "i. an indication of:" engaging in imaginary play, creating elaborate storylines, and inventing characters is a normal part of early childhood development. pretend play enhances creativity, social skills, and cognitive abilities, fostering overall development.
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117. Emily, an 8-year-old, frequently struggles with organizing her school materials, keeping track of assignments, and completing tasks on time. These challenges may be indicative of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Learning difficulties or attention deficits c. Normal developmental variations d. Social communication disorder
Correct answer: "s. ool materials, keeping track of assignments, and completing" difficulties in organizing materials, managing assignments, and completing tasks on time in an 8-year-old may indicate learning difficulties or attention deficits. a comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals can help identify specific areas of need and provide appropriate support.
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118. Liam, a 10-year-old, often experiences negative emotions, such as sadness or irritability, and demonstrates difficulties regulating his emotions. These challenges may raise concerns about: a. Bipolar disorder b. Normal emotional development c. Anxiety disorder d. Conduct disorder
Correct answer: "b. Normal emotional development" experiencing negative emotions, such as sadness or irritability, and difficulties in emotion regulation are common during middle and late childhood as children navigate the complexities of emotions and social interactions. these challenges are often part of normal emotional development.
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119. Sophia, a 9-year-old, frequently engages in arguments and conflicts with peers, exhibits defiance toward authority figures, and refuses to follow rules. These behaviors may be suggestive of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal testing of boundaries c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Autism spectrum disorder
Correct answer: "a. Oppositional defiant disorder" Engaging in arguments and conflicts with peers, defiance toward authority figures, and refusal to follow rules in a 9-year-old may raise concerns about oppositional defiant disorder (OD. A comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals is needed for an accurate diagnosis.
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120. Ethan, a 12-year-old, demonstrates a strong desire for peer acceptance and conformity, often changing opinions or behaviors to fit in with the group. This behavior is characteristic of: a. Low self-esteem b. Peer pressure c. Social withdrawal d. Oppositional defiant disorder
Correct answer: "b. Peer pressure" A strong desire for peer acceptance and conformity, along with changing opinions or behaviors to fit in with the group, are common aspects of peer pressure during middle and late childhood. Peer influence plays a significant role in shaping social behaviors and choices during this stage.
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121. Which of the following traits is NOT part of McCrae's Five- Factor Model? a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Honesty
Correct answer: "b. Extraversion" mccrae's five-factor model includes the following traits: openness to experience, extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and neuroticism. "honesty" is not specifically identified as one of the primary factors in this model.
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122. John is known for being imaginative, curious, and open to new experiences. In the Five-Factor Model, John would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Neuroticism
Correct answer: "a. Openness to experience" Openness to experience refers to an individual's willingness to explore new ideas, engage in creative pursuits, and be receptive to novel experiences. John's characteristics of being imaginative, curious, and open to new experiences align with this trait.
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123. Sarah is known for being friendly, outgoing, and sociable. In the Five-Factor Model, Sarah would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Neuroticism
Correct answer: "b. Extraversion" Extraversion refers to the degree to which an individual seeks social interactions, enjoys being around others, and is outgoing and assertive. Sarah's traits of being friendly, outgoing, and sociable align with the extraversion factor.
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124. Michael is known for being kind, considerate, and cooperative. In the Five-Factor Model, Michael would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness
Correct answer: "c. Agreeableness" Agreeableness refers to an individual's tendency to be compassionate, cooperative, and empathetic towards others. Michael's traits of being kind, considerate, and cooperative align with the agreeableness factor.
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125. Julia is often described as organized, disciplined, and reliable. In the Five-Factor Model, Julia would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness
Correct answer: "d. Conscientiousness" Conscientiousness refers to an individual's level of organization, self-discipline, and reliability. Julia's traits of being organized, disciplined, and reliable align with the conscientiousness factor.
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151. During the Sensorimotor Stage, infants explore their environment through which senses? a. Vision and hearing b. Touch and taste c. Smell and hearing d. Touch and hearing
Correct answer: "d. Touch and hearing" during the sensorimotor stage, infants primarily explore their environment through the senses of touch and hearing. they use their hands and mouths to explore objects and rely on auditory cues to make sense of their surroundings.
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152. Which of the following behaviors is characteristic of the later stages of the Sensorimotor Stage? a. Simple reflexive responses b. Coordination of sensory and motor actions c. Symbolic representation and pretend play d. Object permanence and understanding of cause and effect
Correct answer: "e. ect" in the later stages of the sensorimotor stage, infants develop the ability for symbolic representation, which allows them to use symbols or mental images to represent objects or events. they may engage in pretend play, using objects to represent other objects, people, or situations.
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153. The Sensorimotor Stage is characterized by the absence of which cognitive process? a. Imitation b. Symbolic thought c. Object permanence d. Sensorimotor integration
Correct answer: "b. Symbolic thought" symbolic thought, the ability to use symbols or mental representations to represent objects or events, is not fully developed in the sensorimotor stage. this ability emerges in later stages of cognitive development.
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154. Which of the following is NOT a substage of the Sensorimotor Stage? a. Reflexes b. Circular reactions c. Mental representation d. Tertiary circular reactions
Correct answer: "c. Mental representation" Mental representation is not a substage of the Sensorimotor Stage. The actual substage progression includes reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, and beginning of representational thought.
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155. The Sensorimotor Stage lays the foundation for the development of which cognitive concept in later stages? a. Conservation b. Egocentrism c. Object permanence d. Abstract reasoning
Correct answer: "d. Abstract reasoning" the sensorimotor stage, particularly the development of object permanence, lays the foundation for later cognitive concepts such as conservation, egocentrism, and abstract reasoning. it provides the building blocks for understanding the world and engaging in more complex cognitive processes.
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156. Which pattern of crying in infants is characterized by a high- pitched, intense cry that is sudden and without obvious cause? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Anguished cry
Correct answer: "c. Pain cry" The pain cry is a high-pitched, intense cry that occurs suddenly and is usually accompanied by physical signs of distress. It can be triggered by discomfort, injury, or illness and may indicate the need for immediate attention and care.
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157. Which pattern of crying in infants is a rhythmic, repetitive cry with a lower intensity than other cries and is often associated with fatigue or frustration? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Whining cry
Correct answer: "d. Whining cry" The whining cry is a rhythmic, repetitive cry with a lower intensity than other cries. It is often associated with fatigue, frustration, or mild discomfort. Infants may display this cry when they are tired, bored, or seeking attention.
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158. Which pattern of crying in infants is a combination of cries and vowel-like sounds, and it is the most common type of cry? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Whining cry
Correct answer: "a. Basic cry" The basic cry is a combination of cries and vowel-like sounds and is the most common type of cry observed in infants. It typically indicates general needs such as hunger, fatigue, or discomfort. The basic cry can vary in intensity and can be accompanied by facial expressions and body movements.
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159. Easy children are typically characterized by: a. High activity level and intense reactions b. Regular routines and adaptability to change c. Shyness and withdrawal in new situations d. Strong-willed and challenging behavior
Correct answer: "a. High activity level and intense reactions" easy children are known for their adaptable nature and ability to establish regular routines. they tend to have a positive mood, display low intensity of reactions, and adapt well to new experiences or changes in their environment.
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160. Slow-to-warm-up children are characterized by: a. High activity level and intense reactions b. Regular routines and adaptability to change c. Shyness and withdrawal in new situations d. Strong-willed and challenging behavior
Correct answer: "a. High activity level and intense reactions" slow-to-warm-up children are initially hesitant and cautious in new or unfamiliar situations. they may exhibit shyness, withdrawal, and a slow adaptation to new people or environments. given time and support, they gradually become more comfortable and less hesitant.
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161. Which temperament profile is associated with the greatest challenges for caregivers? a. Easy children b. Difficult children c. Slow-to-warm-up children d. All temperament profiles present unique challenges
Correct answer: "b. Difficult children" difficult children, due to their strong-willed and challenging behavior, often present the greatest challenges for caregivers. their resistance to change and intense reactions can make it more demanding to meet their needs and manage their behaviors effectively. however, it's important to note that all temperament profiles present unique challenges, and caregivers may need to adjust their approaches to meet the needs of each child.
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162. Preoperational thought is a stage of cognitive development proposed by which theorist? a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Erikson c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg
Correct answer: "c. Jean Piaget" preoperational thought is a stage of cognitive development proposed by jean piaget. it occurs approximately between the ages of 2 and 7 years old and is characterized by significant gains in language and symbolic representation.
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163. Symbolic function refers to the ability of children in the preoperational stage to: a. Understand the conservation of quantity b. Reason logically and systematically c. Use symbols and mental representation to represent objects or events d. Develop empathy and social understanding
Correct answer: "p. operational stage to:" symbolic function is a significant cognitive milestone in the preoperational stage. it involves the ability to use symbols, such as words, images, or gestures, to represent objects, actions, or events that are not physically present. this ability forms the basis for imaginative play, language development, and the understanding of symbolic representations in various domains.
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164. Intuitive thought is a characteristic of which stage of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" intuitive thought is a characteristic of the preoperational stage. during this stage, which occurs roughly between ages 4 and 7, children begin to engage in more advanced thinking but still lack the ability for logical and systematic reasoning. intuitive thought refers to children's reliance on immediate perceptions and hunches rather than logical reasoning when solving problems or making judgments.
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165. Which of the following is a limitation of preoperational thought? a. Lack of symbolic representation b. Inability to engage in make-believe play c. Difficulty understanding the concept of conservation d. Limited vocabulary and language skills
Correct answer: "a. Lack of symbolic representation" one of the limitations of preoperational thought is the difficulty in understanding the concept of conservation, which refers to the understanding that certain properties of objects remain the same despite changes in appearance or arrangement. preoperational children often focus on the most salient features and may not grasp the idea that the quantity or volume of a substance can remain the same even if it appears differently. this limitation gradually diminishes as children progress into the concrete operational stage.
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166. Animism is a concept commonly observed during which stage of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" Animism is a concept commonly observed during the preoperational stage of cognitive development, as proposed by Jean Piaget. Preoperational children tend to attribute lifelike qualities and intentions to inanimate objects, believing that they have thoughts, feelings, and intentions similar to humans.
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167. Transduction is a cognitive process characterized by: a. Focusing on the most salient features of an object or event b. Understanding that others have different beliefs and perspectives c. Recognizing that certain properties of objects remain the same despite changes in appearance d. Mentally connecting unrelated events or ideas based on perceived associations
Correct answer: "e. nt" transduction is a cognitive process observed during the preoperational stage of cognitive development. it involves making connections between unrelated events or ideas based on perceived associations, without necessarily understanding logical or cause-and-effect relationships.
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168. According to Parten's stages of play, associative play involves: a. Independent play with minimal interaction with others b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities c. Playing alongside others but without significant interaction or coordination d. Cooperative play with shared goals and organized group activities
Correct answer: "a. ivities" according to parten's stages of play, associative play is a stage where children play alongside others, sharing materials and showing interest in what others are doing, but without significant organization or coordination of activities. they may observe, imitate, and be influenced by others' actions, but there is no formal organization or shared goals.
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169. The highest level of cognitive play is characterized by: a. Independent play b. Parallel play c. Cooperative play d. Onlooker play
Correct answer: "c. Cooperative play" Cooperative play is the highest level of cognitive play. It involves children engaging in organized group activities with shared goals, coordinating their actions, and working together towards a common objective. In this stage, children display advanced cognitive and social skills, such as negotiation, problem-solving, and perspective-taking.
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170. Onlooker play is characterized by: a. Independent play with minimal interaction with others b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities c. Observing others play without actively participating d. Cooperative play with shared goals and organized group activities
Correct answer: "b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities" onlooker play is a stage where children observe others play without actively participating themselves. they may watch, comment, or ask questions about the play of others but do not engage directly in the play activity. it provides an opportunity for children to learn from observing and gain insight into different play behaviors and social interactions.
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171. According to Emile Durkheim's classification, which type of suicide is characterized by a lack of integration and social cohesion? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "b. Egoistic suicide" Egoistic suicide occurs when individuals experience a lack of social integration and connection to others. They may feel isolated, detached, or disconnected from social groups, resulting in higher suicide rates.
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172. Altruistic suicide is characterized by: a. High levels of social integration and collective identity b. A lack of social norms and regulation c. Despair and hopelessness due to oppressive societal conditions d. A disregard for social values and norms
Correct answer: "a. High levels of social integration and collective identity" altruistic suicide occurs when individuals have a high level of social integration and a strong collective identity. they may be willing to sacrifice their lives for the greater good or the expectations of their social group.
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173. Which type of suicide is associated with a breakdown of social norms and a lack of moral regulation? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "c. Anomic suicide" Anomic suicide occurs in situations where there is a breakdown of social norms, such as during times of social or economic upheaval. Individuals may feel a sense of normlessness, uncertainty, and a lack of moral regulation, which can contribute to higher suicide rates.
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174. In a small village where conformity to tradition is highly valued, a woman takes her own life after failing to fulfill societal expectations and facing ostracism from her community. In a highly traditional society where strict social norms and obligations are valued, individuals may be more prone to which type of suicide? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "a. Altruistic suicide" In this scenario, the woman's suicide is motivated by her strong adherence to societal expectations and her willingness to sacrifice her life for the sake of conformity and meeting social obligations. Altruistic suicide occurs in societies where there is a high degree of social integration and collective identity.
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175. In a country suffering from economic depression and widespread unemployment, individuals feel a sense of despair, hopelessness, and lose their sense of purpose and direction in life. In a society experiencing economic collapse and social unrest, individuals may be more susceptible to which type of suicide? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "c. Anomic suicide" In this scenario, the economic collapse and social unrest have disrupted the social order and undermined social norms and regulations. As a result, individuals may experience a sense of normlessness, uncertainty, and a lack of moral regulation, leading to higher suicide rates. Anomic suicide occurs during times of social or economic upheaval.
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176. A chromosomal abnormalities who's the child has a missing X chromosome for females a. Jacob's Syndrome b. Trisomy 18 c. Monosomy X d. Fragile X Syndrome
Correct answer: "c. Monosomy X" Monosomy X is also called Turner Syndrome, it is a syndrome wherein females have a missing X
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177. A chromosomal abnormalities in a child who have an extra Y chromosome on its genes. a. Klinefelter Syndrome b. Edward's Syndrome c. Patau's Syndrome d. Jacobs Syndrome
Correct answer: "c. Patau's Syndrome" jacob's syndrome is also called as xyy syndrome.
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178. Extra copy of chromosome 13 a. Fragile X Syndrome b. Patau's Syndrome c. XYY Syndrome d. Down Syndrome
Correct answer: "b. Patau's Syndrome" Patau's Syndrome is also called as Trisomy 13.
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179. A overproduction of mucus in the lungs and digestive tract a. Phenylketonuria b. Cystic Fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Sickle-cell Anemia 180. It does not produce enough insulin. • Diabetes • Huntington's Disease • Tay-Sachs Disease • Alpha Antitrypsin Deficiency 181. Males with muscle weakness and minor mental retardation • Beta Thalassemia • Spina Bifida • Alpha Thalassemia • Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy 182. It limits the body oxygen supply • Hemophilia • Cystic Fibrosis • Anencephaly • Sickle-cell Anemia 183. CNS deteriorates producing problem in muscles and mental decline • Huntington's Disease • Tay-Sachs Disease • Alpha Thalassemia • Beta Thalassemia 184. Severe Anemia; fatal in adolescence or young adulthood • Cooley's Anemia • Alpha Thalassemia • Alpha Antitrypsin Deficiency • Polycystic Kidney Disease 185. Severe Anemia; nearly all die soon after birth • Beta Thalassemia • Alpha Thalassemia • Polycystic Kidney Disease • Cystic Fibrosis 186. The birth weight who is less than 3 pounds ; 4 ounces • Normal Birth Weight • Low Birth Weight • Very Low Birth Weight • Extremely Low Birth Weight
Correct answer: "•. " nbw - at least 7 pounds ; 5 ounces lbw - less than 5 pounds ; 8 ounces vlb - less than 3 pounds ; 4 ounces elb - less than 2 pounds
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187. A miscarriage occurred after 20 weeks of gestation (approximately 5 months) a. Spontaneous Abortion b. Stillbirth c. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome d. Premature Babies
Correct answer: "a. Spontaneous Abortion" Spontaneous Abortion - Less than 20 weeks Stillbirth - After 20 weeks (approx. 5 months) SIDS - Crib death
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188. Eager willingness to cooperate harmoniously with a parent, not only in disciplinary actions, but in variety of daily interactions. a. Receptive Cooperation b. Situational Compliance c. Committed Compliance d. Riding-in-tandem Compliance
Correct answer: "b. Situational Compliance" Situational Compliance - Extra assistance provided by their parents reminder and prompts to complete the task Committed Compliance - They were committed to following request and could do so without their parents direct intervention Riding-in-tandem Compliance - is gawa-gawa lang sowi huhu
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189. An awareness that gender does not change a. Gender Constancy b. Gender Stability c. Gender Identity d. Gender Schema Theory
Correct answer: "a. Gender Constancy" Gender Identity - Awareness of one's own gender and that of others Gender Constancy - The realization that a girl remains a girl even if she has a short haircut Gender Schema Theory - It views children as actively extracting knowledge about gender from their environment before engaging in gender-typed behavior 190. Frequently nominated both bestie and most disliked • Controversial Children • Rejected Children • Popular Children • Neglected Children Feedback Average Children - Receive an average number of both positive and negative nominations Neglected Children - Infrequently nominated as bestie but not really disliked Rejected Children - Disliked by peers Controversial Children - Frequently nominated both as bestie and most disliked Popular Children - Frequently nominated as bestie and rarely disliked by peers
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191. Frequently nominated as bestie and rarely disliked by peers a. Popular Children b. Average Children c. Controversial Children d. Neglected Children 192. Involves adjusting the identity schema to fit new experiences • Accommodation • Assimilation • Identity Accommodation • Identity Assimilation Identity Accommodation
Correct answer: "•. " assimilation - interpretation of new information via existing cognitive structure accommodation - involves changing cognitive structures to more closely align with what is encountered identity assimilation - involves holding onto a consistent sense of self in the face of new experiences that do not fit the current understanding of the self
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193. Involves holding onto a consistent sense of self in the face of new experiences that do not fit the current understanding of the self a. Identity Accommodation b. Identity Assimilation c. Assimilation d. Accommodation
Correct answer: "a. Identity Accommodation" Assimilation - Interpretation of new information via existing cognitive structure Accommodation - Involves changing cognitive structures to more closely align with what is encountered Identity Accommodation - Involves adjusting the identity schema to fit new experiences
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194. Occurs when the youngest child leaves home. a. Generativity Scripts b. Boomerang Phenomenon c. Revolving Door Syndrome d. Empty Nest
Correct answer: "a. Generativity Scripts" Generativity Scripts – feature redemption and associated with psychological well-being Revolving Door Syndrome or Boomerang Phenomenon – returning to parent’s home, sometimes with their own families
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195. Feature redemption and associated with psychological well- being a. Generativity Scripts b. Narrative Psychology c. Empty Nest d. Boomerang Phenomenon
Correct answer: "b. Narrative Psychology" Narrative Psychology - Views the development of self as a continuous process of constructing one's life story Empty Nest – occurs when the youngest child leaves home Revolving Door Syndrome or Boomerang Phenomenon – returning to parent’s home, sometimes with their own families
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196. Caught in squeeze between the competing needs of their own children and the emerging needs of their parents a. Filial Crisis b. Respite Care c. Sandwich Generation d. Kinship Care
Correct answer: "a. Filial Crisis" Filial Crisis - Adults learn to balance love and duty to their parents with autonomy in a two-way relationship Respite Care - Giving caregivers some time off Kinship Care - Grandparents that provides care but don’t become foster parents or gain custody, have no legal status and few rights
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197. It includes relief of pain and suffering, controlling of symptoms, alleviation of stress, and attempts to maintain a satisfactory quality of life a. Hospice Care b. Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline c. Near-Death Experience d. Palliative Care
Correct answer: "b. Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline" Hospice Care – personal, patient- and family-centered, compassionate care for the terminally ill Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline – specifically to a widely observed decline in cognitive abilities shortly before death Near-Death Experience – often involving a sense of being out of the body or sucked into a tunnel and visions of bright lights or mystical encounters
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198. Aging is the results of random processes that vary from person to person (Error theories) a. Evolutionary Theory b. Immunological Theory c. Endocrine Theory d. Variable-Rate Theories
Correct answer: "a. Evolutionary Theory" Endocrine Theory - Biological clocks act through hormones to control the pace of aging Immunological Theory - Programmed decline in immune system functions leads to increased vulnerability to infectious disease and thus to aging and death Evolutionary Theory - Aging is an evolved trait thus genes that promote reproduction are selected at higher rates than genes that extend lives
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199. Clearly intent to end their lives, but they act out of a belief that the process is already under the way and that they are simply hastening the process a. Death Seekers b. Death Initiators c. Death Ignorers d. Death Darers
Correct answer: "a. Death Seekers" Death Seekers – clearly intend to end their lives at the time they attempt suicide Death Ignorers – do not believe that their self- inflicted death will mean the end of their existence Death Darers – experience mixed feelings, or ambivalence, about their intent to die, even at the moment of their attempt, and they show this ambivalence in the act itself
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200. Focuses on the scientific study of the systematic processes of change and stability in people. a. Life-Span Development b. Life-Span Perspective c. Human Development d. Growth Development
Correct answer: "a. Life-Span Development" Life-Span Development – Concept of human development as lifelong process, which can be studied scientifically Life-Span Perspective – Views development as lifelong, multidimensional, multidirectional, plastic, multidisciplinary, and contextual, and as a process that involves growth, maintenance, and regulation of loss Growth Development - Uhmm... :> DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY RANDOM DRILLS BY MCGRAW- HILL GLOBAL EDUCATION HOLDINGS, LLC
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1. Life-span development begins with _______ and ends with _______. a. birth; death b. conception; old age c. infancy; old age d. conception; death 2. Parents adhering to the fundamental premise of Jean-Jacques Rousseau's "innate goodness" argument would: • reject the need to "teach" language since speech is inherited. • provide their children with little monitoring and few constraints. • view their child as intellectually indistinguishable from themselves. • argue that their newborn's brain is like a "blank slate." 3. Which view of children is stated in the doctrine of "original sin"? • Children, although born good, are destined to become evil. • Evil children are born only to parents who have sinned.. • Children are basically bad, and are born as evil beings. • Children are born good and remain that way until adulthood. 4. Which philosophical view assumes that the child's mind at birth is a "blank tablet"? • original sin • tabula rasa • determinism • innate goodness 5. Contrary to the view held centuries ago, today we believe that: • children are miniature adults.. • childhood is a unique and important period in life. • children ought to be treated as small adults in need of training but little else. • children are autonomous and may be expected to grow and develop with very little parental support. 6. The traditional approach to development emphasizes: • little change from birth through old age. • extensive change from birth to adolescence, adulthood, and old age. • extensive change from birth to adulthood, then little change for the rest of the life span. • extensive change from birth to adolescence, little or no change in adulthood, then decline in late old age. 7. The traditional and life-span perspectives are contrasting views of developmental change. According to the life-span perspective, when do developmental changes occur? • during infancy and early childhood • during adolescence and early adulthood • during middle and late adulthood • throughout the entire life cycle 8. Allan spends a great deal of time working and trying to establish his career. He also has been thinking about how his personal relationship is going and considering whether it could be long-term and lead to establishing a family. Allan is MOST LIKELY in: • late adolescence.. • early adulthood. • middle adulthood. • late adulthood 9. The period of development during which school readiness skills are developed and most free time is spent playing with friends is called: • infancy. • early childhood. • middle childhood. • late childhood. 10. Paul depends almost completely on his parents. He is just learning to recognize things that he wants and how to get them. Paul is in the development period called: • late childhood. • middle childhood. • early childhood. • infancy. 11. Which period of development is characterized by establishing independence, developing an identity, and thinking more abstractly? • middle childhood • late childhood. • adolescence • early adulthood 12. Many older persons become wiser with age, yet perform more poorly on cognitive speed tests. This supports the life-span perspective notion that development is: • multidirectional.. • multidimensional. • lifelong. • plastic. 13. Development consists of many aspects: biological, cognitive, socioemotional, etc. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional. • plastic. 14. Development is characterized by growth and decline. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional. • plastic. 15. In one study, the reasoning abilities of older adults were improved through retraining. This is an example of how development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional.. • plastic. 16 INCORRECT Differences in families, neighborhoods, cultures, and even time periods affect development. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is: • contextual. • multidirectional. • multidimensional. • plastic. 17. In many cultures, people retire from their careers in their fifties or sixties. This is an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • nonnormative socioemotional event. 18. Like many others her age, Velma does not know how to use a computer, but her six-year-old grandson has no problem navigating the Internet and using a word processing program. This is an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • nonnormative socioemotional event. 19. When Ben was thirteen when his father was killed in a car accident. This is an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • nonnormative socioemotional event. 20. The onset of puberty is an example of: • normative age-graded influences. • normative history-graded influences. • nonnormative life events. • storm-and-stress events. 21. The AIDS epidemic in the United States would be an example of a: • normative age-graded influence. • normative history-graded influence. • nonnormative life event. • storm-and-stress event. 22. The number of years since a person was born is a key element in the definition of:. • chronological age. • biological age. • psychological age. • developmental age. 23. The expectations society has that a person will act his or her age refers to: • biological age.. • social age. • psychological age. • historical age. 24. Rozee is 86 years young. She continues to learn phrases in new languages, she writes poetry, and she enjoys going to museums to see the latest up-and-coming artists. These examples of her adaptive capacities demonstrate: • chronological age. • biological age.. • psychological age. • social age. 25. As he was studying life-span development, Tyrell had to learn several interrelated, coherent sets of ideas that would help him explain and make predictions about development. Tyrell had to learn: • theories. • hypotheses. • models. • scientific methods. 26. Which theoretical perspectives describe development as an unconscious process? • contextual theories • ecological theories • psychoanalytical theories • ethological theories 27. Callie is learning about the psychoanalytic perspective and understands there are three parts to the personality. According to Freud, they are the: • libido, ego, id. • unconscious, conscious, superego. • ego, superego, subego. • superego, ego, id. 28. Erik Erikson's theory emphasized: • repeated resolutions of unconscious conflicts about sexual energy.. • developmental change throughout the human life span. • changes in children's thinking as they mature. • the influence of sensitive periods in the various stages of biological maturation. 29. Most life-span developmentalists recognize that: • nature, continuity, and stability are the primary determinants of behavior. • nurture, discontinuity, and change are the primary determinants of behavior. • while nurture (the environment) is important, nature (heredity) plays the stronger role. • extreme positions on these issues are unwise. 30. The information-processing approach to development emphasizes: • the quality of thinking among children of different ages. • overcoming certain age-related problems or crises. • age-appropriate expressions of sexual energy.. • perception, memory, reasoning ability, and problem solving. 31. From B.F. Skinner's point of view, behavior is explained through: • external consequences of that behavior. • the self-produced consequences of that behavior. • individuals' cognitive interpretations of their environmental experiences • the biological processes that determine maturation. 32. According to Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory, the three factors that reciprocally influence development involve: • behavior, the person, and the environment. • punishment, reward, and reinforcement. • memory, problem solving, and reasoning. • cognition, reward, and observation 33. Because Dr. Samuels is a cognitive theorist, we know that she stresses the importance of _______ for understanding development. • thought processes • repressed memories • reciprocal interactions • biologically determined critical periods 34. Which theory would be BEST to consider if you wanted to understand how and why children copy the behaviors they see in TV cartoons? • Skinner's behaviorism • Piaget's cognitive theory • Erikson's psychosocial stages. • Bandura and Mischel's social cognitive theory 35. Which theory believes there are sensitive periods of development? • ethological theory • ecological theory • behavioral theory • social cognition theory 36. In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the microsystem refers to the: • contexts in which the individual lives and plays an active role. • b contexts in which the individual lives but does not play an active role. • cultural context within which an individual is raised. • changes in one's culture over time. 37. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory of development, family is to time as _______is to _______. • macrosystem; mesosystem • exosystem; microsystem • exosystem; chronosystem. • microsystem; chronosystem 38. Alex believes people are primarily influenced by the environment and learned experiences, so he believes _______ plays a more powerful role in human development. • nurture • maturation • change • nature 39. Which statement BEST resolves the nature-nurture controversy? • Nature is clearly more important in development. • The interaction between nature and nurture is most important in development. • Nurture is clearly more important in development. • Neither plays a particularly strong role in development. 40. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining: • environmental influences on development. • biological influences on development. • cognitive development. • affective processes in development. 41. An approach consisting of several different theoretical perspectives is referred to as: • nondescript. • eclectic. • quasi-experimental. • pseudoscientific. 42. One difficulty of conducting research in the laboratory setting is that:. • it is artificial. • random assignment is impossible. • extraneous factors are difficult to control. • participants tend to be unaware that they are in an experiment 43 CORRECT The main advantage of the naturalistic observation technique involves: • real-world validity. • great control over extraneous variables. • the ability to utilize inferential statistics. • a lack of ethical controls. 44. An important part of an observational measure is that it be conducted: • in a real-world setting rather than a laboratory. • in a laboratory rather than a real-world setting. • in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance. • with the consent and prior knowledge of all people being observed. 45. Dr. Somberg is using a method of gathering information that gives an in-depth look at one individual. She is using the: • interview. • emic approach. • participant observation. • case study. 46. A common caution for correlational research is: • it is difficult to administer. • correlation does not equal causation. • correlations do not tell direction of relationship. • correlations do not indicate the strength of a relationship. 47. Experimental designs are superior to correlational approaches when dealing with: • concepts that have not been studied in any great detail.. • variables that need to be manipulated. • variables that are unethical to manipulate. • variables that can be controlled easily. 48 INCORRECT A _______ design compares individuals of different ages (e.g., 30-year-olds, 40-year-olds, and 50-year-olds) at one testing time. • cross-sectional • longitudinal • Latin squares • correlational 49. Which measure allows a researcher to compare one person's score with the scores of a large group of similar people? • case study • questionnaire. • standardized test • naturalistic observation 50. Which method of collecting information about life-span development is most likely to include a life calendar? • life-history record • case study • sequential approach • interview 51. Which research strategy is the BEST for determining cause- and-effect relationships? • experimental • correlational • observational • standardized test DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY DRILLS BY REGINA RPMTWT: @loafbred 3 year old Kidlat, spends hours building towers out of wooden blocks and occasionally knocks them over to start again. His teacher observes that he enjoys experimenting with different ways to stack the blocks to create new shapes. What type of play is Kidlat demonstrating based on Smilansky’s stages of play? • Functional play • Constructive play • Dramatic play • Formal games with rules
Correct answer: "c. relational" constructive play involves using objects or materials to create or build something. si kidlat, nag-eexplore ng blocks para mag- create ng towers, which fits this type of play. functional play is simpler—like movements or sensorimotor actions (e.g., running or jumping) dramatic play involves imagination and pretend scenarios formal games with rules require organized procedures or penalties whiskerson often sits by himself in the corner of the playroom. he doesn’t interact with toys or children but appears to occasionally look around, seemingly lost in thought. based on parten’s dimensions of play, which type of play behavior is whiskerson demonstrating? • onlooker behavior • solitary independent play • unoccupied behavior • parallel play feedback unoccupied behavior happens when a child is not actively engaging with toys, other children, or any structured activity onlooker behavior involves watching others play, pero walang namention that whiskerson actively observes the other kids solitary independent play means playing alone with toys parallel play is playing side by side with others without direct interaction at 50, chandler bing notices that he has to hold reading materials further away to read clearly, and he also finds it harder to hear conversations in noisy environments. what is most likely happening to chandler's sensory functioning? • presbyopia and presbycusis • myopia and diminishing taste sensitivity • loss of muscle strength and presbycusis • diminishing olfactory cells and nearsightedness feedback presbyopia is the age related difficulty in focusing on near objects, that's why chandler has to hold reading materials farther away. presbycusis is the gradual hearing loss that usually happens as people get older, kaya nahihirapan siyang makarinig in a noisy environment myopia (nearsightedness) and diminishing taste sensitivity are not directly related to chandler's specific issue loss of muscle strength and diminishing olfactory cells are also relevant age-related changes but don’t directly explain chandler’s vision and hearing struggles during recess, koko overhears her classmates gossiping about her, spreading false rumors to exclude her from their group. which type of aggression does this scenario best illustrate? • instrumental aggression • relational aggression • hostile attributional bias • physical bullying feedback relational aggression involves harming someone’s social status or relationships. yung pag-spread ng rumors para ma-exclude si koko is an example of relational aggression instrumental aggression usually happens when aggression is used to achieve a goal (e.g., taking a toy) hostile attributional bias refers to assuming bad intentions from others dionela, who is beginning to take responsibility for completing his schoolwork without constant reminders. however, his parents still monitor his progress and provide guidance when needed. this scenario best illustrates which of the following concepts? • coregulation • authoritative parenting • internalizing behavior • externalizing behavior feedback coregulation happens during a transitional stage where parents provide general supervision, while children learn self-regulation. dionela's parents guide him and monitor his progress, pero si dionela na mismo yung gumagawa ng assignments niya koi spilled her juice on the table despite her mother’s repeated warnings to be careful. her mother reacts by turning away and ignoring koi for the rest of the afternoon. which parenting discipline strategy is koi’s mother using? • power assertion • withdrawal of love • inductive reasoning • positive reinforcement feedback withdrawal of love happens when a parent ignores, isolates, or shows disapproval to discipline a child. yung ginawa ng mom ni koi—ignoring her after the incident—fits this description power assertion would involve direct enforcement like yelling or punishment, which didn’t happen here. inductive reasoning involves explaining and teaching positive reinforcement is about rewarding good behavior mirako, a 6 year old, is playing with her toys and says aloud, "okay, the car goes here, then the truck goes there." her mom notices this and asks why she's talking to herself. mirako explains, "i’m just figuring out where to put them." what type of speech is mirako using? • private speech • pragmatics • social speech • fast mapping feedback private speech is when a child talks to themselves, usually to help guide their actions or thoughts. yung ginagawa ni mirako, nagpaplan siya habang naglalaro, kaya nagmo-monologue siya for self-guidance pragmatics deals with how we use language in social context social speech would involve trying to communicate with someone, but mirako is just talking to herself fast mapping refers to learning new words normandy excels in solving complex mathematical problems and analyzing research data. however, he often struggles with adjusting to new and creative challenges like brainstorming unique ideas for a project. which component of sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence does normandy demonstrate strength in? • analytical intelligence • creative intelligence • practical intelligence • emotional intelligence feedback analytical intelligence is about academic problem solving and computation. normandy is good at tasks like solving math problems and analyzing data—mga skills na aligned sa analytical abilities creative intelligence deals with imaginative problem solving, like brainstorming unique ideas, which normandy struggles with, so it’s not the answer practical intelligence focuses on "street smarts" or real-world application emotional intelligence isn’t part of the triarchic theory maladaptive tendency: ruthlessness malignant tendency: inhibition • autonomy vs. shame & doubt • inferiority vs. guilt • initiative vs. guilt • initiative vs. inferiority anne decides to drive recklessly with her friends, claiming, "wala namang mangyayari sa akin. i’m not like those other people who get into accidents." she often feels like her emotions are deeper and more intense than anyone else’s, saying, "no one will ever understand what i’m going through." what concept best explains anne’s mindset? • imaginary audience • egocentrism • personal fable • hypothetical-deductive reasoning feedback personal fable explains yung belief ni anne na she’s unique and invulnerable. yung reckless driving at pag feel na hindi siya maaaksidente shows this "special" mindset na parang exempted siya sa consequences. plus, yung feeling niya na "no one understands her" is another sign ng personal fable, kasi parang super unique and intense ng emotions niya compared to others. imaginary audience involves the belief na lahat ng tao ay nakatingin or napapansin siya egocentrism is more general self focus and doesn’t specifically cover her sense of invulnerability hypothetical-deductive reasoning is about systematic problem- solving ethics drills by yeonsu rpmtwt: @audaa_ a psychologist is working with a client who belongs to a cultural background different from their own. the client expresses beliefs that the psychologist personally disagrees with. what is the most ethical response? • politely correct the client’s beliefs to align them with mainstream psychological knowledge. • respect the client's beliefs and incorporate cultural sensitivity into therapy. • end the session early to avoid discussing the beliefs further. • inform the client that their beliefs are outdated and suggest they change them. feedback this aligns with respecting the dignity of persons by recognizing cultural diversity and avoiding discrimination. the psychologist must ensure therapy remains respectful and inclusive. a therapist is treating a 13 year old girl who shares personal concerns but asks the therapist not to tell their parents. what should the therapist do? • promise full confidentiality and never share anything with the parents. • respect the girl’s confidentiality unless there is a risk of harm. • immediately inform the parents of everything discussed in the session. • stop the therapy sessions to avoid legal complications. feedback while confidentiality is crucial, therapists must break it only if there is a risk of harm. since the therapist's client is 13 years old making her a minor, respecting the minor’s dignity means maintaining trust while ensuring safety. a psychologist is conducting research that requires participants to share sensitive personal information. what is the most ethical approach? • proceed with the research without informing participants fully, so they don’t get discouraged from participating. • obtain informed consent, explaining risks and ensuring participants voluntarily agree. • collect data without consent, as long as names are kept anonymous. • tell participants only the positive aspects of the study to encourage participation. feedback informed consent is essential to respecting participants' autonomy and dignity. deception or withholding information would violate ethical standards. a psychologist encounters a client with a rare psychological disorder that they are not trained to treat. what is the most ethical course of action? • continue working with the client, relying on general psychological knowledge. • research the disorder quickly and attempt to treat the client independently. • refer the client to a specialist with expertise in the disorder. • continue treating the client but avoid discussing topics related to the disorder. feedback ethical psychologists should only practice within their areas of competence. referring the client to a specialist ensures they receive proper care rather than risking harm through inadequate treatment. a therapist is feeling emotionally drained and notices they are struggling to focus during client sessions. what is the most ethical response? • continue seeing clients without making any changes. • take steps for self-care and, if necessary, take a temporary break from seeing clients. • start shortening sessions to reduce personal stress. • ignore personal well-being, as helping clients should always come first. feedback competent care includes maintaining the psychologist’s own well- being. if a therapist is unwell, they risk providing ineffective or harmful treatment. seeking self-care ensures they can continue helping clients effectively. a client reports experiencing severe anxiety, and the psychologist decides to use a controversial therapy technique they saw online but have never been trained in. is this ethical? • yes, as long as the psychologist believes it will help the client. • no, because using unverified methods without proper training can cause harm. • yes, but only if the psychologist tells the client it’s experimental. • no, unless the psychologist has seen other therapists use it successfully. feedback ethical practice requires psychologists to use only scientifically supported methods they are trained in. experimenting with unverified techniques could endanger the client's well-being. a psychologist is attending a workshop on new therapeutic techniques. how should they ethically apply this knowledge? • immediately use the techniques on clients, assuming they are effective. • wait until they receive full training and supervision before using them. • apply the techniques only to clients who consent to be test subjects. • avoid using the new techniques entirely, as change in therapy is risky. feedback professional competence requires proper training before applying new techniques. psychologists should ensure they are fully skilled in any method they use to protect their clients' well-being. a psychologist is publishing research results, but the data does not strongly support their hypothesis. what is the most ethical response? • modify the data slightly to make the results look more convincing. • publish the actual findings, even if they are not as expected. • exclude the data that does not support the hypothesis and publish only the favorable results. • delay publication until they find better supporting data. feedback integrity requires honesty in reporting research. modifying or selectively reporting data is unethical and can mislead the scientific community. a therapist realizes they made a mistake in diagnosing a client. what should they do? • inform the client and make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. • ignore the mistake to avoid losing the client’s trust. • continue with the incorrect diagnosis to maintain consistency. • avoid discussing the issue but subtly change the treatment approach. feedback integrity means being honest about errors and taking responsibility for correcting them. transparency builds trust and ensures ethical practice. a psychologist has a personal business selling wellness products. can they ethically recommend these products to their clients? • yes, as long as the products are beneficial. • yes, but only if they disclose that they own the business. • no, unless they give the products at a discount. • no, because this creates a conflict of interest. feedback integrity requires psychologists to avoid conflicts of interest. recommending personal products could bias their advice and exploit clients for financial gain. a psychologist is invited to speak at a public seminar and is asked to exaggerate claims about a new therapy technique to attract more participants. what should they do? • present the technique honestly, with its actual effectiveness. • exaggerate the claims to make the talk more engaging. • refuse to participate in the seminar altogether. • give vague, misleading information without making outright false statements. feedback integrity requires psychologists to be truthful and not mislead the public. presenting exaggerated claims is unethical and can harm clients who rely on accurate information. a psychologist discovers that a colleague is spreading misinformation about a mental health treatment on social media. what is the most ethical response? • publicly criticize the colleague to warn people about the misinformation. • ignore the situation, as it is not their responsibility. • privately discuss the issue with the colleague and encourage them to correct the information. • report the colleague to the licensing board immediately. feedback ethical responsibility to society includes promoting accurate psychological knowledge. addressing the issue privately first allows for professional resolution before escalating the matter. a psychologist is conducting a study that could benefit society, but it involves deceiving participants. how should they proceed? • use deception without informing participants, as long as the study results are valuable. • avoid using deception entirely, even if it means canceling the study. • use deception but ensure participants are fully debriefed afterward. • offer participants a financial incentive to make up for the deception. feedback deception is sometimes necessary in research, ethical guidelines require that participants are debriefed afterward to uphold their dignity and well-being. a psychologist is invited to consult for a company that wants to improve employee mental health. however, the company also asks them to provide personal psychological data about employees. what is the most ethical course of action? * • agree to share the data, as it could help improve workplace well-being. • provide only partial data without identifying individuals. • decline the offer entirely to avoid any ethical risks. • refuse to share personal data but still offer general recommendations for improving mental health. feedback psychologists have a responsibility to help society but must also protect individuals' privacy. providing general advice without breaching confidentiality is the ethical approach. a psychologist is asked to participate in a public campaign promoting mental health awareness. however, the campaign is sponsored by a company selling unproven supplements for mental well-being. what should they do? • join the campaign but clarify that they do not endorse the supplements. • accept the offer since the campaign benefits mental health awareness. • decline the offer to avoid endorsing misleading products. • participate but ask the company to remove their name from advertisements. feedback psychologists have a duty to society to promote ethical and accurate mental health information. associating with a company selling unproven supplements could mislead the public and damage professional integrity.
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Question and Choices
Answer and Rationale
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1. Which of the following refers to the study of changes in human behavior and mental processes across the lifespan? a. Cognitive psychology b. Developmental psychology c. Social psychology d. Clinical psychology
Correct answer: "b. Developmental psychology" Developmental psychology focuses on the changes in human behavior, emotions, and cognition that occur from infancy through old age.
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2. The process of learning acceptable behaviors, beliefs, and values of one's culture is known as: a. Maturation b. Socialization c. Assimilation d. Adaptation
Correct answer: "b. Socialization" Socialization is the process through which individuals acquire the knowledge, values, and behaviors that are considered appropriate and acceptable within their specific cultural context.
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3. The debate between nature and nurture in developmental psychology centers around: a. The impact of genes versus environmental factors on development b. The role of cognitive processes in development c. The influence of peer interactions on development d. The effects of parenting styles on development
Correct answer: "a. The impact of genes versus environmental factors on" the nature versus nurture debate examines the extent to which genetic factors (nature) and environmental factors (nurture) contribute to an individual's development and traits.
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4. The capacity for change and growth throughout the lifespan is known as: a. Maturation b. Development c. Adaptation d. Assimilation
Correct answer: "b. Development" Development refers to the capacity for change and growth in physical, cognitive, and socioemotional domains throughout an individual's lifespan.
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5. Which of the following is an example of a critical period in human development? a. Puberty b. Adolescence c. Early childhood d. Middle adulthood
Correct answer: "c. Early childhood" A critical period refers to a specific time frame during development when certain experiences must occur for normal development to take place. Early childhood is a critical period for language acquisition and certain cognitive and social skills.
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6. The study of how genetic factors interact with environmental factors to influence development is known as: a. Epigenetics b. Genetics c. Behaviorism d. Cognitive psychology
Correct answer: "a. Epigenetics" Epigenetics is the study of how genetic factors interact with environmental factors, such as nutrition, stress, and exposure to toxins, to influence gene expression and shape development.
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7. Which of the following is an example of a continuous development process? a. Puberty b. Learning to walk c. The onset of menopause d. The acquisition of language
Correct answer: "b. Learning to walk" Continuous development refers to gradual and cumulative changes that occur over time. Learning to walk involves a continuous process of developing and refining motor skills.
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8. The belief that both nature (genes) and nurture (environment) interact and influence human development is known as: a. Nature dominance b. Nurture dominance c. Interactionist perspective d. Developmental equilibrium
Correct answer: "c. Interactionist perspective" The interactionist perspective emphasizes that both nature (genes) and nurture (environment) interact and contribute to human development, recognizing the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors.
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9. The ability of a developing organism to compensate for early damage or deprivation and adapt to environmental changes is referred to as: a. Plasticity b. Stability c. Resilience d. Vulnerability
Correct answer: "a. Plasticity" Plasticity refers to the capacity of a developing organism, such as the human brain, to change and adapt in response to experiences and environmental influences.
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10. Which of the following is an example of a normative age- graded influence on development? a. Divorce b. Cultural norms c. Personal illness d. Puberty
Correct answer: "d. Puberty" Normative age-graded influences are experiences that are typical and predictable based on an individual's age. Puberty is a normative age-graded influence as it involves the physical and hormonal changes that occur during adolescence.
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11. Which of the following is the basic unit of heredity? a. Chromosome b. Genotype c. Phenotype d. Gene
Correct answer: "d. Gene" A gene is the basic unit of heredity, carrying the instructions for specific traits.
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12. What is the term used to describe the genetic makeup of an individual? a. Phenotype b. Allele c. Genotype d. Chromosome
Correct answer: "c. Genotype" Genotype refers to the specific combination of genes an individual possesses.
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13. Julia, a college student, travels to a foreign country and expresses a belief that her own culture is superior to the local culture. This perspective is an example of: a. Cultural relativism b. Multiculturalism c. Ethnocentrism d. Cultural assimilation
Correct answer: "c. Ethnocentrism" Julia's belief that her own culture is superior to the local culture reflects an ethnocentric perspective. Ethnocentrism involves evaluating and judging other cultures based on the standards and values of one's own culture, often resulting in a biased or prejudiced view of other cultures.
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14. Which of the following factors influences gene expression? a. Environment b. Chromosomes c. Alleles d. Genes
Correct answer: "a. Environment" gene expression can be influenced by environmental factors, such as nutrition, exposure to toxins, and social interactions. 15. sarah, a social worker, believes that every culture should be appreciated and respected for its unique contributions and perspectives. this attitude reflects: • cultural relativism • multiculturalism • ethnocentrism • cultural assimilation feedback sarah's belief that every culture should be appreciated and respected for its unique contributions and perspectives aligns with a multicultural perspective. multiculturalism emphasizes the value of diversity and promotes the understanding and acceptance of different cultures, avoiding ethnocentric biases.
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16. Which type of twins share approximately 50% of their genes? I. Identical Twins II. Monozygotic Twins III. Dizygotic Twins IV. Fraternal Twins a. I and II b. I and III c. III and IV d. II and III
Correct answer: "I. Fraternal Twins" dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, develop from separate eggs fertilized by different sperm. they share about 50% of their genes, like any non-twin siblings.
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17. What is the purpose of twin studies in genetics research? a. To compare the traits of twins with non-twin individuals. b. To determine the exact contribution of genes and environment to traits. c. To identify specific genes responsible for certain traits. d. To study the effects of genetic mutations in twins.
Correct answer: "a. To compare the traits of twins with non-twin individuals." twin studies help researchers estimate the relative influence of genes and environmental factors by comparing the similarities between identical twins and fraternal twins.
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18. Which of the following is an example of a dominant genetic disorder? a. Huntington's disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Correct answer: "a. Huntington's disease" Huntington's disease is an example of a dominant genetic disorder, where a single copy of the mutated gene from either parent is sufficient to cause the disorder.
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19. Anna and David have been together for several years. They have a deep emotional connection and trust each other, but their relationship lacks passion and sexual attraction. According to Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, their love is characterized as: a. Companionate love b. Romantic love c. Consummate love d. Empty love
Correct answer: "a. Companionate love" In Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, companionate love is characterized by intimacy and commitment but lacks passion. Anna and David have a deep emotional bond and trust, representing the intimacy and commitment components of love, but their relationship lacks the passionate and sexual elements.
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20. Sarah and Michael have a passionate and intense relationship, but they frequently argue and have difficulty maintaining a long-term commitment. According to Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, their love is characterized as: a. Companionate love b. Romantic love c. Consummate love d. Fatuous love
Correct answer: "b. Romantic love" In Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, romantic love is characterized by passion and intimacy but lacks commitment. Sarah and Michael have a passionate and intense relationship, indicating the presence of passion, but their difficulties in maintaining commitment suggest a lack of long-term commitment.
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21. The life-span perspective in psychology emphasizes: a. The importance of early childhood experiences. b. Development that occurs only during adolescence. c. Continuity and change across the entire life span. d. The influence of genetic factors on development.
Correct answer: "a. The importance of early childhood experiences." the life-span perspective recognizes that development is a lifelong process involving both continuity (consistency in patterns and traits) and change (growth, learning, and adaptation) from birth until death.
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22. According to the life-span perspective, development is influenced by: a. Genetic factors only. b. Environmental factors only. c. Interaction between genetic and environmental factors. d. Biological factors only.
Correct answer: "a. Genetic factors only." the life-span perspective acknowledges that development is shaped by the interaction between genetic factors (nature) and environmental factors (nurture), rather than being solely determined by one or the other.
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23. Which of the following is a key assumption of the life-span perspective? a. Development occurs in distinct stages. b. Development is complete by early adulthood. c. Development is influenced by cultural and historical contexts. d. Development is primarily driven by biological factors.
Correct answer: "a. Development occurs in distinct stages." the life-span perspective recognizes that development is influenced by cultural norms, historical events, and societal changes that vary across time and place. it emphasizes the importance of considering these contextual factors in understanding human development.
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24. The life-span perspective considers development in multiple domains, including: a. Physical, emotional, and cognitive. b. Biological, social, and cultural. c. Motor, sensory, and intellectual. d. Behavioral, psychological, and genetic. Feedback The life-span perspective acknowledges that development occurs in various domains, including physical (e.g., changes in the body and motor skills), emotional (e.g., changes in emotions and relationships), and cognitive (e.g., changes in thinking, memory, and problem-solving abilities). 25. The life-span perspective recognizes that development is: • Linear and unidirectional. • Irreversible and fixed. • Multidimensional and multidirectional. • Predictable and predetermined.
Correct answer: " . " the life-span perspective emphasizes that development is multidimensional, involving various aspects of an individual's life, and multidirectional, with growth occurring in some areas while decline happens in others. it rejects the notion of development being solely linear or unidirectional.
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26. Which of the following best characterizes the life-span perspective's view of aging? a. Aging is solely a decline in physical and cognitive abilities. b. Aging is a universal experience across cultures. c. Aging involves gains and losses in multiple domains. d. Aging is primarily determined by genetic factors.
Correct answer: "p. spective's view of aging?" the life-span perspective acknowledges that aging is a complex process that involves both positive aspects (gains) such as wisdom and emotional well-being, as well as negative aspects (losses) such as physical decline and memory difficulties. it recognizes that the experience of aging varies across individuals and cultures.
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27. According to the life-span perspective, development is influenced by both: a. Biology and socioeconomic status. b. Early childhood experiences and genetic factors. c. Nature and nurture. d. Cultural norms and cognitive abilities.
Correct answer: "a. Biology and socioeconomic status." the life-span perspective emphasizes the importance of both genetic factors (nature) and environmental influences (nurture) in shaping human development. it recognizes that these factors interact and contribute to an individual's growth and outcomes.
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28. The life-span perspective considers development: a. As a series of predictable and predetermined stages. b. As primarily driven by biological maturation. c. As influenced by historical and social changes. d. As a process that occurs exclusively in childhood.
Correct answer: "a. As a series of predictable and predetermined stages." the life-span perspective recognizes that development occurs in a dynamic context influenced by historical, social, and cultural changes. it moves beyond the notion that development is limited to childhood and acknowledges its ongoing nature throughout the entire life span.
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29. Which of the following is an example of a life event that can impact development according to the life-span perspective? a. Physical growth spurts during adolescence. b. Transition from high school to college. c. Genetic factors inherited from parents. d. Stable personality traits from childhood.
Correct answer: "i. act development according to the life-span perspective?" according to the life-span perspective, life events such as transitions, milestones, and societal changes can significantly impact an individual's development. the transition from high school to college represents a significant life event that can influence various aspects of development, including identity formation, social relationships, and academic achievement.
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30. The life-span perspective acknowledges that development is influenced by both: a. Genetics and socioeconomic status. b. Prenatal factors and childhood experiences. c. Nature and nurture. d. Cognitive abilities and personality traits.
Correct answer: "i. luenced by both:" the life-span perspective emphasizes that development is influenced by both genetic factors (nature) and environmental influences (nurture). it recognizes the complex interaction between these factors in shaping human development and behavior.
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31. According to the Mechanistic Model, development is primarily driven by: a. Genetic factors b. External stimuli and reinforcement c. Internal growth and maturation d. Cultural norms and expectations
Correct answer: "d. Cultural norms and expectations" the mechanistic model views development as a result of external environmental influences, such as rewards, punishments, and social reinforcement, which shape behavior and learning.
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32. The Organismic Model emphasizes that development occurs through: a. Passive responses to environmental stimuli b. Social interactions and cultural norms c. Active exploration and self-regulation d. Genetic programming and predetermined stages
Correct answer: "a. Passive responses to environmental stimuli" the organismic model proposes that development is driven by the active engagement of the individual with their environment. it emphasizes the role of an individual's internal drive, curiosity, and ability to regulate their own behavior and learning.
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33. The Mechanistic Model views development as: a. Continuous and gradual b. Discontinuous and stage-based c. Influenced by cultural norms and values d. Determined by genetic factors
Correct answer: "a. Continuous and gradual" the mechanistic model sees development as a continuous process, with changes occurring incrementally over time. it rejects the notion of distinct stages and emphasizes the importance of environmental influences.
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34. The Organismic Model proposes that development follows: a. Linear and predictable patterns b. Preprogrammed and fixed stages c. Complex and interconnected pathways d. Cultural and socially determined trajectories
Correct answer: "a. Linear and predictable patterns" the organismic model suggests that development follows dynamic and complex pathways, influenced by interactions between the individual and their environment. it recognizes that development is influenced by multiple factors and is not strictly predetermined or fixed.
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35. Normative influences refer to: a. Genetic factors that shape development b. Cultural and societal expectations c. Individual differences and unique characteristics d. Changes that occur during critical periods
Correct answer: "a. Genetic factors that shape development" normative influences are societal or cultural expectations and norms that shape an individual's behavior, values, and development. they reflect the social standards and expectations within a particular context.
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36. The Mechanistic Model is closely aligned with which theoretical approach? a. Social learning theory b. Evolutionary psychology c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Ecological systems theory
Correct answer: "a. Social learning theory" the mechanistic model aligns with social learning theory, which emphasizes the importance of external environmental influences, reinforcement, and observational learning in shaping behavior and development.
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37. The Organismic Model highlights the role of: a. Cognitive processes and problem-solving b. Genetic determinism and inherited traits c. Social interactions and cultural norms d. Psychosexual stages and unconscious conflicts
Correct answer: "a. Cognitive processes and problem-solving" the organismic model emphasizes the active role of an individual's cognitive processes, such as perception, memory, problem-solving, and reasoning, in driving their development and adaptation to the environment.
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38. Normative influences are primarily concerned with: a. Individual differences and unique characteristics b. Developmental changes during critical periods c. Cultural and societal expectations d. Genetic factors and inherited traits
Correct answer: "a. Individual differences and unique characteristics" normative influences focus on the cultural and societal expectations that shape an individual's behavior, values, and development. they represent the shared norms, values, and standards within a specific cultural or social group.
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39. The Mechanistic Model is often associated with which approach to psychology? a. Behaviorism b. Humanistic psychology c. Cognitive psychology d. Psychodynamic theory
Correct answer: "b. Humanistic psychology" the mechanistic model aligns with the behaviorist approach to psychology, which emphasizes the role of environmental influences, conditioning, and reinforcement in shaping behavior and development. 40. normative influences can be categorized as: • universal or individual • developmental or contextual • biological or environmental • prescriptive or proscriptive feedback normative influences can be categorized as developmental, referring to changes that occur during specific periods of development, or contextual, referring to the influence of cultural, societal, and environmental factors on an individual's development and behavior.
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41. The American Psychological Association (AP provides guidelines for ethical conduct in: a. Research and practice b. Counseling and therapy c. Teaching and supervision d. All of the above
Correct answer: "g. delines for ethical conduct in:" the apa provides guidelines for ethical conduct in all areas of psychology, including research, practice, counseling, therapy, teaching, and supervision. these guidelines ensure that psychologists uphold the highest standards of professionalism and ethical behavior.
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42. Informed consent is an ethical principle that emphasizes the importance of: a. Protecting participants' privacy b. Providing accurate and unbiased information c. Maintaining confidentiality of client information d. Respecting participants' autonomy and voluntary participation
Correct answer: "a. " informed consent requires that participants in research or clients in therapy have a clear understanding of the purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits involved. it emphasizes their right to make an informed decision about whether to participate.
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43. The APA encourages psychologists to maintain confidentiality, except when: a. There is a legal obligation to disclose information b. It is necessary to protect the welfare of the psychologist c. Disclosure is necessary to advance scientific knowledge d. All of the above
Correct answer: "a. There is a legal obligation to disclose information" while psychologists are generally expected to maintain confidentiality, there are situations where they may be legally or ethically obligated to disclose information. these include situations where there is a duty to warn or protect others from harm, when required by law, or when necessary to advance scientific knowledge with appropriate safeguards.
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44. The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) promotes: a. Research and scholarship in psychology. b. Collaboration with international psychology organizations. c. Accessible mental healthcare for all individuals. d. All of the above.
Correct answer: "p. chology" the pap promotes research and scholarship in psychology, collaboration with international psychology organizations to foster knowledge exchange and professional growth, and advocates for accessible mental healthcare for all individuals in the philippines.
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45. The PAP emphasizes the importance of: a. Ethical principles in psychological research and practice. b. Biomedical approaches to psychological interventions. c. Exclusive focus on individual psychological disorders. d. Rigid adherence to specific theoretical orientations.
Correct answer: "a. Ethical principles in psychological research and practice." the pap places a strong emphasis on ethical principles in conducting research and providing psychological services. it promotes the highest standards of ethical conduct to ensure the well-being and protection of individuals participating in research or seeking psychological help.
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46. The PAP promotes the development of: a. Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice. b. Exclusion of psychological research from policy-making. c. Limited involvement in community outreach. d. Biomedical models as the sole approach to psychology. Correct answer Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice.
Correct answer: "a. Cultural competence and sensitivity in practice." the pap promotes the development of cultural competence and sensitivity among psychologists. this includes understanding and respecting diverse cultural backgrounds, values, and beliefs of clients to provide effective and appropriate psychological services that are sensitive to cultural differences and needs.
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47. The American Psychological Association (AP was founded in: a. 1892 b. 1901 c. 1917 d. 1955
Correct answer: "a. 1892" The American Psychological Association (AP was founded in 1892 by a small group of psychologists and has since grown to become the largest professional organization for psychologists in the United States. It was initially established to advance psychology as a science and profession.
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48. The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) was established in: a. 1939 b. 1957 c. 1962 d. 1971
Correct answer: "a. 1939" The Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) was established in 1939 as a professional organization for psychologists in the Philippines. It was formed with the aim of promoting the development of psychology as a discipline and profession in the country.
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49. The first president of the APA was: a. G. Stanley Hall b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. B. F. Skinner
Correct answer: "a. G. Stanley Hall" g. stanley hall served as the first president of the american psychological association (ap from 1892 to 1893. he was a prominent psychologist and played a significant role in establishing psychology as a distinct scientific discipline in the united states.
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50. The first president of the PAP was: Lourdes Ignacio Virgilio Enriquez Natividad Dayan Virginia C. Caintic Feedback Virgilio Enriquez served as the first president of the Psychological Association of the Philippines (PAP) from 1958 to 1963. He was a pioneer in the field of Filipino psychology and played a significant role in promoting the indigenous psychologies of the Philippines. 51. The APA played a key role in the development of which psychological testing standard? a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale b. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory d. Rorschach Inkblot Test
Correct answer: "V. gilio Enriquez served as the first president of the Psychological" the apa played a significant role in the development and standardization of the mmpi, which is one of the most widely used psychological tests for assessing personality traits and psychopathology.
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52. The PAP has been actively involved in promoting the development of: a. Indigenous psychologies b. Behavior therapy techniques c. Neuropsychological assessments d. Psychoanalytic theories
Correct answer: "a. Indigenous psychologies" The PAP has been actively involved in promoting the development and recognition of indigenous psychologies in the Philippines. It aims to integrate traditional Filipino knowledge, values, and practices with Western psychology to create a culturally sensitive and relevant approach to psychological research and practice.
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53. The APA played a crucial role in the establishment of which major ethics code? a. Belmont Report b. Nuremberg Code c. Helsinki Declaration d. APA Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct
Correct answer: "C. duct" the apa played a crucial role in the establishment and ongoing revision of its own ethics code, which is known as the ethical principles of psychologists and code of conduct. this code provides guidelines for ethical behavior in research, teaching, and practice for psychologists in the united states.
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54. The PAP has been actively involved in advocating for the improvement of: a. Mental healthcare policies and services b. Educational assessment practices c. Criminal justice system reforms d. Industrial-organizational psychology practices
Correct answer: "a. Mental healthcare policies and services" The PAP has been actively involved in advocating for the improvement of mental healthcare policies and services in the Philippines. It works to promote access to quality mental healthcare, raise awareness about mental health issues, and advocate for the rights and well-being of individuals with mental health concerns.
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55. Which research design examines changes and differences between age groups at a single point in time? a. Cross-sectional design b. Longitudinal design c. Sequential design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "a. Cross-sectional design" cross-sectional designs involve collecting data from different age groups at a single point in time. researchers can compare different age groups to examine developmental changes or differences in variables.
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56. Which research design follows the same participants over an extended period of time? a. Cross-sectional design b. Experimental design c. Longitudinal design d. Quasi-experimental design Correct answer Longitudinal design
Correct answer: "c. Longitudinal design" longitudinal designs involve following the same participants over an extended period of time. researchers collect data at multiple time points, allowing them to examine individual trajectories of development and changes over time.
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57. Which research design combines elements of both cross- sectional and longitudinal designs? a. Cross-sequential design b. Sequential design c. Experimental design d. Correlational design
Correct answer: "b. Sequential design" sequential designs involve collecting data from different age groups at multiple time points. this design allows researchers to examine both cross-sectional and longitudinal effects and provides a more comprehensive understanding of development.
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58. Which research design is best suited for studying the effects of a specific intervention or treatment on development? a. Cross-sectional design b. Longitudinal design c. Experimental design d. Quasi-experimental design
Correct answer: "c. Experimental design" experimental designs involve manipulating an independent variable to observe its effects on a dependent variable. researchers can use this design to study the effects of specific interventions or treatments on developmental outcomes.
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59. Which research design is used when random assignment to groups is not possible? a. Cross-sectional design b. Quasi-experimental design c. Longitudinal design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "b. Quasi-experimental design" quasi-experimental designs are used when random assignment to groups is not possible or practical. researchers still manipulate an independent variable but do not have full control over the assignment of participants to groups.
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60. Which research design combines different age groups, multiple time points, and experimental manipulation? a. Sequential design b. Cross-sectional design c. Longitudinal design d. Experimental design
Correct answer: "a. Sequential design" sequential designs involve combining different age groups, multiple time points, and experimental manipulation. this design allows researchers to examine both age-related and cohort-related effects on development while also manipulating variables of interest.
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61. According to Sigmund Freud's Psychosexual Theory, which stage is associated with the focus on developing sexual and romantic relationships? a. Oral stage b. Anal stage c. Phallic stage d. Latency stage
Correct answer: "c. Phallic stage" In Freud's Psychosexual Theory, the phallic stage occurs during the preschool years (around 3 to 6 years ol. During this stage, children develop curiosity about their bodies and become aware of gender differences. The Oedipus and Electra complexes are significant conflicts during this stage, related to the child's developing sexual and romantic feelings.
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62. Olivia is a 65-year-old retiree who spends her time reflecting on her life and feeling a sense of fulfillment and satisfaction. She enjoys sharing her wisdom with younger generations and finds purpose in mentoring others. Olivia is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Identity vs. Role Confusion c. Ego Integrity vs. Despair d. Generativity vs. Stagnation
Correct answer: "c. Ego Integrity vs. Despair" olivia's reflection on her life, feeling of fulfillment, and sharing wisdom with younger generations indicate that she is in the stage of ego integrity vs. despair. this stage occurs during late adulthood, and individuals strive to develop a sense of integrity and satisfaction with their life choices.
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63. Daniel, a 16-year-old high school student, is exploring various interests, values, and potential career paths. He is actively seeking to understand his own identity and experimenting with different roles and relationships. Daniel is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt c. Identity vs. Role Confusion d. Intimacy vs. Isolation
Correct answer: "c. Identity vs. Role Confusion" daniel's active exploration of interests, values, and potential career paths, as well as his search for identity, indicate that he is in the stage of identity vs. role confusion. this stage occurs during adolescence, and individuals strive to establish a sense of identity and a coherent understanding of themselves.
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64. Maya, a 9-year-old, is eagerly participating in extracurricular activities, taking pride in her accomplishments, and developing a sense of competence. She is motivated to learn new skills and receives praise for her efforts. Maya is most likely in which stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Theory? a. Initiative vs. Guilt b. Industry vs. Inferiority c. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt d. Integrity vs. Despair
Correct answer: "b. Industry vs. Inferiority" maya's participation in extracurricular activities, pride in her accomplishments, and motivation to learn new skills indicate that she is in the stage of industry vs. inferiority. this stage occurs during middle childhood, and individuals strive to develop a sense of competence and industry.
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65. Ethan, a 4-year-old, enjoys playing with blocks and building various structures. He is able to mentally represent objects and actions, such as imagining how a tower of blocks would look if he added more blocks to it. Ethan is most likely in which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" ethan's ability to mentally represent objects and actions and imagine how a tower of blocks would look with more blocks indicates that he is in the preoperational stage. this stage occurs roughly from 2 to 7 years old and is characterized by the development of symbolic thought, pretend play, and egocentric thinking.
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66. Mia, a 10-year-old, is given a conservation task where she is shown two identical glasses filled with the same amount of water. One glass is then poured into a taller, narrower glass, which appears to have more water. Mia concludes that the taller glass has more water. Mia's response is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" mia's inability to understand conservation, as evidenced by her belief that the taller glass has more water, is characteristic of the preoperational stage. in this stage, children have difficulty grasping the concept of conservation and often focus on perceptual aspects rather than logical reasoning.
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67. Lily, a 7-year-old, is able to understand that if A is greater than B and B is greater than C, then A is also greater than C. She can apply this transitive logic to various relationships. Lily's ability to understand transitivity is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "c. Concrete operational stage" lily's ability to understand transitivity, as demonstrated by her understanding of the relationship between a, b, and c, is characteristic of the concrete operational stage. this stage typically occurs around 7 to 11 years old and is characterized by the ability to think logically about concrete objects and events.
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68. Ethan, a 6-month-old baby, is playing with a colorful rattle. He shakes the rattle and watches it move. As he shakes it again, he begins to smile and shake it more vigorously. Ethan is most likely demonstrating which substage of Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage? a. Object permanence b. Circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Tertiary circular reactions
Correct answer: "b. Circular reactions" Ethan's behavior of shaking the rattle and smiling in response to the movement is characteristic of the circular reactions substage. During this substage (around 4 to 8 months ol, infants repeat actions to explore their effects and learn about cause and effect relationships.
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69. Ava, a 16-months-old, is pretending to cook using her cookware set toys with a dish she saw in her mother. According to Piaget, Ava's action suggests the development of which concept? a. Object permanence b. Mental representation c. Deferred imitation d. Symbolic play
Correct answer: "c. Deferred imitation" Deferred imitation is a psychological term for a process that all humans undergo, most notably during early childhood. It is a process in which a child will observe someone, usually an adult, completing an action. The child will then, after a period of time, imitate the action.
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70. Noah, a 5-month-old, is playing with a toy car. He accidentally pushes it off the table, but he doesn't show any reaction or attempt to retrieve the car. Noah's behavior is characteristic of which substage of Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage? a. Reflexive schemes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Tertiary circular reactions Feedback Noah's lack of reaction or attempts to retrieve the toy car suggests that he is in the reflexive schemes substage of the Sensorimotor Stage. During this substage (from birth to 1 month ol, infants' actions are reflexive and not purposeful or goal-directed. 71. Sofia, a 9-year-old, is given a conservation task where she is shown two identical glasses filled with the same amount of water. One glass is then poured into a taller, narrower glass, which appears to have more water. Sofia correctly concludes that the amount of water remains the same. Sofia's response is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? • Sensorimotor stage • Preoperational stage • Concrete operational stage • Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "•. " sofia's ability to correctly conclude that the amount of water remains the same, despite the change in appearance, reflects her understanding of conservation. conservation is a hallmark of the concrete operational stage (around 7 to 11 years ol, during which children acquire the ability to think logically about concrete objects and events.
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72. Ethan, an 11-year-old, is able to understand and apply logical principles to solve arithmetic problems. He can perform mental operations, such as mentally calculating the area of a rectangle based on its dimensions. Ethan's ability to engage in mental operations is characteristic of which stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "c. Concrete operational stage" ethan's ability to engage in mental operations, such as mentally calculating the area of a rectangle, reflects his cognitive development in the concrete operational stage. mental operations involve the ability to manipulate and reason about abstract concepts, which is a hallmark of this stage.
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73. Sarah, a 6-year-old, witnesses her classmate stealing a toy from another student's bag. When asked about it, Sarah responds, "It's wrong to steal because you'll get punished." Sarah's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Preconventional level, Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience Orientation b. Preconventional level, Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange c. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships d. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
Correct answer: "S. ge" sarah's response that stealing is wrong because of the fear of punishment reflects the moral reasoning of stage 1. at this stage, individuals focus on avoiding punishment and obeying authority.
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74. Emma, a 9-year-old, is asked to return a wallet she found on the street to its owner. Emma decides to return the wallet because she believes it's the right thing to do and wants to be seen as a trustworthy person. Emma's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Preconventional level, Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience Orientation b. Preconventional level, Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange c. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships d. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
Correct answer: "S. ge" emma's decision to return the wallet based on her belief that it's the right thing to do and to be seen as trustworthy reflects the moral reasoning of stage 3. at this stage, individuals seek to maintain good interpersonal relationships and conform to social expectations.
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75. Jacob, a 16-year-old, actively participates in volunteering activities and supports social justice causes because he believes it's his moral duty to contribute to the well-being of others. Jacob's moral reasoning is characteristic of which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? a. Conventional level, Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships b. Conventional level, Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order c. Postconventional level, Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights d. Postconventional level, Stage 6: Universal Ethical Principles
Correct answer: "S. ge" jacob's active participation in volunteering activities based on his belief in contributing to the well-being of others reflects the moral reasoning of stage 6. at this highest stage of moral development, individuals operate based on universal ethical principles that transcend specific social norms.
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76. Which age group’s mental health was most affected by the restrictions associated with COVID-19? a. 18–34 b. 35–49 c. 50–64 d. ≥65 77. Maria, a 7-year-old, is having difficulty adjusting to her new school environment. She feels overwhelmed by the large class size and struggles to make friends. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Maria's experience? • Microsystem • Mesosystem • Exosystem • Macrosystem
Correct answer: "•. " maria's difficulty adjusting to the new school environment and struggling to make friends are influenced by the interactions and relationships within her immediate settings, such as her interactions with classmates and teachers. the mesosystem refers to the connections and interactions between different microsystems.
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78. James, a 15-year-old, spends a significant amount of time playing video games and engaging in online communities. He finds support, friendship, and a sense of belonging through these virtual interactions. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting James' experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "c. Exosystem" James' experience of finding support, friendship, and a sense of belonging through online communities is influenced by the exosystem. The exosystem represents broader social settings that indirectly affect an individual, such as societal norms, media, and technology.
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79. Alex, a 3-year-old, attends a high-quality early childhood education program where he receives nurturing care and developmentally appropriate activities. The program emphasizes positive relationships and individualized attention. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Alex's experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "a. Microsystem" Alex's experience of attending a high-quality early childhood education program, receiving nurturing care, and engaging in developmentally appropriate activities is influenced by the microsystem. The microsystem refers to the immediate settings in which an individual interacts, such as family, school, and peer groups.
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80. Emily, a 25-year-old, grew up in a society that promotes gender equality and provides ample opportunities for women's empowerment. She has pursued higher education, established a successful career, and actively participates in leadership roles. According to the Ecological Model, which level of influence is most likely impacting Emily's experience? a. Microsystem b. Mesosystem c. Exosystem d. Macrosystem
Correct answer: "d. Macrosystem" Emily's experience of growing up in a society that promotes gender equality, provides opportunities for women's empowerment, and supports her educational and career pursuits is influenced by the macrosystem. The macrosystem encompasses cultural values, societal norms, and broader social and political ideologies.
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81. Sarah, a 4-year-old, is playing with building blocks in a preschool classroom. She is struggling to stack the blocks in a stable tower. The teacher, noticing her difficulty, provides guidance and demonstrates the proper technique for building a stable tower. This interaction is an example of: a. Scaffolding b. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "a. Scaffolding" The teacher providing guidance and demonstrating the proper technique for building a stable tower is an example of scaffolding in Sociocultural Theory. Scaffolding refers to the support or assistance provided by a more knowledgeable individual to help a learner accomplish a task that they would not be able to do independently.
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82. Jack, a 7-year-old, is struggling with a complex math problem. His classmate, Lily, who has a better understanding of the topic, sits next to him and explains the steps to solve the problem. Jack successfully solves the problem with Lily's help. This scenario best illustrates: a. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) b. Scaffolding c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "H. classmate, Lily, who has a better understanding of the topic," jack's interaction with lily, where she explains the steps to solve the complex math problem and jack successfully solves it with her help, illustrates the zone of proximal development. the zpd refers to the range of tasks that a learner cannot yet accomplish independently but can achieve with the guidance or support of a more knowledgeable person.
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83. Ethan, a 15-year-old, is working on a group project with his classmates. They are assigned to research and present a topic to the class. During their collaboration, Ethan actively listens to his classmates' ideas, provides feedback, and builds upon their contributions. This collaborative process reflects the importance of: a. Scaffolding b. ZPD (Zone of Proximal Development) c. Private speech d. Social interaction
Correct answer: "d. Social interaction" Ethan's active listening, providing feedback, and building upon his classmates' contributions during the group project exemplify the importance of social interaction in Sociocultural Theory. Vygotsky emphasized the role of social interaction and collaboration in shaping cognitive development and learning.
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84. Emma, a 2-year-old, demonstrates an ________ attachment style. When her primary caregiver returns after a brief separation, Emma shows little interest or reaction, avoiding physical contact. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "b. Avoidant attachment" Emma's lack of interest or reaction and avoidance of physical contact upon the return of her primary caregiver are consistent with the behavior of a child with an avoidant attachment style. In this attachment pattern, children may appear emotionally distant or detached and minimize seeking comfort from the caregiver.
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85. Noah, a 1-year-old, exhibits a ________ attachment style. When his primary caregiver returns after a brief separation, Noah shows ambivalent behavior, both seeking comfort and avoiding contact. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "c. Resistant attachment" Noah's ambivalent behavior, seeking comfort but also resisting contact upon the return of his primary caregiver, aligns with the behavior of a child with a resistant attachment style. In this attachment pattern, children may display clingy or inconsistent behavior, expressing a mix of approach and resistance toward the caregiver.
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86. Ethan, a 2-year-old, shows ________ behavior during a reunion with his primary caregiver after a brief separation. He displays a combination of contradictory behaviors, such as freezing, appearing confused, or displaying stereotypical movements. This behavior is consistent with which attachment pattern identified by Ainsworth? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Correct answer: "d. Disorganized attachment" Ethan's display of contradictory behaviors, freezing, confusion, or stereotypical movements during the reunion with his primary caregiver, reflects the behavior of a child with a disorganized attachment style. Disorganized attachment is characterized by inconsistent or atypical behaviors and is often associated with adverse caregiving experiences.
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87. Mia, a 1-year-old, is actively exploring her environment but frequently checks back with her primary caregiver, seeking reassurance and comfort. Mia displays a balance between exploration and attachment behaviors. This behavior is consistent with which developmental phase described by Margaret Mahler? a. Rapprochement b. Separation-individuation c. Symbiotic phase d. Object constancy
Correct answer: "a. Rapprochement" Mia's active exploration of her environment while frequently checking back with her primary caregiver for reassurance and comfort aligns with the behavior observed during the Rapprochement phase described by Mahler. During this phase (around 1 to 2 years ol, children develop a balance between the need for autonomy and the need for a secure attachment figure.
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88. Sarah, a 16-year-old, has always accepted her parents' religious beliefs without question. However, recently, she has started to explore different religions and beliefs to determine her own spiritual path. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Sarah's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "c. Identity moratorium" sarah's exploration of different religions and beliefs indicates a state of identity moratorium. in this identity status, individuals are actively exploring different options and possibilities without having made firm commitments.
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89. Jake, an 18-year-old, has decided to pursue a career in medicine, which aligns with his long-standing interest in healthcare. He has considered various factors, such as his skills, values, and future goals, and has made a commitment to his career choice. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Jake's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "d. Identity achievement" jake's consideration of different factors and his commitment to a career in medicine align with the identity achievement status. in this identity status, individuals have actively explored options and made firm commitments based on their own values and goals.
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90. Emma, a 20-year-old, has always felt pressured by her parents to follow a particular career path. Despite feeling unsure and unenthusiastic about it, Emma decides to pursue that career because it is expected of her. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Emma's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "b. Identity foreclosure" Emma's decision to pursue a career that is expected of her, without exploring other options or considering her own interests and values, reflects the identity foreclosure status. In this identity status, individuals make commitments without engaging in exploration.
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91. Liam, a 19-year-old, is uncertain about his career path and has not made any firm commitments yet. He feels confused and overwhelmed by the many possibilities and is unsure of his own abilities and interests. According to Marcia's identity statuses, Liam's behavior reflects which identity status? a. Identity diffusion b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity moratorium d. Identity achievement
Correct answer: "a. Identity diffusion" Liam's uncertainty, confusion, and lack of firm commitments reflect the identity diffusion status. In this identity status, individuals have not yet explored different options or made commitments, often resulting in a state of confusion and uncertainty.
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92. Jeremy is born with a genetic disorder that affects the production of red blood cells, leading to anemia. This condition is most likely caused by a: a. Gene-linked abnormality b. Chromosomal abnormality c. Single-gene disorder d. Polygenic disorder
Correct answer: "c. Single-gene disorder" jeremy's genetic disorder affecting the production of red blood cells is likely caused by a mutation or abnormality in a single gene. single-gene disorders are caused by changes in a specific gene and can result in various health conditions.
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93. Emma is born with Down syndrome, a condition characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21. This condition is an example of a: a. Gene-linked abnormality b. Chromosomal abnormality c. Single-gene disorder d. Polygenic disorder
Correct answer: "b. Chromosomal abnormality" emma's condition of having an extra copy of chromosome 21 is an example of a chromosomal abnormality. chromosomal abnormalities occur when there are structural changes or numerical variations in the chromosomes.
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94. Ava, a 30-year-old, has a family history of Alzheimer's disease, a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. She is concerned about her own risk of developing the condition. Alzheimer's disease is primarily influenced by: a. Genetic and environmental factors b. Autosomal recessive inheritance c. Chromosomal abnormalities d. Multifactorial inheritance
Correct answer: "a. Genetic and environmental factors" alzheimer's disease is primarily influenced by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. while specific genes can contribute to the risk of developing the disease, other factors such as lifestyle, diet, and environmental exposures also play a role.
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95. Sarah, a 30-year-old, is diagnosed with Down syndrome. This condition is caused by an extra copy of which chromosome? a. Chromosome 21 b. Chromosome 18 c. Chromosome X d. Chromosome Y
Correct answer: "a. Chromosome 21" Down syndrome, also known as Trisomy 21, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21. Individuals with Down syndrome have three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two copies.
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96. Christine, a 15-year-old, is diagnosed with Turner syndrome. This condition is characterized by the absence or partial absence of which chromosome? a. Chromosome 21 b. Chromosome 18 c. Chromosome X d. Chromosome Y
Correct answer: "T. s condition is characterized by the absence or partial absence" turner syndrome is caused by the absence or partial absence of one of the x chromosomes in females. instead of having the usual xx chromosome pattern, individuals with turner syndrome have a single x chromosome.
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97. During which period of prenatal development do major organ systems form, making the embryo particularly vulnerable to teratogens? a. Germinal period b. Embryonic period c. Fetal period d. Preconception period
Correct answer: "b. Embryonic period" the embryonic period, which occurs from approximately the third to the eighth week of prenatal development, is a critical time for the formation and development of major organ systems. it is during this period that the embryo is particularly vulnerable to teratogens, which are substances that can cause developmental abnormalities.
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98. Which of the following is a potential consequence of maternal exposure to harmful substances, such as drugs or alcohol, during prenatal development? a. Impaired cognitive development b. Delayed physical growth c. Increased risk of socioemotional difficulties d. All of the above
Correct answer: "b. Delayed physical growth" maternal exposure to harmful substances during prenatal development can have detrimental effects on various aspects of the developing fetus. it can lead to impaired cognitive development, delayed physical growth, and an increased risk of socioemotional difficulties in the child.
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99. Which sense is the most developed and functional during prenatal development? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Taste d. Touch
Correct answer: "b. Hearing" The sense of hearing is the most developed and functional sense during prenatal development. By the third trimester of pregnancy, the fetus can hear and respond to sounds in the environment. This early exposure to auditory stimuli can have an impact on later cognitive and language development.
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100. Which factor has the greatest influence on healthy prenatal development? a. Genetic factors b. Environmental factors c. Socioeconomic factors d. Cultural factors
Correct answer: "a. Genetic factors" While genetic factors play a significant role in prenatal development, environmental factors, such as the mother's nutrition, exposure to toxins, and overall health, have the greatest influence on healthy prenatal development. The prenatal environment, including the mother's lifestyle and care, can significantly impact the developing fetus.
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101. When a newborn's cheek is touched, they turn their head toward the stimulus and begin sucking. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "b. Rooting reflex" The rooting reflex is triggered when a newborn's cheek is touched, causing them to turn their head toward the stimulus in search of a nipple or a source of food. This reflex helps facilitate breastfeeding and early feeding behaviors.
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102. When a newborn is startled or experiences a sudden loss of support, they spread their arms and then bring them back toward the body. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "a. Moro reflex" The Moro reflex is commonly referred to as the startle reflex. It is triggered by sudden stimuli, such as a loud noise or a sensation of falling, and results in the newborn spreading their arms and then bringing them back toward the body. This reflex is thought to have served a protective function in ancestral human infants.
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103. When the sole of a newborn's foot is stroked, their toes fan out and curl upward. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "c. Babinski reflex" The Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the sole of a newborn's foot. The reflex causes the toes to fan out and curl upward. This response is a normal reflex in newborns, but it typically disappears as the nervous system develops.
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104. When an object is placed in a newborn's palm or fingers, they automatically grasp it. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "d. Grasp reflex" The grasp reflex is observed when an object is placed in a newborn's palm or fingers, and they automatically close their hand around the object. This reflex is an early motor response and typically disappears after a few months.
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105. When a newborn's head is tilted to one side, they extend the arm and leg on that side while flexing the opposite arm and leg. This reflex is known as the: a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Tonic neck reflex
Correct answer: "d. Tonic neck reflex" the tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex or asymmetric tonic neck reflex, is observed when a newborn's head is turned to one side. in response, the arm and leg on the side the head is facing extend, while the opposite arm and leg flex. this reflex helps lay the foundation for later voluntary movements.
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106. When the roof of a newborn's mouth is touched, they begin to suck. This reflex is known as the: a. Babinski reflex b. Suck reflex c. Rooting reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "b. Suck reflex" The suck reflex is triggered when the roof of a newborn's mouth is touched, initiating a rhythmic sucking motion. This reflex is vital for feeding and allows newborns to obtain nourishment from breastfeeding or bottle-feeding.
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107. When a newborn's head is turned to one side, they automatically rotate their body in the same direction. This reflex is known as the: a. Tonic neck reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "a. Tonic neck reflex" the tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex or asymmetric tonic neck reflex, is observed when a newborn's head is turned to one side. in response, the newborn automatically rotates their body in the same direction. this reflex aids in the development of coordination and helps prepare the infant for more complex movements.
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108. When a newborn's foot is pressed against a surface, they push against it with their toes. This reflex is known as the: a. Plantar reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "a. Plantar reflex" The plantar reflex is observed when a newborn's foot is pressed against a surface, causing them to push against it with their toes. This reflex helps with balance and posture development.
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109. When a newborn's lips are touched or stroked, they pucker their lips as if preparing to suck. This reflex is known as the: a. Suck reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasp reflex
Correct answer: "a. Suck reflex" The suck reflex is triggered when a newborn's lips are touched or stroked, resulting in the puckering of their lips as if preparing to suck. This reflex facilitates feeding and the intake of nourishment.
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110. When a newborn is held in an upright position with their feet touching a solid surface, they make stepping movements as if walking. This reflex is known as the: a. Walking reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Moro reflex
Correct answer: "a. Walking reflex" the walking reflex, also referred to as the stepping reflex, is observed when a newborn is held upright with their feet touching a solid surface. they will make stepping movements as if attempting to walk. although this reflex is present at birth, it typically disappears within a few weeks.
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111. Emily, a 9-month-old infant, does not respond when her name is called and shows minimal interest in social interactions. These behaviors may be indicative of: a. Autism spectrum disorder b. Sensory processing disorder c. Separation anxiety d. Language delay
Correct answer: "a. Autism spectrum disorder" The lack of response to name calling and minimal interest in social interactions in a 9-month-old infant may raise concerns about autism spectrum disorder (AS. It is important to consult with healthcare professionals for a comprehensive evaluation and diagnosis.
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112. Liam, a 15-month-old toddler, exhibits excessive tantrums, difficulties with transitions, and intense emotional reactions. These behaviors may be suggestive of: a. Sensory processing disorder b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Normal temperamental variations d. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
Correct answer: "c. Normal temperamental variations" excessive tantrums, difficulties with transitions, and intense emotional reactions are common in toddlers and often represent normal temperamental variations. toddlers are learning to regulate their emotions and assert their independence, which can manifest in emotional outbursts.
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113. Chloe, a 6-month-old infant, has not yet rolled over or shown any attempts to sit independently. This delay in motor milestones may warrant further assessment for: a. Gross motor delay b. Fine motor delay c. Sensory processing disorder d. Cognitive impairment
Correct answer: "a. Gross motor delay" the absence of rolling over or attempts to sit independently in a 6- month-old infant may indicate a gross motor delay. it is important to monitor motor development and consult a healthcare professional if there are significant delays or concerns.
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114. Emma, a 4-year-old, often struggles with sharing toys and taking turns during playtime. This behavior is typical of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal egocentrism c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Social anxiety disorder
Correct answer: "t. ing turns during playtime. This behavior is typical of:" during early childhood, children are still developing their understanding of others' perspectives and may exhibit egocentric behaviors, such as difficulty sharing and taking turns. this behavior is a typical part of their cognitive and social-emotional development.
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115. Liam, a 5-year-old, experiences difficulties following instructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured activities. These challenges may raise concerns about: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal developmental variations c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Social communication disorder
Correct answer: "i. tructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured" difficulties in following instructions, staying focused, and sitting still during structured activities in a 5-year-old may raise concerns about attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adh. a comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals is needed to make an accurate diagnosis.
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116. Sophia, a 3-year-old, frequently engages in imaginary play, creating elaborate storylines and characters. This imaginative play is an indication of: a. Fantasy-prone personality disorder b. Normal pretend play c. Autism spectrum disorder d. Oppositional defiant disorder
Correct answer: "i. an indication of:" engaging in imaginary play, creating elaborate storylines, and inventing characters is a normal part of early childhood development. pretend play enhances creativity, social skills, and cognitive abilities, fostering overall development.
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117. Emily, an 8-year-old, frequently struggles with organizing her school materials, keeping track of assignments, and completing tasks on time. These challenges may be indicative of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Learning difficulties or attention deficits c. Normal developmental variations d. Social communication disorder
Correct answer: "s. ool materials, keeping track of assignments, and completing" difficulties in organizing materials, managing assignments, and completing tasks on time in an 8-year-old may indicate learning difficulties or attention deficits. a comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals can help identify specific areas of need and provide appropriate support.
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118. Liam, a 10-year-old, often experiences negative emotions, such as sadness or irritability, and demonstrates difficulties regulating his emotions. These challenges may raise concerns about: a. Bipolar disorder b. Normal emotional development c. Anxiety disorder d. Conduct disorder
Correct answer: "b. Normal emotional development" experiencing negative emotions, such as sadness or irritability, and difficulties in emotion regulation are common during middle and late childhood as children navigate the complexities of emotions and social interactions. these challenges are often part of normal emotional development.
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119. Sophia, a 9-year-old, frequently engages in arguments and conflicts with peers, exhibits defiance toward authority figures, and refuses to follow rules. These behaviors may be suggestive of: a. Oppositional defiant disorder b. Normal testing of boundaries c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Autism spectrum disorder
Correct answer: "a. Oppositional defiant disorder" Engaging in arguments and conflicts with peers, defiance toward authority figures, and refusal to follow rules in a 9-year-old may raise concerns about oppositional defiant disorder (OD. A comprehensive evaluation by healthcare professionals is needed for an accurate diagnosis.
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120. Ethan, a 12-year-old, demonstrates a strong desire for peer acceptance and conformity, often changing opinions or behaviors to fit in with the group. This behavior is characteristic of: a. Low self-esteem b. Peer pressure c. Social withdrawal d. Oppositional defiant disorder
Correct answer: "b. Peer pressure" A strong desire for peer acceptance and conformity, along with changing opinions or behaviors to fit in with the group, are common aspects of peer pressure during middle and late childhood. Peer influence plays a significant role in shaping social behaviors and choices during this stage.
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121. Which of the following traits is NOT part of McCrae's Five- Factor Model? a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Honesty
Correct answer: "b. Extraversion" mccrae's five-factor model includes the following traits: openness to experience, extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and neuroticism. "honesty" is not specifically identified as one of the primary factors in this model.
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122. John is known for being imaginative, curious, and open to new experiences. In the Five-Factor Model, John would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Neuroticism
Correct answer: "a. Openness to experience" Openness to experience refers to an individual's willingness to explore new ideas, engage in creative pursuits, and be receptive to novel experiences. John's characteristics of being imaginative, curious, and open to new experiences align with this trait.
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123. Sarah is known for being friendly, outgoing, and sociable. In the Five-Factor Model, Sarah would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Neuroticism
Correct answer: "b. Extraversion" Extraversion refers to the degree to which an individual seeks social interactions, enjoys being around others, and is outgoing and assertive. Sarah's traits of being friendly, outgoing, and sociable align with the extraversion factor.
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124. Michael is known for being kind, considerate, and cooperative. In the Five-Factor Model, Michael would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness
Correct answer: "c. Agreeableness" Agreeableness refers to an individual's tendency to be compassionate, cooperative, and empathetic towards others. Michael's traits of being kind, considerate, and cooperative align with the agreeableness factor.
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125. Julia is often described as organized, disciplined, and reliable. In the Five-Factor Model, Julia would likely score high in: a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness
Correct answer: "d. Conscientiousness" Conscientiousness refers to an individual's level of organization, self-discipline, and reliability. Julia's traits of being organized, disciplined, and reliable align with the conscientiousness factor.
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151. During the Sensorimotor Stage, infants explore their environment through which senses? a. Vision and hearing b. Touch and taste c. Smell and hearing d. Touch and hearing
Correct answer: "d. Touch and hearing" during the sensorimotor stage, infants primarily explore their environment through the senses of touch and hearing. they use their hands and mouths to explore objects and rely on auditory cues to make sense of their surroundings.
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152. Which of the following behaviors is characteristic of the later stages of the Sensorimotor Stage? a. Simple reflexive responses b. Coordination of sensory and motor actions c. Symbolic representation and pretend play d. Object permanence and understanding of cause and effect
Correct answer: "e. ect" in the later stages of the sensorimotor stage, infants develop the ability for symbolic representation, which allows them to use symbols or mental images to represent objects or events. they may engage in pretend play, using objects to represent other objects, people, or situations.
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153. The Sensorimotor Stage is characterized by the absence of which cognitive process? a. Imitation b. Symbolic thought c. Object permanence d. Sensorimotor integration
Correct answer: "b. Symbolic thought" symbolic thought, the ability to use symbols or mental representations to represent objects or events, is not fully developed in the sensorimotor stage. this ability emerges in later stages of cognitive development.
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154. Which of the following is NOT a substage of the Sensorimotor Stage? a. Reflexes b. Circular reactions c. Mental representation d. Tertiary circular reactions
Correct answer: "c. Mental representation" Mental representation is not a substage of the Sensorimotor Stage. The actual substage progression includes reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, and beginning of representational thought.
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155. The Sensorimotor Stage lays the foundation for the development of which cognitive concept in later stages? a. Conservation b. Egocentrism c. Object permanence d. Abstract reasoning
Correct answer: "d. Abstract reasoning" the sensorimotor stage, particularly the development of object permanence, lays the foundation for later cognitive concepts such as conservation, egocentrism, and abstract reasoning. it provides the building blocks for understanding the world and engaging in more complex cognitive processes.
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156. Which pattern of crying in infants is characterized by a high- pitched, intense cry that is sudden and without obvious cause? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Anguished cry
Correct answer: "c. Pain cry" The pain cry is a high-pitched, intense cry that occurs suddenly and is usually accompanied by physical signs of distress. It can be triggered by discomfort, injury, or illness and may indicate the need for immediate attention and care.
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157. Which pattern of crying in infants is a rhythmic, repetitive cry with a lower intensity than other cries and is often associated with fatigue or frustration? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Whining cry
Correct answer: "d. Whining cry" The whining cry is a rhythmic, repetitive cry with a lower intensity than other cries. It is often associated with fatigue, frustration, or mild discomfort. Infants may display this cry when they are tired, bored, or seeking attention.
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158. Which pattern of crying in infants is a combination of cries and vowel-like sounds, and it is the most common type of cry? a. Basic cry b. Mad cry c. Pain cry d. Whining cry
Correct answer: "a. Basic cry" The basic cry is a combination of cries and vowel-like sounds and is the most common type of cry observed in infants. It typically indicates general needs such as hunger, fatigue, or discomfort. The basic cry can vary in intensity and can be accompanied by facial expressions and body movements.
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159. Easy children are typically characterized by: a. High activity level and intense reactions b. Regular routines and adaptability to change c. Shyness and withdrawal in new situations d. Strong-willed and challenging behavior
Correct answer: "a. High activity level and intense reactions" easy children are known for their adaptable nature and ability to establish regular routines. they tend to have a positive mood, display low intensity of reactions, and adapt well to new experiences or changes in their environment.
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160. Slow-to-warm-up children are characterized by: a. High activity level and intense reactions b. Regular routines and adaptability to change c. Shyness and withdrawal in new situations d. Strong-willed and challenging behavior
Correct answer: "a. High activity level and intense reactions" slow-to-warm-up children are initially hesitant and cautious in new or unfamiliar situations. they may exhibit shyness, withdrawal, and a slow adaptation to new people or environments. given time and support, they gradually become more comfortable and less hesitant.
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161. Which temperament profile is associated with the greatest challenges for caregivers? a. Easy children b. Difficult children c. Slow-to-warm-up children d. All temperament profiles present unique challenges
Correct answer: "b. Difficult children" difficult children, due to their strong-willed and challenging behavior, often present the greatest challenges for caregivers. their resistance to change and intense reactions can make it more demanding to meet their needs and manage their behaviors effectively. however, it's important to note that all temperament profiles present unique challenges, and caregivers may need to adjust their approaches to meet the needs of each child.
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162. Preoperational thought is a stage of cognitive development proposed by which theorist? a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Erikson c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg
Correct answer: "c. Jean Piaget" preoperational thought is a stage of cognitive development proposed by jean piaget. it occurs approximately between the ages of 2 and 7 years old and is characterized by significant gains in language and symbolic representation.
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163. Symbolic function refers to the ability of children in the preoperational stage to: a. Understand the conservation of quantity b. Reason logically and systematically c. Use symbols and mental representation to represent objects or events d. Develop empathy and social understanding
Correct answer: "p. operational stage to:" symbolic function is a significant cognitive milestone in the preoperational stage. it involves the ability to use symbols, such as words, images, or gestures, to represent objects, actions, or events that are not physically present. this ability forms the basis for imaginative play, language development, and the understanding of symbolic representations in various domains.
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164. Intuitive thought is a characteristic of which stage of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" intuitive thought is a characteristic of the preoperational stage. during this stage, which occurs roughly between ages 4 and 7, children begin to engage in more advanced thinking but still lack the ability for logical and systematic reasoning. intuitive thought refers to children's reliance on immediate perceptions and hunches rather than logical reasoning when solving problems or making judgments.
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165. Which of the following is a limitation of preoperational thought? a. Lack of symbolic representation b. Inability to engage in make-believe play c. Difficulty understanding the concept of conservation d. Limited vocabulary and language skills
Correct answer: "a. Lack of symbolic representation" one of the limitations of preoperational thought is the difficulty in understanding the concept of conservation, which refers to the understanding that certain properties of objects remain the same despite changes in appearance or arrangement. preoperational children often focus on the most salient features and may not grasp the idea that the quantity or volume of a substance can remain the same even if it appears differently. this limitation gradually diminishes as children progress into the concrete operational stage.
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166. Animism is a concept commonly observed during which stage of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Preoperational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Formal operational stage
Correct answer: "b. Preoperational stage" Animism is a concept commonly observed during the preoperational stage of cognitive development, as proposed by Jean Piaget. Preoperational children tend to attribute lifelike qualities and intentions to inanimate objects, believing that they have thoughts, feelings, and intentions similar to humans.
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167. Transduction is a cognitive process characterized by: a. Focusing on the most salient features of an object or event b. Understanding that others have different beliefs and perspectives c. Recognizing that certain properties of objects remain the same despite changes in appearance d. Mentally connecting unrelated events or ideas based on perceived associations
Correct answer: "e. nt" transduction is a cognitive process observed during the preoperational stage of cognitive development. it involves making connections between unrelated events or ideas based on perceived associations, without necessarily understanding logical or cause-and-effect relationships.
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168. According to Parten's stages of play, associative play involves: a. Independent play with minimal interaction with others b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities c. Playing alongside others but without significant interaction or coordination d. Cooperative play with shared goals and organized group activities
Correct answer: "a. ivities" according to parten's stages of play, associative play is a stage where children play alongside others, sharing materials and showing interest in what others are doing, but without significant organization or coordination of activities. they may observe, imitate, and be influenced by others' actions, but there is no formal organization or shared goals.
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169. The highest level of cognitive play is characterized by: a. Independent play b. Parallel play c. Cooperative play d. Onlooker play
Correct answer: "c. Cooperative play" Cooperative play is the highest level of cognitive play. It involves children engaging in organized group activities with shared goals, coordinating their actions, and working together towards a common objective. In this stage, children display advanced cognitive and social skills, such as negotiation, problem-solving, and perspective-taking.
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170. Onlooker play is characterized by: a. Independent play with minimal interaction with others b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities c. Observing others play without actively participating d. Cooperative play with shared goals and organized group activities
Correct answer: "b. Engaging in pretend play and imaginative activities" onlooker play is a stage where children observe others play without actively participating themselves. they may watch, comment, or ask questions about the play of others but do not engage directly in the play activity. it provides an opportunity for children to learn from observing and gain insight into different play behaviors and social interactions.
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171. According to Emile Durkheim's classification, which type of suicide is characterized by a lack of integration and social cohesion? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "b. Egoistic suicide" Egoistic suicide occurs when individuals experience a lack of social integration and connection to others. They may feel isolated, detached, or disconnected from social groups, resulting in higher suicide rates.
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172. Altruistic suicide is characterized by: a. High levels of social integration and collective identity b. A lack of social norms and regulation c. Despair and hopelessness due to oppressive societal conditions d. A disregard for social values and norms
Correct answer: "a. High levels of social integration and collective identity" altruistic suicide occurs when individuals have a high level of social integration and a strong collective identity. they may be willing to sacrifice their lives for the greater good or the expectations of their social group.
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173. Which type of suicide is associated with a breakdown of social norms and a lack of moral regulation? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "c. Anomic suicide" Anomic suicide occurs in situations where there is a breakdown of social norms, such as during times of social or economic upheaval. Individuals may feel a sense of normlessness, uncertainty, and a lack of moral regulation, which can contribute to higher suicide rates.
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174. In a small village where conformity to tradition is highly valued, a woman takes her own life after failing to fulfill societal expectations and facing ostracism from her community. In a highly traditional society where strict social norms and obligations are valued, individuals may be more prone to which type of suicide? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "a. Altruistic suicide" In this scenario, the woman's suicide is motivated by her strong adherence to societal expectations and her willingness to sacrifice her life for the sake of conformity and meeting social obligations. Altruistic suicide occurs in societies where there is a high degree of social integration and collective identity.
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175. In a country suffering from economic depression and widespread unemployment, individuals feel a sense of despair, hopelessness, and lose their sense of purpose and direction in life. In a society experiencing economic collapse and social unrest, individuals may be more susceptible to which type of suicide? a. Altruistic suicide b. Egoistic suicide c. Anomic suicide d. Fatalistic suicide
Correct answer: "c. Anomic suicide" In this scenario, the economic collapse and social unrest have disrupted the social order and undermined social norms and regulations. As a result, individuals may experience a sense of normlessness, uncertainty, and a lack of moral regulation, leading to higher suicide rates. Anomic suicide occurs during times of social or economic upheaval.
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176. A chromosomal abnormalities who's the child has a missing X chromosome for females a. Jacob's Syndrome b. Trisomy 18 c. Monosomy X d. Fragile X Syndrome
Correct answer: "c. Monosomy X" Monosomy X is also called Turner Syndrome, it is a syndrome wherein females have a missing X
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177. A chromosomal abnormalities in a child who have an extra Y chromosome on its genes. a. Klinefelter Syndrome b. Edward's Syndrome c. Patau's Syndrome d. Jacobs Syndrome
Correct answer: "c. Patau's Syndrome" jacob's syndrome is also called as xyy syndrome.
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178. Extra copy of chromosome 13 a. Fragile X Syndrome b. Patau's Syndrome c. XYY Syndrome d. Down Syndrome
Correct answer: "b. Patau's Syndrome" Patau's Syndrome is also called as Trisomy 13.
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179. A overproduction of mucus in the lungs and digestive tract a. Phenylketonuria b. Cystic Fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Sickle-cell Anemia 180. It does not produce enough insulin. • Diabetes • Huntington's Disease • Tay-Sachs Disease • Alpha Antitrypsin Deficiency 181. Males with muscle weakness and minor mental retardation • Beta Thalassemia • Spina Bifida • Alpha Thalassemia • Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy 182. It limits the body oxygen supply • Hemophilia • Cystic Fibrosis • Anencephaly • Sickle-cell Anemia 183. CNS deteriorates producing problem in muscles and mental decline • Huntington's Disease • Tay-Sachs Disease • Alpha Thalassemia • Beta Thalassemia 184. Severe Anemia; fatal in adolescence or young adulthood • Cooley's Anemia • Alpha Thalassemia • Alpha Antitrypsin Deficiency • Polycystic Kidney Disease 185. Severe Anemia; nearly all die soon after birth • Beta Thalassemia • Alpha Thalassemia • Polycystic Kidney Disease • Cystic Fibrosis 186. The birth weight who is less than 3 pounds ; 4 ounces • Normal Birth Weight • Low Birth Weight • Very Low Birth Weight • Extremely Low Birth Weight
Correct answer: "•. " nbw - at least 7 pounds ; 5 ounces lbw - less than 5 pounds ; 8 ounces vlb - less than 3 pounds ; 4 ounces elb - less than 2 pounds
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187. A miscarriage occurred after 20 weeks of gestation (approximately 5 months) a. Spontaneous Abortion b. Stillbirth c. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome d. Premature Babies
Correct answer: "a. Spontaneous Abortion" Spontaneous Abortion - Less than 20 weeks Stillbirth - After 20 weeks (approx. 5 months) SIDS - Crib death
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188. Eager willingness to cooperate harmoniously with a parent, not only in disciplinary actions, but in variety of daily interactions. a. Receptive Cooperation b. Situational Compliance c. Committed Compliance d. Riding-in-tandem Compliance
Correct answer: "b. Situational Compliance" Situational Compliance - Extra assistance provided by their parents reminder and prompts to complete the task Committed Compliance - They were committed to following request and could do so without their parents direct intervention Riding-in-tandem Compliance - is gawa-gawa lang sowi huhu
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189. An awareness that gender does not change a. Gender Constancy b. Gender Stability c. Gender Identity d. Gender Schema Theory
Correct answer: "a. Gender Constancy" Gender Identity - Awareness of one's own gender and that of others Gender Constancy - The realization that a girl remains a girl even if she has a short haircut Gender Schema Theory - It views children as actively extracting knowledge about gender from their environment before engaging in gender-typed behavior 190. Frequently nominated both bestie and most disliked • Controversial Children • Rejected Children • Popular Children • Neglected Children Feedback Average Children - Receive an average number of both positive and negative nominations Neglected Children - Infrequently nominated as bestie but not really disliked Rejected Children - Disliked by peers Controversial Children - Frequently nominated both as bestie and most disliked Popular Children - Frequently nominated as bestie and rarely disliked by peers
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191. Frequently nominated as bestie and rarely disliked by peers a. Popular Children b. Average Children c. Controversial Children d. Neglected Children 192. Involves adjusting the identity schema to fit new experiences • Accommodation • Assimilation • Identity Accommodation • Identity Assimilation Identity Accommodation
Correct answer: "•. " assimilation - interpretation of new information via existing cognitive structure accommodation - involves changing cognitive structures to more closely align with what is encountered identity assimilation - involves holding onto a consistent sense of self in the face of new experiences that do not fit the current understanding of the self
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193. Involves holding onto a consistent sense of self in the face of new experiences that do not fit the current understanding of the self a. Identity Accommodation b. Identity Assimilation c. Assimilation d. Accommodation
Correct answer: "a. Identity Accommodation" Assimilation - Interpretation of new information via existing cognitive structure Accommodation - Involves changing cognitive structures to more closely align with what is encountered Identity Accommodation - Involves adjusting the identity schema to fit new experiences
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194. Occurs when the youngest child leaves home. a. Generativity Scripts b. Boomerang Phenomenon c. Revolving Door Syndrome d. Empty Nest
Correct answer: "a. Generativity Scripts" Generativity Scripts – feature redemption and associated with psychological well-being Revolving Door Syndrome or Boomerang Phenomenon – returning to parent’s home, sometimes with their own families
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195. Feature redemption and associated with psychological well- being a. Generativity Scripts b. Narrative Psychology c. Empty Nest d. Boomerang Phenomenon
Correct answer: "b. Narrative Psychology" Narrative Psychology - Views the development of self as a continuous process of constructing one's life story Empty Nest – occurs when the youngest child leaves home Revolving Door Syndrome or Boomerang Phenomenon – returning to parent’s home, sometimes with their own families
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196. Caught in squeeze between the competing needs of their own children and the emerging needs of their parents a. Filial Crisis b. Respite Care c. Sandwich Generation d. Kinship Care
Correct answer: "a. Filial Crisis" Filial Crisis - Adults learn to balance love and duty to their parents with autonomy in a two-way relationship Respite Care - Giving caregivers some time off Kinship Care - Grandparents that provides care but don’t become foster parents or gain custody, have no legal status and few rights
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197. It includes relief of pain and suffering, controlling of symptoms, alleviation of stress, and attempts to maintain a satisfactory quality of life a. Hospice Care b. Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline c. Near-Death Experience d. Palliative Care
Correct answer: "b. Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline" Hospice Care – personal, patient- and family-centered, compassionate care for the terminally ill Terminal Drop or Terminal Decline – specifically to a widely observed decline in cognitive abilities shortly before death Near-Death Experience – often involving a sense of being out of the body or sucked into a tunnel and visions of bright lights or mystical encounters
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198. Aging is the results of random processes that vary from person to person (Error theories) a. Evolutionary Theory b. Immunological Theory c. Endocrine Theory d. Variable-Rate Theories
Correct answer: "a. Evolutionary Theory" Endocrine Theory - Biological clocks act through hormones to control the pace of aging Immunological Theory - Programmed decline in immune system functions leads to increased vulnerability to infectious disease and thus to aging and death Evolutionary Theory - Aging is an evolved trait thus genes that promote reproduction are selected at higher rates than genes that extend lives
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199. Clearly intent to end their lives, but they act out of a belief that the process is already under the way and that they are simply hastening the process a. Death Seekers b. Death Initiators c. Death Ignorers d. Death Darers
Correct answer: "a. Death Seekers" Death Seekers – clearly intend to end their lives at the time they attempt suicide Death Ignorers – do not believe that their self- inflicted death will mean the end of their existence Death Darers – experience mixed feelings, or ambivalence, about their intent to die, even at the moment of their attempt, and they show this ambivalence in the act itself
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200. Focuses on the scientific study of the systematic processes of change and stability in people. a. Life-Span Development b. Life-Span Perspective c. Human Development d. Growth Development
Correct answer: "a. Life-Span Development" Life-Span Development – Concept of human development as lifelong process, which can be studied scientifically Life-Span Perspective – Views development as lifelong, multidimensional, multidirectional, plastic, multidisciplinary, and contextual, and as a process that involves growth, maintenance, and regulation of loss Growth Development - Uhmm... :> DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY RANDOM DRILLS BY MCGRAW- HILL GLOBAL EDUCATION HOLDINGS, LLC
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