DI 2- Midterm Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

• What is the relation between occipitalization and basilar invagination?

A

o Occipitalization: non-segmentation of C1 and occiput, no space bw on xray (looks like C1 missing). Fusion is congenital, vs acquired. may exist in isolation or w basilar invagination, usu w odontoid encroachment (>8mm) into foramen magnum (measured by McGregor’s line)
o Basilar invagination: tip of odontoid (C2) projects thru foramen magnum, narrowing it; may compress brainstem

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2
Q

• Where is posterior ponticle? What is it?

A

o Common variant on C1. contains vertebral artery, C1 nerve.

o may compress and traction vertebral a during neck manipulation

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3
Q

• What is the significance of George’s line?

A

o = line drawn along posterior surfaces of vertebral bodies on lateral views. should be smooth curve from C1 to C7 (also used in T & L).
o Disruption indicates segmental anterolisthesis (L5 common) or retrolisthesis of one segment on another.
o Other key landmarks: superior and inferior corners.

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4
Q

• What are anterolisthesis and retrolisthesis?

A

o A: anterior degenerative spondylolisthesis (forward displacement)
o R: posterior d.s. (backward displacement)
o spondylolisthesis= displacement of vertebrae, esp L5, commonly after fracture

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5
Q

• Why is an os odontoideum clinically significant?

A

o odontoid broken off C2 body, mb very dangerous to do cervical adjustment.
o jt unstable (C1 can move independently of C2), mb held together only by transverse ligament.
o Often dt childhood injury.

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6
Q

• What are the radiographic differences between an anomalous block vertebra and an acquired fusion of the spine?

A

o Block vertebra: non segmentation → ↓ AP diameter, rudimentary disk (small disk space), apophyseal joint fusion (posterior arch fusion), fusion of SPs. Called “wasp waisted” appearance. → DJD at adjacent joints (ie if C3-4 are blocked…C2 and C5 have issues). More likely in cervical.
o acquired fusion (surgical): disc removed, two adjacent vertebra fused (no disc seen on xray). more common in lumbar. Congenital fusion is Klippel-Feil (also no disks)

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7
Q

• What is the significance of the spinolaminar junction and spina bifida oculta in the lateral view?

A

o Spina bifida oculta → failure of fusion of two posterior arch ossification centers →midline defect
o lamina fail to fuse → cleft SP on AP view
o spinolaminar junction often not visible on lateral view

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8
Q

• Why is it common to see disc space narrowing adjacent to a limbus vertebra and/or Schmorl’s node?

A

o Dt intra body herniation of disk material. nucleus pulposus herniates thru vertebral endplate. usu dt trauma, or weak endplate, pathologic process (osteoporosis). Pain usu asx.
o lateral radiograph: focal indentation into vertebral body w sclerotic margin (look like chips of the endplates). herniation thru ring apophysis (2nd growth center)
o Assoc disc usu narrowed

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9
Q

• How can you tell whether a rib at the cervicothoracic junction is a cervical rib or first rib? Sxs?

A

o orientation of TPs. up= thoracic. down= cervical
o Cervical ribs usu only at C7 (also C6,C5). only 2/3 are BL. may fuse to 1st rib.
o Sxs: TOS, drooping shoulders, ↑ thoracic kyphosis.
o Don’t confuse w hyperplastic TP (articulation w TP differentiates)

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10
Q

What is a transitional lumbosacral vertebra?

A

o undifferentiated L5 or S1 (or partially fused)
o TP is spatulated (>19 mm vertically) uni or BL
o May form accessory jts w sacral alae or fused to sacrum
o L/S disc hypoplastic.
o Degeneration often present

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11
Q

• Name a dysplasia that may present with tall stature and hypermobile joints?

A

o MARFAN’S SYNDROME

o = CT dz w abnormal collagen formation

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12
Q

• What complications may be associated with this Marfan Syndrome?

A

o long, slender tubular bones
o ocular abnormalities (myopia), aortic aneurysm, pectus excavatum
o Underdeveloped, hypotonicity of muscles → jt laxity, dislocation
o Hip dislocation, genu recurvatum (knee bends backward), patellar dislocation, pes planus (flat feet)

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of dwarfism? Neuro condition these individuals may have that affects the legs?

A

o ACHONDROPLASIA: bone growth do, 70% dwarfism
o Infant: small foramen magnum and hydrocephalus → cord compression
o Adult: congenital spinal stenosis → paraplegia

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14
Q

• Fragile osteopenic bones are associated with which dysplasia?

A

o OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

o =Osteoporosis w abnormal fragile skeleton, blue sclerae, mb abnormal dentition

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15
Q

• What are the radiographic findings of new vs. old fractures? Healing?

A

o New: “Step defect” (rounds over with time), “zone of impaction” (for a couple months); mb jagged edges, no new opacity around edges, indications of soft tissue damage
o Old: osteophytes (from increased DJD), anterior wedge deformity; corticated edges
o healing fracture: enlarged edges of increased opacity show up about 14-days post-fracture

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16
Q

• What are the possible long bone fracture orientations? Head of long bone?

A
o	transverse, oblique, spiral, comminuted (web of hairline fxs), segmented, avulsion (tendon pops off w some bone, like condyle), torus, greenstick, impacted, laterally or medially displaced, laterally or medially angulated
o	Transcervical (across neck)
o	Intertrochanteric (between G and L trochanter, under neck)
o	Subcapital (right below head)
o	*Subtrochanteric
o	*Greater/lesser trochanter fracture
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17
Q

• What are the types of incomplete fractures of pediatric long bones and how do they differ?

A

o Torus: buckling of cortex, looks like BL bulge
o Greenstick fractures: incomplete fracture; one side of bone is broken (cortex), other is bent.
o Bowing: bending w/o obvious cortical defect
o Growth plate fractures: specific locations dt ↑ growth in childhood
o [Dislocated “slipped” epiphysis of femoral head (only older,10-17)]

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18
Q

• Which is the most common type of Salter Harris fracture? Most serious? Others?

A

o =TYPE II fracture: thru growth plate and metaphysis
o Type I: thru growth plate no bone involvement
o Type III: gp + epiphysis
o Type IV: metaphysic + gp + epiphysis
o Type V: compression of gp (compare w non-invovled side to dx)= most serious

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19
Q

• What is the difference between a malunion and a nonunion fracture?

A

o Nonunion: absence of healing (no fusion), after several months
o Malunion: healing w incorrect anatomical alignment (incorrect fusion), causes impairment

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20
Q

• What significant finding is demonstrated in the APOM (open mouth) view with a Jefferson’s fracture? Best projection to see the most common fracture?

A

o jefferson=burst fracture of atlas (like a life saver candy: usu breaks into many pieces rather than just a chip off side). at least one fracture in anterior arch and one thru posterior arch; dt compressive force to head on apex
o APOM: increased lateral paraodontoid space BL. lateral masses of C1 that have slid laterally (>3mm). usu swelling. Ex: lateral offset of C1 on C2 bilaterally
o posterior arch fx, seen in lateral

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21
Q
•	What is traumatic spondylolisthesis and what cervical level does it usually occur at? 
seriousness? 
definitive imaging?
radiographic findings (projection)?
A

o Aka Hangman’s fracture. Usu at C2
o =bilateral pedicle (pars) fracture, often dt MVA
o surgical attention
o CT
o increased retropharyngeal space, C2 anterior on C3, fracture lines ant to inferior facet (lateral)

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22
Q

• What are the key radiographic differences between an un-united secondary ossification center of the spinous process at the cervicothoracic junction and a clay shoveler’s fracture?
Is clay stable or not?

A

o Un-united: Fracture displaced caudally with jagged edges (2’ growth centers usually don’t get displaced and will be more posterior rather than inferior)
o clay shoveler’s fracture (most common at C7): Lateral view shows inferiorly displaced SP. AP view shows “double spinous process” sign (looks like 2 SP’s on a single vertebrae)
o stable

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23
Q
  1. What is the most common fracture of the spine?
  2. Location?
  3. how do you differentiate new from old?
  4. stable or not?
  5. radiologic findings?
A
  1. COMPRESSION FRACTURE
  2. Usu at T12-L2
  3. New ( < 2 mos): Hemorrhage, hematoma, step defect (sharp ant step-off/overhang of superior corner), zone of impaction/condensation (horizontal white line paralleling superior endplate), paraspinal mass
    o Old: adjacent DJD
    o Bone scans may show “hot spots” for up to 24 months
  4. stable
  5. ant wedge deformity (> 15%), step defect, zone of condensation, disruption of endplate, paraspinal edema, abdominal ileus
24
Q

• List and describe the unstable fractures of the pelvis.

A

o Unstable: may move during healing → neurologic damage. Pelvis: may cause significant organ or vascular damage
o Fx of both ant. and post arches. 33% of pelvic fx. Usu dt significant trauma (MVA).
o Malgaigne (MC, unilateral, 14% of all pelvic fx)
o bucket handle fx: vertical, thru superior and inferior pubic rami on one side w contralateral SIJ disruption/dislocation

25
• what are stable fractures of the pelvis?
o Doesn’t move during healing, no threat to the spinal cord/cauda equina. Pelvis: no threat to organs or vasculature o Fx w/ a single break in ring! Usu dt moderate fall, etc. 66% of pelvic fx
26
• What is the most common type of acetabular fracture?
o Central Acetabular Fracture (aka Explosion Fracture)
27
• What is the most common hip (proximal femur fracture) and what age do these often happen in?
o Subcapital Fracture. Often missed. Elderly. F>M 2x
28
• Name and describe the proximal femur fracture that happens only in adolescents.
o Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis o Usu 10-15 yo, during rapid adolescent growth period o femoral neck slips up off femoral head o Actually a fracture (Salter-Harris Type I, at growth plate only) o 20-30% occur BL (BL F>M, but overall M>F) o If BL, 2nd slip within 1 yr o Only 50% have hx trauma o Assoc: Renal osteodystrophy, rickets, radiation therapy
29
• Which direction does the patella usually dislocate?
o superolateral dislocation | o may also move horizontally or vertically
30
• What is a Jones’ fracture and what bone does it occur in?
o Most common foot injury. Dancer’s fracture. | o transverse fracture of base of 5th MT
31
• Name an associated injury that must be evaluated for when a patient presents with a calcaneal compression fracture.
o 10% assoc w thoracolumbar spinal fxs; must r/o either compression or burst o Calcaneus is most frequently fx tarsal bone- fx line often cannot be visualized, so need Boehler’s angle. < 28 deg = compression fx
32
• What are the area referred to in AC jt sprains?
o AC jt space: Should be BL and symmetrical, within 2-3 mm of each other, and avg 2-4 mm wide o AC alignement: Inferior margins of clavicle and opposing acromion should be smooth and horizontal o Coracoclavicular distance: Normal11-13mm (bw inferior margin of clavicle and closest surface of coracoid). 5mm max difference bw R & L
33
• What are the different types/grades of acromioclavicular joint sprain?
o Type I and II managed conservatively, Type III requires jt repair and open fixation o Type I: Mild Sprain, AC lig stretched, CC lig intact; wt bearing doesn’t ↑jt space or alter alignment; normal radiograph o Type II: Moderate Sprain; AC lig torn, CC lig stretched, widened jt space, slight elevation of clavicle possible o Type III: Severe Sprain, AC & CC ligs disrupted, widened jt space; elevation of distal clavicle above acromion; CC space > 5mm than contralateral side
34
• What is the radiographic difference in anterior vs. posterior glenohumeral dislocations? Which is most common?
o ~95% GH dislocations are anterior o Anterior: Humeral head may settle in: subcoracoid (most common, Inferior and medial displacement), subglenoid (Altered humeral head shape), subclavicular (Hill-Sachs defect), intrathoracic (Bankart lesions: inferior glenoid fx) o Posterior: Humeral head looks identical in IR & EI, bc fixed in its posteriorly displaced position. Humeral head often stays at same level as glenoid or superior to it. Dt epileptic convulsions, electric shocks, direct trauma (ie huge muscle spasm/force pulls it posteriorly)
35
• What are Hill-Sachs/Hatchet and Bankart lesions and what are they associated with?
o Hill: impaction fx of superior posterolateral humeral head (Best seen on AP w IR, better on MR). dt forceful impaction of humeral head against anteroinferior glenoid rim when shoulder is dislocated anteriorly o Bankart: inferior glenoid fxs w anterior GH jt dislocation. o both assoc w anterior dislocation of humerus from GH jt and fracture of inferior glenoid rim from a posterior impaction injury.
36
• Which part of the clavicle most commonly fractures?
o Middle Clavicle Fx (80%0: medial fragment displaces superiorly dt pull of SCM, distal fragment displaces inferiorly dt weight of shoulder and upper extremity
37
• What is the significance of the elbow fat pad signs (anterior and posterior)?
o clinical signs of an intra-articular fx of elbow w displacement of anterior and/or posterior fat pads from bw the fibrous and synovial layers of humeral jt capsule. o fat pads become visible (not normally) from intra-articular effusion and edema. o 90% of children’s elbow fxs have visible posterior fat pads (less in adults; absence of sign doesn’t preclude fx). o A posterior fat pad is always abnormal.
38
• What structures are involved in the most common fractures of the elbow in children and in adults?
o Kids: supracondlyar fxs (transverse or oblique fx above condyles) of distal humerus (60%), o Adults: radial head and neck fxs (50%) (usu viewed as vertical radiolucent fx lines; “Chisel fx”). 2nd is olecranon (20%).
39
• What are the most common wrist fractures seen in each of the following age groups: children, young adults, elderly?
o Kids (6-10): Distal Radius Torus Fx; usu 2-4cm proximal to distal growth plate; have ductile bones! o Young adults (15-40): Scaphoid Fx (PA view w ulnar deviation); occult fx, acute fx line mb not visible until 20 days post-injury, 70% at scaphoid waist o Elderly: Colles’ Fracture (FOOSH); distal radius fx, ~20-35mm proximal to jt surface, distal fragment is angulated posteriorly; ulnar styloid also fx in 60%, brittle bones!
40
• Describe the difference between Colles' and Smith's fractures at the wrist.
o Colles: goes posterior “The collie goes in the back door”, FOOSH fx so wrist is exteneded o Smith: goes anterior “Mr. & Mrs. Smith go in the front door”, dt fall w wrist in hyperflexion so “Reversed” Colle’s fx
41
• Discuss the vascular supply of the scaphoid and its effect in avascular necrosis and healing of this structure after fracture.
o 3 anatomical areas: proximal pole, waist, and distal pole. o 2 sources of blood supply to scaphoid, one to waist, one to the distal pole. o proximal pole does not have its own blood supply, so fx can → AVN (avascular necrosis) (~15%). AVN dx w x-ray (whiter than surrounding bone)
42
• What is the most common carpal bone to dislocate and in what direction?
o Lunate: dt hyperextension injury. tilts forward and anteriorly, disrupting its articulation w capitate, but maintains close approximation w anterior rim of radius o Lateral view displays the anterior tilt o PA view - Lunate looks like a triangle, apex points distally= “pie sign”
43
• What are barroom and boxer’s fractures of the hand?
o Boxer: Transverse fx of 2nd or 3rd MC neck. From impact of short, straight jabbing blow o Barroom:Transverse fracture of 4th or 5th MC neck. from “roundhouse” blow o Both: result in anterior angulation of MC head; shortening, rotation of distal fragment
44
• What is gamekeeper’s thumb?
o First metacarpophalangeal tear or rupture of ulnar collateral ligament of thumb o Abduction stress view of thumb: widened ulnar side of MCP joint= instability o Mb chip fracture, w small fragment from ulnar margin of proximal phalanx base o MRI: ulnar collateral ligament lesion
45
• What are the common sites of a stress fracture?
o MTs: aka “march fracture”, “deutchlanders disease” o Proximal tibia, calcaneus, distal fibula, hook of hamate, distal 1/3 clavicle o L5 pars interarticularis (most common stress fracture in spine)
46
• How can stress fractures be detected on plain x-ray?
o 50% stress fxs never show x-ray findings | o Often occult; requires bone scan, MRI, or delayed plain film images (latent period = 10-21days)
47
• What imaging type(s) are most sensitve in detecting stress fractures?
``` o Bone scan is sensitive, not specific o CT may delineate fx but later o MRI (most sens) will show bone edema and fx line earlier than CT o SN + Sp: Periosteal response: local periosteal and endosteal cortical thickening ```
48
• What is the difference between spondylolisthesis and spondylolysis?
o thesis: one vertebra slips on another, usu anteriorly (anteriolisthesis). or posterior (retrolisthesis) or lateral (laterolisthesis). o lysis: Pars interarticularis defect (w or w/o slippage aka spondylolisthesis). Mb pain at onset of lysis.
49
• What are the most common types of spondylolisthesis in the lumbar spine? Spinal level?
o 90% of all spondylolytic spondylolistheses involve L5 (most common cause in pediatrics) o Most degenerative spondylolistheses at L4.
50
• What is spondylolytic spondylolisthesis? Etio?
o S: anterior displacement of a vertebra o biomechanical stress: usu → pars interarticularis fracture (spondylolysis) o 3 Subtypes: o Subtype a: most common, stress (fatigue) fracture. o Subtype b: elongation of pars w/o defect, dt repeated stress fracture w healing o Subtype c: Acute pars fractures; rare
51
• What is degenerative spondylolisthesis? Etio?
o disc space, cartilage loss in facet joints → superior vertebra slip forward. o 15-25% anterior slip. o Usu F, >40 o No neural arch defect
52
• What is spondylolysis? Etio?
o defect in pars interarticularis of a vertebra | o Repetitive microtrauma: Congenitally slender pars may predispose to stress fx; acute fx rare; not seen in infants
53
• What are some common causes of stress fractures?
o Fatigue fx: mechanical stress at L/S lordosis o Hyperextension loading (heavy backpack) o Onset M/C after 5 yo: d/t upright posture and ambulation o Premature walking o Divers, gymnasts, pole-vaulters, weight-lifters o Non-union d/t lack of immobilization
54
• What is the Meyerding’s grading system?
o Lateral lumbar projection, progressively anterior to S1. sacral base has 4 equal sections (1st posterior→ 4th anterior) o Grade 1: posterior-inferior corner of L5 aligned w 1st division (1 -25% of sacrum promontory visible) o Grade 2: 2nd division 26-50% o Grade 3: 3rd division 51-75% o Grade 4: 4th division 76-100% o Grade 5: L5 completely slipped off anteriorly)
55
• What is an inverted/ reversed Napoleon hat sign?
o Meyerding grade 5 o Aka bowline of Brailsford, seen w significant anterolisthesis. o L5 body slides forward (looks like upside down Napoleon hat). only if significant slippage of anterior portion of L5 off sacrum o BL pars fracture of vertebrae allows slippage o Mb no nerve damage or impingement, cauda equine follows normal path