Diabetes Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Type 1a DM is:

A

Immune mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type 1b DM is:

A

Idiopathic- autoimmune destruction of pancreas due to genetic susceptibility plus an environmental precipitation- insulitis or isletitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This is direct destruction of beta cells by virus or toxin > exposure of antigens to immune system or release of destructive cytokines that kill beta cells or programmed cell death may be induced.

A

Insulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Symptoms of type 1 DM:

A

Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia (with weight loss)
Blurred vision
Dizziness, weakness
N/V/impaired mental status (ketoacidosis)
Sudden weight loss and severe hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clinical presentation Type 1 DM:

A
Wasting
Visual impairment 
Orthostasis
Dry skin and mucous membranes
Impaired level of consciousness, fruity breath (ketoacidosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When to perform the GTT in pregnancy?

A

High risk- early in second trimester

Normal risk- 24-28 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diagnosis of GDM with any of the following:

A

Fasting greater or equal to 92
1hour greater than or equal to 180
2 hour greater than or equal to 153

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Women with GDM should be screened how often after pregnancy?

A

Rescreened 6-12 weeks postpartum and if negative should be checked annually; lifelong at least every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Phase 1 development of T2DM?

A

Plasma glucose normal despite insulin resistance bc of hyperinsulinemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Phase 2 of T2DM development?

A

Worsening insulin resistance; postprandial hyperglycemia despite hyperinsulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Phase 3 of T2DM development?

A

Declining insulin secretion with insulin resistance > fasting hyperglycemia and overt DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Clinical presentation T2DM:

A
Relatively asymptomatic
Symptoms of cardiac, skin, or neuro complications
Obese
Decreased peripheral sensation 
Fundoscopic changes
Recurrent fungal infections, vaginal yeast infections
Intertrigo 
Skin ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Screening for T2DM per ADA:

A

Annual for patients with BMI over 25 and 1 or more risk factors

Entire population over 45 every 3 years if normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fasting blood glucose screening results:

A

Normal- less than or equal to 100
IFG- 100-125
Diabetes greater than or equal to 126

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HbA1C screening results:

A

Normal- less than 5.7
Prediabetes- 5.7-6.4%
Diabetes- greater than 6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What random glucose level is positive for diabetes?

A

Greater than 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Screening results for 2 hour GTT:

A

Impaired- 140-199

Diabetes greater than or equal to 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Diagnostic criteria for DM:

A
Symptoms of diabetes (polyuria, polydipsia, unexplained weight loss) plus:
Random plasma glucose: over 200
FPG: greater than 126
HbA1C greater than or equal to 6.5
2-hour plasma glucose over 200
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Assessment of glycemic control in T1DM?

A
Self monitoring of blood glucose 3-4 times daily:
Prior to meals/snacks 
Occasionally postprandial
At bedtime 
Prior to exercise
When hypoglycemia is suspected 
After treating hypoglycemia
Prior to critical tasks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Assessment of glycemic control on type 2 DM:

A

Check glucose as needed to achieve postprandial glucose targets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When to test urine for ketones?

A
Patients with type 1
Pregnant patients with pre-existing DM
Patients with GDM
Diabetics with blood glucose over 300
Diabetics with N/V/ abdominal pain
22
Q

When to treat diabetic patients with HTN with pharmacologic therapy?

A

BP greater than or equal to 140/90

23
Q

Sodium restriction can decrease BP by:

24
Q

Weight loss can decrease BP by:

25
Moderately intense physical activity can decrease BP by:
4-9 mmHG
26
Moderation of alcohol consumption can decrease BP by:
2-4 mmHG
27
Antiplatelet therapy (ASA) recommended for primary prevention when:
``` 75-162 mg/ day of ASA in: Men over 50 and women over 60 Type 1/2 DM with increased CV risk and at least one of the following: Family hx of CAD Albuminuria Smoking HTN Lipid abnormalities ```
28
When is ASA not recommended?
In diabetics at low risk for CVD ( 10-year risk less than 5%) and patients under 21
29
Asa for secondary prevention with:
Diabetics with history of CVD | For diabetics with CVD and documented ASA allergy, plavix 75mg/day should be used
30
What is cladication?
Symptom of macro vascular complications of DM that consist of calf pain, impotence, pain in distal foot when patient is supine.
31
PVD signs:
``` Decreased or absent pulses Pallor on elevation of feet Rubor on dependency Thicken nails Loss of toe and foot hair Smooth, shiny, atrophic skin ```
32
Advanced PVD signs:
Ulcers
33
Stages of diabetic nephropathy:
``` Microalbuminuria Proteinuria Nephrotic syndrome Renal failure Single leading cause of ESRD ```
34
Screening for nephropathy:
Annual Cr, microalbumin, albumin/cr ration
35
Stage 1 of CKD:
EGFR is 90 and created with kidney damage and normal kidney function
36
Stage 2 CKD:
GFR is 60-89 with kidney damage and mildly reduced function
37
Stage 3 CKD:
GFR is 30-59 with moderate kidney damage and decreased GFR
38
Stage 4 CKD:
GFR is 15-29 with severe damage and decreased GFR
39
Drugs that increase insulin secretion?
SU, meglitinides
40
Drugs that decrease glucagon levels?
DPP-4 inhibitors | Symlin
41
Drugs that increase satiety?
Symlin | GLp-1 agonist
42
Incretins and incretin mimetics?
DPP-4 inhibitors | GLP-1 agonists
43
Insulin sensitizers?
Biguanides TZDs GLP-1 agonist
44
Drugs that slow absorption of glucose by the gut?
Alpha- glucosidase inhibitors Symlin GLP-1 inhibitors
45
Drugs that cause weight gain?
SU, TZDs, insulin
46
Metformin is contraindicated in:
Renal insufficiency Treated CHF Binge alcohol use
47
TZDs are contraindicated in:
Active liver disease Transaminase elevation 2.5 times ULN at baseline Class 3 and 4 CHF
48
GLP-1 analogs contraindicated in:
Gastroparesis | Pancreatitis
49
What is the preferred treatment for hypoglycemia in conscious individual?
Glucose 15-20 g Repeat if continued hypoglycemia Once BS normal consume meal or snack to prevent recurrence
50
Agents targeted for postprandial hyperglycemia?
Meglitinides Acarbose GLP-1 agonists DPP-4 inhibitors