Diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

Deletion or mutation of INI—1 (SMARCB1)

A

Epitheloid sarcoma

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2
Q

High risk gist

A

-Gastric gist >5 cm and >5 mitosis per 50 HPFs
-Intestinal gist independent of size with >5 mitosis per 50 HPFs, or >10 cm
-Or tumor rupture

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3
Q

Renal cell carcinoma mskcc and IMRD scoring

A

Mskcc:
-low KPS (<80%)
-low hgb
-high corrected ca
-<1yrfrom initial diagnosis to systemic therapy
-high LDH (>1.5 ULN)

IMRD:
-Low KPS (<80%)
-low Hgb
-high corrected calcium
-<1 yr from diagnosis to systemic therapy
-ANC high
-plt high

*if ANY of the above criteria is met, the patient is NOT favorable or good risk!

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4
Q

1p19q co-deletion vs 1p19q intact

A

-co-deletion = oligodendroglioma
-intact = astrocytoma

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5
Q

Asttocytoma IDH mutated vs wild type.
What is the grade?

A

Mutated= grade 2-3
Wild type= grade 4

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6
Q

At what stage is bladder cancer considered muscle invasive (MIBC)

A

T2

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7
Q

Bladder cancer staging

A

Stage 0: ta or tis- NMIBC
Stage 1: t1-NMIBC
Stage 2: t2- MIBC
Stage 3: t3-t4 or any N- MIBC
Stage 4: t4, metastatic

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8
Q

Non-seminoma good risk

A

-Testicular or retroperitoneal primary AND
-no non-pulmonary visceral Mets AND
-post- orchiectomy markers all:
-AFP<1000
-hcg<5000
-LDH<1.5 ULN

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9
Q

Non-seminoma intermediate risk

A

-Testicular or retroperitoneal primary AND
-no non-pulmonary visceral Mets AND
-post- orchiectomy markers ANY of:
-AFP<1000-10,000
-hcg<5000-50,000
-LDH<1.5-10x ULN

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10
Q

Non-seminoma poor risk

A

-mediastinal primary OR
-non-pulmonary visceral Mets OR
-post- orchiectomy markers ANY of:
-AFP >10,000
-hcg >50,000
-LDH >10x ULN

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11
Q

Seminoma good risk

A

-any primary site AND
-no non-pulmonary visceral Mets AND
-normal AFP (any hcg and LDH)

*difference is this one has no non-pulmonary visceral mets

Tumor markers don’t matter for seminoma aside from having normal AFP

Tumor site doesn’t matter for seminoma

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12
Q

Seminoma intermediate risk

A

-any primary site AND
-non-pulmonary visceral Mets AND
-normal AFP (any hcg and LDH)

*difference is this one has non-pulmonary Mets

Tumor markers don’t matter for seminoma aside from having normal AFP

Tumor site doesn’t matter for seminoma

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13
Q

Seminoma poor risk

A

No Seminomas are poor risk!

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14
Q

Non-seminoma risk factors for relapse

A

-lymphovascular invasion
-spermatic cord invasion
-scrotum invasion

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15
Q

Pediatric ALL standard vs high risk

A

Standard:
-age 1-9.99
-wbc < 50k
-must be B cell lineage

High:
-age <1 or 10+
-wbc > 50k
-presence of CNS 3 or testicular dx
-mrd > 0.01% on day 8 AND at end of induction (day 29) (B cell)
-mrd >0.1 end of consolidation (T cell)
-t-cell lineage
-steroid pre-treatment (makes WBC falsely low so can’t use WBC count to risk stratify)

*very high risk features: >13y, BCR-ABL, KMT2A, hypodiploidy (<44), induction failure (>5-25% blast at end of induction)

*good risk features: double trisomies 4 and 10, ETV-RUNX1

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16
Q

Pediatric medulloblastoma average vs high risk

A

Average:
-3+ y
-<1.5 cm residual tumor
-M0
-not anaplastic

High risk:
-<3 y
-1.5+ cm residual tumor
-Metastatic
-anaplastic

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17
Q

Neuroblastoma MS (aka 4S)

A

Metastatic dx in children <18 months with Mets confined to skin, liver, and/or bone marrow

Observation. Most spontaneously regress with favorable genetics (below):
-<10% malignant cells in BM
-no MYCN or 11q aberration

Treat as high risk if unfavorable genetics

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18
Q

Define high volume prostate CA (when we add docetaxel)

A

Visceral Mets or 4+ bone Mets (at least 1 outside vertebral column/pelvis)

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19
Q

What grade is high grade serous ovarian cancer?

A

Grade 2-3

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20
Q

pediatric Burkitts risk groups

A

Group A (low): Completely resected stage I and abdominal stage II

Group B (Int):
-mx extra abdominal sites
-non-respected Stage I-IV
-marrow blasts <25%
-no CNS dx

Group C (high): ->25% marrow blasts and/or CNS dx

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21
Q

Khorana score

A

2+: DVT ppx x6 months
<2: no DVT ppx needed

xarelto 10 mg QD or eliquis 2.5 mcg BID x6 MONTHS or more

Or dalt 200 u/kg sq qd x1 mo—>150 u/kg qd x2 mo, or Lovenox 1 mg/kg sq qd x3 mo—>40 mg qd- THESE ARE FOR ADVANCED/MET PANCREATIC

2pts: stomach or pancreatic cancer
1pt: lung, gyn, testicular, bladder, lymphoma, plt >350 (pre chemo), Hgb <10 or ESA, leukocyte >11 (pre- chemo), BMI 35+

Note: not used for MM, acute leukemia, myeloproliferative neoplasms, primary/metastatic brain tumors.
Note: brain, myeloproliferative, and kidney also have high risk of VTE
Note: primary and metastatic brain tumor is a relative contraindication to anticoagulation-NOT ABSOLUTE (but don’t use thrombolytics)

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22
Q

Impede/saved scores

A

For AC in multiple myeloma pts
-saved is for pts on IMiDs and impede is for MM pts in general

-impede 1-3, saved 0-1: daily Asa
-impede 4+ or saved 2+: AC

Notice save score of 0 still gets aspirin

Lovenox 40 QD, dalt 5000 Iu QD? warfarin, Apix 2.5 BID, xarelto 10 QD, fondaparinux 2.5 qd

don’t need ppx in IMiD maintenance

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23
Q

HR positive vs negative

A

HR negative: Stain <1% HR receptors

HR positive: stain 1-100%

*1-10% still get endocrine therapy but likely less benefit

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24
Q

HER2 postive vs negative

A

Negative: IHC 0, IHC 1, IHC 2 and fish negative

Positive: IHC 3, IHC 2 and fish positive

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25
Who qualifies for breast cancer gene expression assays?
Post-menopausal or >50y, HR+, HER-2-, LN negative or 1-3 LN + -Can also use OncotypeDx in premenopausal if they meet above criteria and LN negative -prosigna only for LN negative ***T3 (>5 cm) will need chemo*** so don’t bother with assay ***Note: oncotype is prognostics AND predicative*** (others are just prognostic)
26
How is HER-2 low defined
HER IHC 1+ or 2+ FISH negative
27
Breast cancer pN1
1-3 LN + If n2 or more this means >4 LN
28
Definition of AML
>20% blasts
29
Philadelphia chromosome
t(9;22) Also seen as t(9;22)(q34;q11) P210- most common form of activating kinase region Other adverse cytogenetics: -trisomy 8 -trisomy 21 -isochromosome 17q -chromosome 3 abnormalities -second ph+ -deletion 7
30
Hallmark of APL
Blasts with t(15;17) PML::RARA fusion
31
Core binding fx (AML)
inv(16), t(16;16), t(8;21 I.e., RUNX1) add Gemtuzumab ozagamicin (***don’t need CD33+ listed***) This is actually favorable risk (as is t(15;17)- so would NOT consolidate with HCT
32
APL risk stratification
Low/intermediate: wbc<10k High: wbc>10k Note: APL is M3 subtype of AML
33
NMIBC risk stratification
Low risk: -Ta (low grade), solitary, <3cm Intermittent risk: -Ta (low grade): recurrence in <1y, >3cm, or multifocal -Ta (high grade) <3 cm -T1 (low grade) High risk: -Ta (high grade) recurrent, >3cm, multifocal -T1: high grade -Tis
34
Laboratory TLS criteria
2 or more of the following: -UA>8 -phos >4.5 (6.5 for kids) -k >6 -corrected ca <7 (or ionized<1.12) -scr >1.5 ULN Note: typically happens 12-72 hours after starting chemo (up to 7 days) Note: increased risk with ***high LDH >2xULN*** or ***WBC>25k,*** BL renal impairment, BL elevated UA
35
In which diseases do patients have the Philadelphia chromosome ?
CML and ALL
36
Richters transformation
When CLL becomes an aggressive lymphoma: -B symptoms -lymphadenopathy -highly symptomatic -This usually occurred earlier (1-2yrs) than progressive CLL -poor outcomes -90% become DLBCL -10% become HL ***Get them to allo HCT*** (interesting bc this is DLBCL (90%) of HL (10%) which usually gets ASCT) NOTCH1 mutation associated with this and shorter PFS
37
Which chronic leukemia is divided into 3 phases
CML
38
Gold standard definition of complete response in CML
0% Ph+ metaphases ***at 12 months*** (this is cytogenetic response) Other types of response: -hematologic (CHR)- measure blood counts -molecular (EMR, MMR, DMR)-measures BCR::ABL
39
T315I mutation
CML resistance to imatinib, dasatinib, nilotinib, bosutinib
40
Follicular lymphoma cytogenetics
t(14;18)—>BCL-2
41
Mantle cell lymphoma cytogenetics
t(11;14)(q13;q32)—>BCL-1 CD5+, CD23- ***Aggressive disease*** -blastoid and pleomorphic subtypes -TP53 mutatio -high ki67 >20-40% -high Sox-11 -complex karyotype -high b2-microtubulin -CNS involvement
42
Non-advance prostate risk groups
***very low*** -cT1c, grade 1 (Gleason 6), PSA<10, <3 bx cores + and <50% CA in each core, PSA density <0.15 ***low*** -cT1-2a, grade 1, PSA<10 ***intermediate*** -cT2b-cT2c, grade 2-3, PSA 10-20 -Favorable: 1 IRF, grade 1-2, <50% bx cores + -unfavorable: 2-3 IRF, grade 3, >50% bc cores + ***High risk*** -T3a or grade 4-5 (grade 4 is Gleason 8), or PSA >20 ***very high risk*** One or more of: -T3b-T4, Gleason 5, >4 cores with grade 4-5, or 2-3 HRF
43
Multiple myeloma high risk and high risk cytogenetics
***high risk dx*** 1. High risk cytogenetics -del (17p) -t(4;14) -t(14;16) -amplification 1q (>3 copies) 2. Circulating plasma cells in blood 3. extra-medullary plasmacytoma ***gravitate towards KRD (carfilzomib)*** ***MAY WANT DUAL MAINTENANCE (velcade + revlimid)*** ________________________________________ Others: -t(14;20) -gain 1q -del 1p -del 13q -very high LDH (>2x ULN)
44
Clinical risk in BC
Remember 4 to determine high risk: -grade 1, > 3cm - grade 2 , >2 cm -grade 3, >1 cm
45
Multiple myeloma diagnosis
BMPC >/=10% ***OR*** bx proven plasmacytoma/bone lesion ***AND*** ***Any*** of the CRAN criteria Ca: >11 or >1 above ULN Renal: scr >2, crcl<40 Anemia: <10 or >2 below ULN Bone: 1+ bony lesion on imaging ***OR*** ***Any*** of the SLiM criteria -BCPC >60% -involved:uninvolved FLCR >/=100 (or<0.1) - ***>*** 1 focal marrow lesion ***5mm+*** on mri (not just 1) (***S***ixty, ***Li***ght chains, ***M***RI)
46
Double/triple hit DLBCL
MYC rearrangement, in addition to BCL-2 and/or BCL-6 rearrangements High grade
47
Reed stern berg cytogenetics
CD15 and CD30 Hodgkin’s
48
Bulky disease DLBCL Hodgkin’s?
NCCN: 7.5cm Hodgkin’s: 10 cm
49
Breast cancer staging
Early stage: IA-IIA Locally advanced: stage IIB-III Advanced: stage 4
50
Gleason score
Grade 1: 3+3 Grade 2: 3+4 Grade 3: 4+3 Grade 4: 4+4 Grade 5: 4+5, 5+4, 5+5 -the first number is the most common grade among the cores, second number is next most common
51
Free PSA
Free PSA is associated with benign condition- so if low ***(<10%)*** it’s more likely prostate cancer
52
Define menopause
-bilateral oopherectomy -60+ y/o -<60 w/ 12 months amenorrheic -can’t assign menopause status to women on LHRN antagonist or on chemo
53
Higher risk MDS
-IPSS: intermediate-2 or high risk -IPSS-R: intermediate (>3.5), high or very high -WHO: high or very high Note SFB1 mutation is good risk
54
Types of thyroid cancer
1. Differentiated -papillary- 89% -follicular- 4% -Hurthle cell -2% 2. Medullary thyroid carcinoma- 3% -hereditary (MEN2) -sporadic (RET, usually RET M918T (somatic) 3. Anaplastic thyroid cancer- 1.5%
55
4 types of ovarian cancer
***Epithelial adenocarcinomas*** 1. Serous (70%) most common 2. Endometriod (10%) 3. Clear cell (10%)- poor prognosis 4. Mucinous (3%)
56
subtypes of ALL
-precursor B-cell -mature B-cell -T-cell -pro-b cell (poor risk)
57
PSA relapse
After surgery: any PSA rise (usually proceed to salvage RT) After RT: increase of 2 from PSA nadir (nadir is 3-6 mo after RT)- assess for CS vs CR and PSADT
58
Types of T-cell lymphoma
***Indolent*** -mycosis fungoides -Sezary syndrome ***Aggressive*** -peripheral T-cell lymphoma (PTCL) -extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma
59
Cholangiocarcinoma
Cancer of gallbladder or bile duct
60
Cholangiocarcinoma
Cancer of gallbladder or bile duct
61
Types of testicular cancer
Seminoma -classical -anaplastic -spermatocytic Non-Seminoma -embryonal -yolk sac -choriocarcinoma -teratoma Stromal (usually beningn but bad if they spread bc unresponsive to chemo) -leydig -seratoli
62
What are the four mmr proteins
-MLH-1 -MSH-2 -MSH-6 -PMS-2 ***There are DNA repair genes***
63
MSS and pMMR
MSS: Micro satellite stable pMMR: MMR proficient
64
ABCDEs of melanoma
Asymmetry Borders are irregular Color Diameter >6mm Evolving characteristics Others: -bleeding or crusting -sensory change -inflammation
65
Carcinoma vs sarcoma
Carcinoma: epithelial tissue Sarcoma: connective tissue
66
TMB
Tumor mutational burden- measurement somatic mutations per coding area of tumor genome
67
Main types of non-melanoma skin cancer
-Basal cell carcinoma -squamous cell cancer -Merkel cell carcinoma
68
High risk colon cancer
T4 or N2 6 months of therapy better here
69
MSI vs dMMR
dMMR (test w/ IHC) results in MSI (PCR) Micro satellites are repeating deferments of DNA found throughout genome- can have lots of mutations bc lots of repeats. Leads to lots of diversity, but also mutations that can cause malignancy MMR proteins repair mutations- if there is a loss of one of these (as in with hereditary syndromes) we can’t repair mutations and this can cause cancer MMR deficient just means there’s and absence of these repair proteins. And this will result in MSI, which correlates with high mutational burden in the tumor Note: it’s sometimes better to have high mutational burden bc it’s makes it easier for immune system to recognize- also note chemo may be bad is some cases bc it blunts the immune system and makes it harder for it to kill the cancer (think stage II colon cancer) -MLH-1 -MSH-2 -MSH-6 -PMS-2
70
Stage 2 colon cancer high risk factors
-poorly or undifferentiated -lymphatic/vascular invasion -bowel obstruction -<12 LN surgically examined -perineural invasion -localized perforation -close, intermediate, or positive margins -tumor budding -T4??
71
Mycosis fungoides vs sezary syndrome
MF effects skin, SS effects skin but large amounts end up in blood- I think SS is basically more advanced- more systemic options upfront
72
Hodgkin’s lymphoma: unfavorable factors for early stage
***Any of these factors places pt in UNFAVORABLE category*** -ESR 50+ -B symptoms -mediastinal mass ratio (MMR) >0.33 ->3 LN+ -bulky dx (any node >10 cm)
73
CLL poor prognosis markers
-***CD49d >30%*** -CD38 >30% -ZAP-70 >20% -IGHV
74
Carcinoma vs sarcoma
Carcinoma: Starts in epithelial tissue Sarcoma: connective tisssue
75
Hairy cell leukemia
-Indolent mature B cell leukemia -Incurable -nearly all pts have BRAFV600E mutation
76
Oligometastatic
Limited metastatic disease (one or two sites)
77
Extramedullary disease
Aggressive multiple myeloma that forms tumors outside bone marrow in soft tissue
78
IDH wildtype astrocytoma
Considered grade 4
79
Colorectal cancer screening
Starting at ages ***45-75***years: -Colonoscopy every ***10 years*** -flexible sigmoidoscopy q5-10 years -CT colography q5 years -FIT-DNA test q1 or q3 years -fecal occult blood or fecal immunohistochemisty (FIT) q1yr
80
Lung cancer screening
(NCCN doesn’t include current smoker or quit in past 15 yrs) 50+ and 20 pack year hx USPSTF includes quit it past 15 yrs
81
CEA (notecard in progress)
-colorectal- monitoring response to tx Greater than 5 is elevated 5FU can increase CEA
82
Lung cancer screening
-***50+*** y/o and ***20+ pack year hx*** -low dose CT annually (NCCN doesn’t include current smoker or quit in past 15 yrs) USPSTF includes quit it past 15 yrs
83
CML molecular response goals for
BCR::ABL1 as follows: 3 months: <10% 6 months: <1% 12 months: <0.1% (MMR-major molecular response)
84
Who needs genetic testing
Pts with ***advanced or Metastatic*** cancer where there are mutations with approved drugs So all advanced solid tumors- bc TMB, DMMR and NTRk Testing includes direct tissue based (gold standard) as well as cfDNA (note that these aren’t great at detecting germline mutations)
85
Prostate cancer screening
Don’t screen if <55 or >69 or LE<10 y 55-69 yr: shared decision making
86
Breast cancer screening
ACS 45-54: yearly mammograms 55+: every other year (until LE<10y) NCCN 40+: annual mammogram Add MRI if BRCA of 1st degree relative or BRCA of yourself, or lifetime risk >20-25% (BRCAPRO or tyer cuzick), prior RT Women 25+: breast awareness NOT self exams ***High risk:*** -CBE q6-12mo ***when identified as high risk but not before 21***, or 8 y after RT -mammogram annually starting at age 30 or: 8y after RT but not before age 30, 10 y before youngest family member but not before age 30, at diagnosis of LCIS/AHA but not before age 30, when identified as high risk by Gail model -MRI annual w/ mammogram for women ***25+*** or: same exceptions as above fir mammogram -breast awareness: all ages High risk= thoracic RT age 10-30, 35+ w/ Gail >1.7%, bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba, cowdens (PTEN), li-fraumeni, lifetime risk 20%+ (BRCAPRO, tyrer cuzick, BOADICEA/CanRisk, pedigree suggestive or risk, ADH, LCIS Also peutz jeghar (STK11)
87
Cervical cancer screening
<21: no screening 21-29: cytology (pap smear): q3 y 30-65: pap q3y + hpv q5y or both q5y 66+: no screening unless high risk ***HPV 16 and 18 cause cancer***
88
Endometrial cancer subtypes
***Epithelia adenocarcinomas:*** -Endometriod: most common, well differentiated, low grade -serous, clear cell: poorly differentiated, and high grade, ***don’t use HT for these*** -Carcinosarcoma aka malignant mixed mullerian tumor (MMMT)
89
Which cancers is lynch syndrome associated with? What’s another name for this?
***Colorectal,***gastric, small intestine, ovarian, ***endometrial,*** pancreas, liver, urinary tract, biliary tract, brain, sebatious tumors of the skin ***Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer***
90
HCC screening
-screen patients with ***cirrhosis*** or ***hepatitis B*** -ultrasound and AFP every 3-6 months
91
Breast cancer luminal A vs luminal B
Luminal A -responds better to HT -late recurrence Luminal B -responds better to chemo -early recurrence
92
FL, DLBCB, MCL, HL treatment categories
FL -stage I-II contiguous -stage II non-contiguous -stage III-IV -anything grade 3 MCL -stage I or contiguous stage II, non-bulky -stage II non-contiguous, non-bulky -stage II bulky, stage III-IV DLBCL -stage I-II non-bulky -stage I-II bulky -stage II extensive mesenteric dx, stage III-IV HL -Stage IA-IIA favorable (non-bulky) -stage I-II unfavorable ***(bulky or B symptoms)*** -stage III-IV
93
thyroid cancer tumor markers
Differentiated: Thyroglobulin (only if thyroidectomy since normal thyroid cells can secrete it also) Should look at Tg antibodies too Medullary: CEA and calcitonin, NOT thyroglobulin Anaplastic: none
94
When to do brain MRI in testicular cancer?
HCG>5000, extensive pulmonary Mets, non-pulmonary visceral Mets
95
Risk factors for deciding on tx for low grade gliomas
-age >40 -tumors >6 cm -tumors that cross midline -incomplete resection -neurological deficit at baseline
96
BCR-ABL tki resistance patterns
A337VT: no recs (resistance to Asciminib) E255K/V: use bosutinib/dasatinib F317L: use nilotinib F317V/I/C: use bosutinib/nilotinib F359V/I/C: use bosutinib/dasatinib G250E: use dasatinib L238V: use bosutinib/ nilotinib ***P465S: no rec*** (resistance to Asciminib) T315I: use Asciminib/omacetaxine/Ponatinib T315A: use bosutinib/nilotinib V299L: use nilotinib Y253F/H: use bosutinib/dasatinib Tricks: -Fickle-little Vicky: you ain’t getting Nil -Ayyyyyy: no recs!!! -Fickle 317 VICky and TA loves a BoNe -Fickle 359 Vicky eats yellow- BaD! -Gee dassss -
97
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia genetics with best response to BTK
MYD88 ***mutated*** (defining mutation of WM) CXCR4 ***wildtype*** (mutated CXCR4 is associated with resistance)
98
Saved score
Risks: -age >80: +1 -surgery within 90d: +2 -VTE hx: +3 -dex 120-160 mg/cycle: +1 -dex >160 mg/cycle: +2 Protective: -Asian: -3 2+: Lovenox 40 QD, Fonda 2.5 QD, Apix 2.5 bid, xarelto 10 qd, warfarin 2-3 <2: Asa 81-325 qd —————-/////—————/////——— Impede risks: -IMiD, bmi>25, pelvic/hip/femur fx, ESA, dex, dox or mx agent chemo, VTE hx, tunneled line or Cvc, Protective; Asian, VTE ppx or Tx dosing
99
Double expresser lymphoma
***Co-expression*** (unlike double hit which is ***rearrangement*** if MYC and BCL2 proteins without underlying rearrangements It’s and adverse prognostic indicator
100
IPI variables for intermediate to high grade lymphoma
-age>60 -stage III-IV -extranodal dx >1 site -ECOG 2+ -serum LDH >1x ULN
101
Burkitts low v high risk
***Low***: -normal LDH -stage I completely resected abdominal lesion -single extra abdominal lesion <10 cm ***High risk***: -stage I and an abdominal mass -extra abdominal mass >10 cm -stage II-IV
102
Melanoma screening
Monthly self assessments Survivors: skin exam at least once per year for rest of your life
103
Lung cancer: who do we see EGFR mutations in?
Female, light or never smokers, asians
104
Which malignancies have bi-modal age distribution?
-ALL -Hodgkin’s lymphoma -osteosarcoma -germ cell tumors -breast cancer
105
Which malignancies have bimodal age distribution?
-ALL -Hodgkin’s lymphoma -osteosarcoma -germ cell tumors -breast cancer
106
P16
-surrogate for HPV tumor in head and neck cancer -results from RB1 degradation -required at diagnosis of ***oropharyngeal*** cancers
107
Cancers linked to EBV
-Hodgkin’s -nasopharyngeal -Burkitts -gastric -PCNSL -DLBCL ***think lymphomas***
108
Cisplatin eligibility in bladder cancer
-Crcl>60 -ECOG PS 0 or 1 -adequate hearing
109
CA19-9
Monitoring (not screening) pancreatic cancer and other GI cancers Elevated in biliary inflammation, obstruction, or infection so must wait til bili returns to normal to get accurate level ***will be negative in Lewis negative blood group***
110
What does lynch syndrome tell you?
MSI-H!!!!
111
Colon ascending/descending left v right sided
Ascending and transverse (hepatic flexure to splenic flexure- right Descending (splenic flexure to rectum), ***sigmoid***- left
112
Ovarian cancer screening
-Don’t do in general population -for women with BRCA mutation who won’t do risk reducing saplings oophorectomy at age 35-45 -do transvaginal ultrasound and CA-125 beginning ***age 30-35*** Note: oral contraceptives decrease risk (but increases risk of breast cancer)
113
Define metachronus
Had disease and was treated earlier, now pops up with metastatic disease
114
Who gets screened for endometrial cancer
-Women with lynch syndrome -endometrial biopsy every 1-2 years starting at age 30-35 years old Recommend BSO and hysterectomy after child bearing
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Match syndrome to gene: ***autosomal dominant*** Hereditary diffuse gastric Peutz Jeghers Juvenile poly posits Lynch (hereditary non-polyposis colon CA) Familial adenomatous polyposis Hereditary breast and ovarian CA synd Li fraumeni Cowden ***Autosomal recessive*** Bloom Fanconi
Match syndrome to gene: Hereditary diffuse gastric: CDH1 Peutz Jeghers: STK11 Juvenile polyposis: SMAD4 or BMPR1A Lynch: you know Familial adenomatous polyposis: APc HBOCS: BRCA1 or BRCA2 Li fraumeni: TP53 Cowden: PTEN ***Autosomal recessive*** Bloom: BLM/RECQL3 Fanconi: FABCD1, BRCA2, FANCN (PALB2) Other idk: -werner: RECQL2 -gorlin: PTCH1 -Tuberous sclerosis: TSC1/2 Gardner: APC
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Gastric cancer risk fx
-CDH1 loss -h. Pylori -high salt
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Child Pugh A
Score of 5-6 or less 2 Points for: -bili>2 -albumin <3.5 -INR>1.7 -ascites -encephalopathy Minimum score is 5 bc 1 point automatically- for each, so basically look for any 2 of the above or less if really severe
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Benign brain tumors
-Meningioma -schwannoma -pituitary adenoma
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Differentiating b/w chronic, accelerated and blast phase CML
Chronic: blasts<10% Accelerated: blasts 15-30%, basophils >20%, plt<100 Blast: >30%
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Gelf criteria
When do treat follicular lymphoma: -3 LN+ each 3+ cm -any node or mass 7cm+ -splenomegaly -organ compression -B symptoms -cytopenias (wbc<1, plt<100) -leukemia (>5k malignant cells) -pleural effusion or ascites
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Aggressive variant prostate cancer
AVPC-C: small cell, exclusively visceral Mets, predominantly lyric bone Mets, bulky lymphadenopathy or Gleason 8+, psa<10 + 20+ bone Mets, elevated ldh or CEA, <6 months response to ADT AVPC-MS: defect in 2 of 3 tumor suppressor genes: TP53, RB1, PTEN
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Another name for Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
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What does CD34 mean?
Blast
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AML favorable risk
-core binding fx -NPM1 (without FLT-3) -t(15;17) -in frame bZIP in CEBPA
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Tumor markers in non-seminoma subtypes
Embryonal- HCG and AFP Yolk-sac- AFP Choriocarcinoma- HCG Teratoma- none
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How to assess for response to AML induction
Bone marrow at day 14 to see that blasts <5%, then upon recovery (ANC >1000, plt>100k) repeat marrow to confirm still at blast <5%, then you can do consolidation
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EGFR rash grading
Grade 1: <10% bsa Grade 2: 10-30% bsa or >30% mild or no symptoms Grade 3: >30% with symptoms limiting ADLs Grade 4: life threatening or superinfection requiring iv abx- Any amount of bsa
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Auer rods
AML
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CD10
B-ALL Also CD19 and CD20
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CML risk fx
Radiation
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CML risk fx
Radiation
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Cancer associated with HIV
-Kaposi sarcoma -Hodgkin’s lymphoma -NHL (Burkitts, PCNSL esp.) -cervical
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Radioactive iodine scan
-I-131 -thyroid cells take up iodine to make thyroid hormone -suspicious areas don’t take it up -iodine free diet before to avoid messing with results -stop levoxyl before bc works better with high TSH (give thyrotropon before)
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Cancers linked to hpv
Cervical, vaginal, vulvar, penile, anal Oropharyngeal, esophageal