diagnostics 🩻 Flashcards
1
Q
what is the title for the health and safety legislation
A
health and safety at work act 1974
2
Q
what does this legislation cover
A
both duties of the employer and employee
3
Q
what the the 3 objectives
A
- secure
- protect
- control
4
Q
what does the 1st objective do
A
secures health and safety at work
5
Q
what does the 2nd objective do
A
protects people at risk of health and safety at work
6
Q
what does the 3rd objective do
A
controls the use/keeping of explosive/highly flammable or other dangerous substances, preventing unlawful acquisition, possession and use of such substances
7
Q
what must employers do for you ?
A
- consider who can harm you in your job and take steps to prevent it
- explain risks and how these are controlled including responsibilities
- protect you from harm in the workplace
- provide training
- provide PPE
8
Q
what do employees do ?
A
- takes responsible care of the health and safety ourselves and others that may be affected by what they do or not do
- cooperate with the employer in health and safety
- obey local rules on health and safety
- wear PPE
- handle store and transport articles/ substances in a safe manner
- adequately maintain equipment where appropriate to manufactures specification and legislation
9
Q
what is the title of the control of hazardous substances legislation
A
control of substances hazardous to health regulations 2002
10
Q
what does the control of hazourdous substances to health 2002 do?
A
controls the exposure of employees to hazardous substances
11
Q
what are steps to prevent or reduce exposure
A
- identify the hazard
- how to prevent haem to health by assessment
- control measures
- provide information, instruction and training for employees/ others
- plan for emergencies
12
Q
what is the title for the ionising regulation
A
ionising radiation regulations 2017
13
Q
what does the regulation cover
A
covers all use of radiation and radioactive materials including vet radiology. the regulation identifies hazards, risks and reduction of exposure to employees and others thus leading to the production of local rules.
14
Q
when were the regulations updated
A
2017
15
Q
what did the update inlcude
A
inform the health and safety executive of working with ionising radiations, rules for practices to comply to the HSE before carrying out radiography and now a graded approach to work being carried out
16
Q
what does notify include
A
no cost involved
no expiry date
notification is needed for each practice
lowest risk
17
Q
what does register include
A
medium risk
to register radiation practice with the health and safety executive HSE
initial cost
must be reviewed every 5 yrs
18
Q
what does consent include
A
highest risk
consent requires listening or approval
requires additional info
renewal fee
if a vet practice has multiple branches at different locations a consent application is required for each site
19
Q
are we allowed to manipulate a px when undergoing a diagnostic examination?
A
only if neccessary
20
Q
can any body parts be placed under the primary beam
A
no
21
Q
what is radiation
A
energy that moves from one place to another in a form that can be described as waves or particles
22
Q
additional properties of x-ray mean they can be used to provide an image, what are they
A
penetration- due to high energy
effect of photographic film- produces a latent/ hidden image by processing
energy storage- digital x-ray
23
Q
what do x-rays produce in relation to tissue
A
biological changes in living tissue, harmful to normal tissue and are a safety hazard
24
Q
what are the 4 dangers of an x-ray
A
- invisible
- painless
- latent effects- effected that arent on the specific part that you have x-rayed
- cumulative- cant see the buildup of radiation
25
what damages come under biological
somatic, carcinogenic, genetic
26
what does somatic damage include
direct changes in the body tissues which can occur soon after exposure
27
list examples of somatic damage
- skin reddening
- skin cracking
- baldness
- blood disorders
- cataracts
- digestive upset
28
what does carcinogenic include
induction of cancer in tissues that have been exposed to radiation. tumour developed in exposed tissues. can last a period of 20-30 yrs of leukaemia
29
what can carcinogenic damage cause
leukaemia
skin cancer
30
what does genetic damage include
effects on the gonads when exposed to radiation i.e the ovaries and testicles
31
what can genetic damage lead to
mutation within the chromosones of the germ cells
inherited abnormalities with offspring
32
what does stochastic mean
occurs by chance relating to any dose rate
33
what does non-stochastic/ deterministic mean
dose specific threshold, with a potential to lead to radiation burns
34
what are 3 sources of radiation
tube head
primary beam
secondary/ scattered radiation
35
what types of x-rays can you have
fixed, mobile and portable
36
characteristics of a fixed x-ray
most powerful- built into x-ray room attached to the flor or wall
expensive
can be linked to a floating tube
output- 1250mA
37
characteristics of a mobile x-ray
larger and more powerful to portable x-rays
can be moved from room to room on wheels
output- 100-500mA
38
characteristics of a portable x-ray
commonly used in general and equine practice
easy to move from site to site carrying case to transport
output- 60mA
39
how are x-rays produces
when electricity from the mains is transformed into a high voltage current, with some of that energy converting into x-rays
40
what are some physcial features of particles and wave like energy
they are thought of as tiny pockets of energy referred to as photons, photons travel in straight lines and can be focused into an area called the primary beam or some photons can be absorbed or scattered and pass through the px. an image is produced by computer manipulation called digital radiography.
41
what is energy directly proportional too
frequency and indirectly proportional to wavelength
42
what is frequency
the number of waves that pass a certain point in a specified amount of time
43
what is wavelength
the distance between any 2 corresponding points on adjacent waves
44
what does high frequency and shortwave equal
high energy
45
list properties of an x-ray
they dont require a medium for transmission
they can pass through a vacuum
they travel in straight lines
they travel at speed in a vacuum
they interact with matter by being absorbed or scattered
46
how can x rays penetrate
due to high energy
47
what are the effects on a photographic film
produces a latent/ hidden image revealed by processing
48
how can fluorescence occur
x-rays cause crystals of certain substances to fluorescence. utilised with digital radiography
49
what are properties of atoms
they are the smallest part of an element
protons have a + charge and they're located in the nucleus
neutrons have no charge and they are located in the nucleus
electrons have a - charge and they orbit around the nucleus in place
50
how are x-ray photons created
when rapidly moving electrons are slowed down or stopped. when travelling at high speeds they collide with other atoms and lose their kinetic energy. most of this energy is transformed into heat and a small amount is converted into x-ray energy
51
name the components of a tube head
lead lining
glass envelope
focusing cup
vacuum
cooling fins
cooper stem
target
filament
oil
x-ray
filter
earthed metal sheild
52
what does insulating oil do
surrounds the tube and absorbs heat generated during x-ray production to prevent overheating
53
what does the tube head do
a seal which is made of aluminium or leaded glass which produces the x-ray.
54
what do transformers do
alter the voltage of the incoming electric current
55
what does the aluminium filter do
its made of 0.5mm aluminium sheets that absorb most long wavelength radiation.
56
what does the lead collimator
it has a lead plate with a hole in the middle that fits over the metal housing opening where the x-ray beam exits the tube head. the collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to produce patient exposure to harmful x-rays
57
what does the target window do
a specially designed window on the enclosure where the x-ray is set. its 5cm2 and thinner than the rest of the enclosure to minimalist absroption
58
what type of electrodes does the tube head contain
cathode and anode
59
what charge does a cathode have
negative
60
what charge does an anode have
positive
61
where are electrons produced
the filament
62
what is the filament made out of
coiled wire made out of tungsten
63
how is thermionic emmison created
a small electrical current is applied to the coiled wire filament which is heated and releases a cloud of electrons
64
what is placed around the filament to ensure the electrons reach the target
focusing cup
65
what is the focusing cup made out of
molybdenum
66
what is good about molybdenum
it has a high melting point and is a poor conductor of heat. the
67
what is the function of the focusing cup
stream the electrons in a narrow band towards the anode when an exposure is made. the focusing cup will repel the electrons to the centre and this ensures they flow in a narrow band due to its concave shape and don't spread.
68
what does the anode do
conducts electrons away from the tube to the generator, provides support for the target and removes excess heat from the tube
69
which part of the tube head do electrons strike
the target
70
what angle is the target set at
20 degrees
71
why is the target set at an angle
so the area being struck by electrons is as large as possible as its the focal spot
72
what does the glass envelope do
a glass vaccum tube that contains the anode and cathode
73
what is the function of the vaccum
allow x-rays to travel in straight lines. in the vacuum, all gases and air are extracted as if 02 were present, the X-rays will bounce off the particles and be misdirected.
74
what does a soft x-ray mean
they don't have enough power to pass through the px and this can lead to scatter.
75
how to prevent a soft x-ray
an aluminium filter is placed over the window to absorb soft x-rays
76
what has to be present on every x-ray machine due to legal and safety requirements
an aluminium filter
77
give a summary of x-ray production
within the tube head, there is the cathode -ve and the anode +ve. the cathode consitis of a filament made up of tungsten, this filament is heating by an electric current which produces electrons. these electrons are released by thermionic emission. the electrons are directed by a focusing cup to the anode. the electrons then travel at high speeds across the tube from the cathode to the anode. electrons hit the target area and x-rays and heat are produced.
78
what does absorption depend on
it depends on tissue, atomic number, specific gravity and thickness. bone has a higher atomic number than soft tissue so it will absorb more x-ray photons and produce a paler area or radiograph. specific gravity is density or mass per unit volume, bone has a higher specific gravity and has has low specific gravity
79
what colour will gas show
very dark
80
what colour will fat show
dark grey
81
what colour will soft tissue or fluid show
mid grey
82
what colour will bone show
neaely white
83
what colour will metal show
white
84
can you differentiate between fluid in soft tissues
no
85
what is mA/ mAs
milliamperage/ milliamperage time
86
what does milliamperage measure
measures the quantity of electrons crossing the tube during an exposure
87
what does time measure
controls the amount of time that a high voltage is applied for
88
what is the FFD
the distance between the focal spot and the x-ray film/ cassette.
89
what is the common cm of a FFD
75cm
90
what is the greatest saftey hazard in an x-ray
the primary beam
91
why is the primary beam the greatest safety hazard
it has high energy x-rays producing
92
what does the light beam diaphragm do in visualising
it helps to visualise the area of exposure and collimation adjusts the area of exposure.
93
what is produced in all directions when hitting an object
secondary radiation/ scatter
94
is scatter low energy or high energy
low
95
what is scatter absorbed by
PPE
96
how can scatter be reduced
collimation, decreasing exposure and lead tabletops
97
what animals is scatter not an issue with
cats, small dogs, skulls and limbs
98
what does scatter cause in a image
fogging, blackening
99
what is the name of the guiding principle in radiation safety
ALARA
100
what does ALARA involve
avoiding exposure to radiation that doesnt benefit you. ALARA can be achieved by time- limiting the amount of time near to a radioactive source, distance- increasing the distance between the person and the radioactive source and shielding- putting a barrier between the person and the radiation source
101
what is a controlled area
a specific room that has thick walls that are reinforced if necessary.
102
how far do you stand away from the primary beam
2m
103
true of false
the x-ray should always be connected to a power source even when not in use
false
the x-ray should always be DISCONNECTED when not in use
104
what needs to be outside an x-ray room
a light to tell you when the x-ray is in use
105
does every use of an x-ray need to be logged?
yes
106
what needs to be logged in an x-ray book
the date, px identification, what view has been taken, exposure factor, means of restraint, quality of image, depth of tissue, personnel involved, if x-ray warning light went on
107
list examples of PPE
lead aprons
thyroid protector
lead gloves
lead screens
film badge dosimeter
108
what does a film badge dosimeter measure
the exposureof the radiation
109
how can a dosimeter measure the radiation
it has a small piece of film which has small metal filters to assess the type of radiation
110
list the amount of radiation for an employee/ trainee being of 18yrs or above inc skin, extremities and lens of the eye
500mSv 1cm2 for skin
500mSv for extremtities
20mSv for lens of the eye
111
list the amount of radiation for an trainees being under 18, inc skin, extremities and lens of the eye
150mSv 1cm2 for skin
150mSv for extremtities
15mSv for lens of the eye
112
list the amount of radiation for an any other person/ members of the public and employees under 18yrs of age, inc skin, extremities and lens of the eye
50mSv 1cm2 for skin
50mSv for extremtities
15mSv for lens of the eye
113
list types of positioning aids
sandbags
ties
foam wedges
troughs/ cradles
114
what is the use of sandbags
to prevent movement of the px
115
are sandbags radiopaque or radiolucent
radiopaque therefore shouldnt be in primary beam as will show on x-ray
116
what is the use of ties
to prevent limb movement and should only be used when px is under GA
117
what is the use of foam wedges
prevent rotation
118
are foam wedges radiopaque or radiolucent
radiolucent, they can be within the primary beam
119
what is the use of troughs/ cradles
prevents rotation
120
are troughs/ cradles radiopaque or radiolucent
radiopaque
121
what is a grid
a flat plate that is placed between the px and the cassette. they're are thin plates made of alternating strips of lead and a radiolucent material such as plastic, carbon fibre or aluminium that are placed between a px and an x-ray cassette or film to improve image contrast and reduce scattered radiation.
122
what is the purpose of lead strips
they absorb scatter moving at an angle while undeflected photons pass through the radiolucent material
123
do grids stop scatter
yes
124
can grids be built into the table or cassette?
yes
125
where are grids placed
under the x-ray table or built into the table
126
list the different types and patterns of a grid
parallel grid
potter bucky grid
linear grid
crossed grid
focussed grid
pseudo focussed grid
127
true or false
you dont have to be perpendicular to the animal when taking an x-ray
false. you have to be perpendiculuar to the animal
128
what is radiographic grid cut off
when an x-ray grid absorbs primary x-ray beams prevent the x-rays from reaching the image receptor when it is positioned incorrectly or used upside down.
129
what is grid ratio
the ratio of the height of the lead strips to the distance between them. grid ratio is used to calculate the grid factor. for example- if the height of the lead strip is 6x the width of the interspace that ratio is 6:1
130
what must you do regarding mAs when using a grid
increase the mAs
131
what is pneumbra
the outer shadow formed around an object
132
what causes pneumbra
the focal spot being infintesimally small, blurring, loss of sharpness at the margins / edge
133
how to prevent pneumbra
px as close to the cassette as possible with the smallest focal spot possible
134
what does collimation aid in
radiation safety and improves image quality by reducing scatter
135
where should collimation be carried out
to the area of interest only - only routinely body cavity boundaries
136
how is collimation performed
using variably sized lead shutters within the LBD restricing the area through which x-rays can pass
137
how can collimation be checked
by placing a coin in each edge of the collimation to ensure the coins are seen at the edge of the image
138
where is centering centred
to the area of anatomincal interest
139
in magnification what is the size of the shadow determined by
the distance between the object and the Film focal spot
140
what makes the imager truer to size
the closer the object is to the cassette
141
what the exposure factors a combination of
mAs and kV
142
when is radiography used in debilitated px
RTA
fractures
dislocations
bullets
thorax and abdomen
143
why is timing important
its needed for the information gained and the stress applied to obtain the information. life threatening respiratory and circulatory emergencies or intra-abdominal injuries must be controlled
144
what should be provided prior to imaging
pre-radiographic examination
vital signs must be stable
02 therapy
fluid therapy
mild sedation
pain control
ET readily available
anaesthetic emergency box
145
when would you delay imaging
if the animals conditon could be aggravated by the radiographic procedures or the expected benefits of radiology do not exceed the risk
146
where is the digital / computed radiography image produced onto
on a plate or directly into the computer
147
what are the advantages of digital / computed radiography
greater tolerance
wide ranges of tissues
ability to computer- manipulate images
cant loose images
148
what are the 2 different types of digital radiography
computed radiography and direct radiography
149
what equipment is needed for computed radiography
imaging plate, cassette, CR system, reader
150
how does computed radiography work
during exposure, the photostimulate phosphor within the imaging plate stores energy form the x-ray photons in a semi-stable electron trap which creates a latent image. the cassette is labelled electronically with the px details before being inserted into the reader/ digitizer. the phosphor is read by a helium-neon laser within the reader/ digitizer which provides a small amount of energy to the electrons in the trap, allowing them to move back to their resting state and in doing so releasing energy in the form of light. the light produced is collected by a light guide and converted to an analogue electrical signal. this signal is amplified by a photomultiplier and digitized by an analogue converter.
151
what are some advantages of computed radiography
shorter exposure times
more forgiving then film
fewer repeat exposures
faster processing time
no chemicals used
152
what is direct radiography
technology that produces an almost instantaneous image on the display screen without the processing stage.
153
what do the flat panel decetctors contain in direct radiography
a thin film transistor array made of amorphous selenium which is arranged in a matrix
154
true or false
the image detectors can be wireless only
false
the image detectors can be wired or wireless.
155
list advantages of DR
real time image capture
highest quality of digital images
image viewable in seconds
zoom facility allows areas to be magnified
maximum resolution
156
how many types of DR are there and what are they
2
flat panel system
charged coupled device system
157
what is involved with a flat panel system
the detector panel is linked to x-ray equipment
converts x-ray energy to light then a digital signal
158
what is involved with a charged coupled device system
flourescent screen undr x-ray table
computer screen is linked
159
what is a DR plate
a specialised plate that converts light to digital signals directly without requiring a reader. the plates are coated with amorphous. selenium and are similar to a large single computer chip. they cost at least double the price of a CR system.
160
what are the characteristics of Digital images
- viewed on a monitor
- images can be manipulated
- rotation
- flipping
- magnification
- adjustment to density / contrast
- inversion of black and white
- annotation
- compare different images
161
what are the characteristics of Digital images and communication
images produced are stored as DICOM. this allows the images to be stored and viewed across all models of imaging. the image is inbedded with px detaios, owner, species, breed
162
list ways to store an image
computer
usb
DVD
back uos
image is saved as a DICOM or j-pegs
163
what are the characteristics of picture archiving and communication system
- allows images to be automatically saved/ stored to a secure location
- stores px ID/ details and the vet practicice/ VS details
- comes in a variety of sizes, some can store up to 250,000 images
- images can be viewed throughout the practice, consulting rooms, theatres, newer syetms allows access from anywhere
164
what are the benefits for PACS
recent radiographs can be stored with the previous images and be stored together and PACS enables a continuity of px care and assessment
165
what are the characteristics of teleradiology
the ability to transfer digital files from one location to another. its used in referall or to send to a specialist for interpretation. its quicker and more efficient than sending CDs/ DVDs. a report can then be returned to the practice
166
what is contrast media
contrast media is the method of using x-rays and a special dye to study organs, the dye called a contrast medium helps radiologists to see structures that might not be clear on standard x-rays. radiocontrast agents are substances used to enhance the visibility of internal structures in x-rays based imaging techniques such as CT
167
why is contrast media used
addresses the lack of contrast by selectively absorbing more x-rays photons than the soft tissue- this appears white on the image. it can be introduced into blood vessels, viscera, cavities or joints. information gained from a study - anatomy, integrity and function.
168
what is positive contrast media
contains elements of high atomic number that are radio-opaque ( appear white on x-ray film which are whiter than bone).
169
what are examples of positive contrast media
barium compounds, iodine compounds
170
what is negative contrast
gases which are radiolucent due to their low density and appear black on an x-ray
171
what are examples of negative contrast
02, c02, n20
172
what is double contrast
the use of air and nitrogen plus a contrast agent such as barium
173
what are advantages and disadvanatges of barium
adv-
inert, insoluble
disadv-
may cause a foreign body reaction if leaks
174
what are the features of lower osmolar ionic media
- hexabrix
- fewer side effects than those in water soluble iodine
- better contrast in GIT than in water soluble iodine
175
what are the features of lower osmolar ionic media
- omnipaque
- non-ionic
176
what are the features of ultrasound
- very common
- non - invasive
- sound energy at high frequency
- frequency range is 2.5-15megahertz
177
what are adv for ultrasound
- real time
- non-invasive
- in house
- quick
- no ionising radiation
- differentiates soft tissue to fluid
- easily repeatable
178
what are disadv of ultrasound
can be expensive
can be hard to interpret if don't know anatomy
difficult to use for skeleton as cant penetrate bone
not suitable for remote interpretation as frozen images loose value
limited sensitivity
179
what are some common uses of ultrasound
pregnancy
heart images
abdomen
thoracic
blood flow
pregnancy
muscles
180
what equipment is used in ultrasound
control pannel
gel
transducer
printer
181
what are the features of the control pannel
allows changes to the quality, intensity and amplification of the image
it can input px details and more importantly
has a freeze buttonwhat are the features of lower osmolar ionic media
182
what are the features of the transducer
heavily involved with image production
it has a variety of applications depending on area of interest
different types of transducer
contains piezoelectric elements referred to as arrays
183
what are the 2 main types of transducer
array transducer
phased array transducer
184
what are the features of the array transducer
contains crystal elements which are arranged in a line along the surface of the transducer
it has a wide field of view
requires a large contact area between the skin and transducer
185
what are the uses of an array transducer
musculoskeletal system
eyes
body
abdominal organs
186
what are the features of the phased array transducer
semi circle in shape
contains small cyrstals to create a fan shape
allows visualisation of deep structures due to wide field of vision
phased arrays have poor near-field image resolution
187
what are the uses of phased array transducer
deeply located structures of the abdomen
deeply located structures of the thoracic cavity
188
what are the features of the coupling gel
allows sound waves to pass through it easily
helps the transmissions of soundwaves from the transducer to the pxs skin, which produces a clear image
it eliminates air between the skin and transducer as air can cause reflections that create dark areas in the image
it has a smoothing movement
189
how is an image produced in ultrasound
sound waves are produced by vibration of special crystals in the transducer. the transducer is applied to the skin which sends out a beam of sound waves into the body. at interfaces with tissues or different cells some soundwaves are reflected back onto the transducer. the soundwaves virbate the tissues and the crystals within the transducer. the soundwaves are converted back to electrical impulses which are converted into an image.
190
what does anechoic mean
black areas in a ultrasound
191
what does hypoechoic mean
dark areas in an ultrasound
192
what does hyperechoic mean
bright areas in an ultrasound which are white in colour
193
what equipment is needed for an ultrasound
gel, clippers, stethoscope, cotton wool, swabs, spirit, biopsy needle sample pots, towel, sedation, an extra person for help
194
what should be done pre-procedure with ultrasound
- food withheld for 12hrs
- can allow drink straight up to procedure
- allow to defecate and urinate
195
what should be done at the scanning site with ultrasound
hair should be removed
apply coupling gel
px should be manually restrained
196
what should be done post-procedure with ultrasound
clean the site of gel
allow animal to stretch and move
197
how to care for the equipment for ultrasound
clean after use
service annually
check machine for damage
wipe down transducers
wipe down machine
198
what is an endoscopy
an optical device which provides a detailed image of inside the body. it is minimally invasive.
199
what are uses of endoscopy
otoscopy
rhinoscopy
tracheostomy
vaginoscopy
colonoscopy
200
what are the different types of endoscope
rigid and felxible
201
what are the features of a rigid endoscope
used to examine non tubular structures
simple design
better image quality and light transmission
larger instrument can be used
easier to clean
202
what are the features of a flexible endoscope
used to examine internal tubular structures
poorer light transmission
can only use small intrusments- have to pass down instrument channel
more complex
costly
can only be cleaned by trained team members
203
what does an endoscope comprise of
lighting system
visualisation
channels
interface
204
what are the features of the lighting system
the light source is external to the endoscope
it illuminates the organ/ area of interest
halogen or xenon bulbs
light is commonly directed by an optical fibre system
can be integrated with insufflation and irrigation
205
what are the features of the interface
processor
light source
digital capture device
AIDA- advanced image data archiving system
TELE pack
has air pump
206
what are the features of the cannula
can come with or without a trochar which is the pyramidal tip with cutting edges to pierce the body wall
has a lure lock valve- the attachment for insufflation
the cannula has the automatic valve
can also be called an egress cannula
207
what is a rigid endoscope
a steel structure that is unable to manoeuvre bends, allowing easier manoeuvrability inside non-tubular structures. within the steel structure, there is a series of rods and lenses arranged in a lineral sequence to maximise light transmission, magnification and resolution. glass fibres surround the rods and lenses transmitting light post to the distal tip of the scope. the image can be viewed directly from the eyepiece or transmitted to a screen by attaching an endoscopic video camera to the eyepiece.
208
what is the function of the sheath
protect the scope
passage of instruments through the instrument channel of the sheath
used for cystoscopy, rhinoscopy and otoscopy
209
what are the features of the instrument channel in a rigid scope
palpation probes
grasping forceps
biopsy forceps
scissors
needle holder
suture cutter
arthroscopy instruments
arthroscopy stifle set up canine
210
what are general rules for cleaning the rigid endocscope
wear gloves
handle with care
have a bath of enzymatic cleaner diluted to Manufacturers guidelines, a bath of instrument disinfection and a bath of rinsing water
place endoscope in cleaning bath
wipe whole endoscope
return endoscope to plastic sleeve
open all taps and using a brush clean them
flush through the ports
wipe down the sheath
brush the jaws
wipe the forceps
repeat all steps in the disinfectent bath
place endoscope, sheath and forceps into distilled water bath
flush through the sheath ports
dry everything
put instruments back in box
211
what are the features of the flexible endoscope
has an umbilical cord which plugs into a light source
has a handoiece which is a manual control and working channel port
insertion tube- part that enters the px
212
what can you use a flexible endoscope for
respiratory tract
lungs
nasal cavity
abdominal tract]urinary tract
213
what are the 2 types of flexible endoscope
fibrescope
videoscope
214
how does a fibrescope work
the image is transmitted via a fibreoptic image bundle from the objective lens at the tip of the insertion tube to the ocular lens located in the eyepiece
215
how does a videoscope work
the image is transmitted electronically thorugh wires from a sensor located behind the objective lens at the distal tip, along the length of the endoscope to a video processor which produces an image on the screen
216
what is air insufflation
inflation
the operator occludes the air/water valve on the control panel. the air travles from the light source, through the universal cord, through the control panel into the insertion tube where air is released from the distal tip at the air/ water nozzle
217
what is suction
removal of excess fluid or air
the operator fully depresses the suction valve on the control panel
air/water is sucked in from the distal tip, travels up through the insertion tube, control panel and light guide source. a suction connector will be attached with a cannister to collect fluid/ air.
218
what are the features of the instrument channel in a flexible endoscope
located at the distal end of the handpiece
biopsy forceps
cytology brushes
foreign body graspers
instruments should be lubricated after thorough cleaning if reusable
care when passing instruments
suction will not function as strongly
219
how should the practice provide care to endoscopy
training and familarity with the equipment
minimal staff requirement - 1 RVN and 1 VS
store ready for use cart in dedicated room
ensure spare equipment is nearby
monitor or tower should be set up on the opposite side of the table for the endoscopist
220
how to clean the flexible endoscope
clean immediately
dissemble instruments and place in bath
clean using a enzymatic cleaner
use appropriate brush size
rinse thoroughly
disinfect with disinfectant
rinse
dry with lint free cloth
221
how should flexible endoscops be stored
hanging to prevent stress on fibres and remove any residual fluid
222
what are the benefits of the flexible endoscope
small wounds so less trauma
reduced post op pain
rapid healing
limited sutures to be removed
reduced surgical operating time
223
what is a zoonotic disease
a disease which is transmissible between animals and humans
224
what is blood
a connective tissue that circulates around the body in a continuous system of blood vessels
225
what is the % of blood in an animals BW
7%
226
what is the normal pH
7.35
227
what are the roles of a SNV in a lab practice
take bloods
urine samples
facial samples
hair samples
skin samples
228
what nursing skills are vital
organised
* preperation with discussion with staff, consider px records, appropriate admission/ consent, px prep, equipment, consent for px
* sampling- knowledge, equipment, restraint, methods, preservation, sample rejection and transportion
* communication with client, vet, staff and external lab staff
* time keeping
* record keeping of clinical and clients records
* communication of results to vet team and client
* understanding findings for limitatiosn of test, relevance or recognition of spurious values
* H&S for vet nurse, other staff, lab staff and clients
229
what should be checked before each test is carried out
correct details
* consent
* ensure equipment is working and available
* check with vet what checks need carried out
* clinical history
* safe area to work
* other members of staff are available to collect samples
230
what common tests are carried out in the lab
- biopsy
* bacterial, fungal, viral
* culture
* tissues and body fluids for cytology
* toxicology
231
what is the right size for a needle for a dog
21G
232
what is the correct needle size for a cat
23G or 25G
233
what equipment is needed for blood sampling
needles with correct G
sterile syringe
collecting tube (the correct tube)
clippers- quiet ones
plaster
restraint aids
antiseptic skin prep solutions/ swabs - but skin needs to be dry before needle
hand wash and gloves
swab for post-venipuncture pressure
bandage materials in case prolonged pressure is required over the venepuncture site
good light source to see vein
234
how should the needle be prepped
should be sterile and siposable
235
how should the syringe be prepped
should be clean, dry and disposable- ideally new.
never drawback bard on the plunger as this may collapse the vein
236
what should you always do after getting blood from an animal
transfer to a collecting tube ASAP to prevent contamination and clotting. normal blood clotts in 10-20secs after contact with tissue, tissue fluids, glass or plastic
237
how do you expel the blood into the tube
slowly and gently
238
how can cell damage happen
the force of expulsion from the needle
239
how much blood do you collect
as much to fill the tube up to the line
240
where can you take a blood sample
cephalic, jugular, saphenous and lateral vein
241
where do you take a rabbit blood sample
marginal ear vein
242
what is the cephalic vein used for
intravenous catheterisation
useful in canine and feline
243
what is beneficial with the cephalic vein
its better tolerated than jugular venepuncture in some cases
244
what is a disadvantage of the cephalic vein
in small dogs and cat's the vein can be small and fragile and the vein could collapse
245
why would you choose another vein over the main vein such as the jugular
if px is diagnosed with the anticoagulation problem as you don't want the main vein to keep bleeding
246
what are advantages of the saphenous vein
very prominent in greyhounds
can be useful if cephalic/ jugular venipuncture is not possible.
some pxs will tolerate better
247
what is a disadvantage of the saphenous vein
in small dogs or cats the vein is small and fragile, the vein could collapse
248
where could you take arterial blood in a RABBIT
marginal ear vein
249
why is the lateral ear vein good
very useful in rabbits
can be used in canine with large pinnaes such as basset hounds
vein is very superficial
high chance of venous collapse
the central artery can be used for venipuncture but its avoided due to risk of haematoma/ bruising
250
why does the needle need to be bevel up
the point part goes into skin first
hurts the animal more if bevel is down
251
what does occluding the vein mean
raising the vein
252
what does occluding the vein do
it causes pooling of blood and venous engorgement. this makes the vein easier to visualise, feel and assists in making a good volume of sample easier to obtain
253
how do you occlude the vein
pressure is applied by the sampler to the thoracic inlet ventral to venipuncture site.
the assistant will apply pressure. their hand is placed behind the pxs elbow and pressure applied to the dorsal aspect of the leg using their thumb, and gently rotating the leg laterally
254
how do you raise the saphenous and ear vein
saphenous- apply pressure above the vein, lateral side
ear vein - tip of ear
255
Ollie a 12-year-old Jack Russel has come in through consults requiring a geriatric blood screen biochemistry. This is to be placed in an orange Lith hep tube. You are instructed by the VS to take this sample. Note that Ollie was previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis in his elbows.
Describe the procedure from start to finish:
Which site would you choose and why
Equipment preparation
Preparation of patient
Handling and restraint
Sample collection and storage
place ollie so he is sitting or laying down to remove the pressure off his elbows
site choice: saphenous
equipment: gloves, needles, swabs, bandage, syringe,
preparation of px: have him lie down or sit down in a quiet room on a comfy bed as he is old
handling and restraint: have an assistant
sample collection and storage: orange lith hep tube and store in a fridge.
256
what do you do with the blood sample you have just taken
take off needle as you dont want to push the blood back through the needle, push the blood out of the syringe into the tube.
257
how do you preserve a blood sample
prevent clotting by using anti-coagulent tubes
leaving whole blood- it will clot naturally then serum removed
blood smears
258
what do you use to collect blood
vacutainer- tube with a vacuum collected with a double ended needle, more common in large animal. can cause damage to cells. usually come in 20G or 21G
sample tubes- different sizes and types are colour coded depending on the test required blood is usually collected by needle and syringe and then put into tube.
259
what are anti- coagulents
a powder/ liquid or solid which allows plasma to form and prevent clotting. mostly always found in the tube. they are spun down shortly after collection and must be in the appropriate anticoagulent for the diagnostic test to be carried out. blood sample must be quickly and gently placed into the correct blood tube and gently mixed.
260
what are the characteristics of no anti-coagulent
no anticoagulent in blood tube
serum is formed from clotted sample
serum does not contain clotting factors such as fibrinogen as used forming the blood clot
used for serology and biochemical tests
serum can be extracted.
261
what tubes dont have anti-coagulent
brown, white
262
what tubes have anti-coagulent
purple, orange, red, yellow, green, black
263
what is EDTA and what is it used for
ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid, used for blood smears, haematology and cell counts
264
what is lithium herapin used for
biochemistry
265
what is flouride oxalate used for
used for blood glucose
266
what is the fluid part in blood
plasma
267
how can you see plasam
it separates when in a centrifuge
268
what does plasma look like
a clear straw coloured liquid
269
what is plasma
the solid part of blood is suspended
270
what does llama contain
mineral salts, plasma proteins
271
what are the 3 groups of blood cells
eyrthrocytes
leucocytes
thrombocytes
272
what are erythrocytes
RBC
273
what are leucocytes
WBC
274
thrombocytes
platelets
275
what colour will the plasma be when haemolysis has occurred
red/pink
276
what colour will the plasma be when jaundice has occurred
yellow
277
what colour will the plasma be when lipaemia has occurred
white/ milky/ cloudy colour
278
what is the Buffy coat
where leucocytes and platelet cells are. its in-between the plasma and blood
279
what can be done to avoid haemolytic when taking a blood sample
be gentle
avoid excess suction in syringe
make sure blood passes through needle once
remove needle when transferring blood
use widest needle size the px will allow
dont shake blood
examine as quick as possible
280
what are the 3 ways to preserve a blood sample
1. put sample in fridge, freezer
2. blood smear
3. put it into an anticoagulant tube or leave it whole
281
where is a blood analysis taken out
tested in practice or in house or its sent to an external lab
282
what does CBC stand for
complete blood count
283
what does PCV stand for
packed cell volume
284
what does Hb stand for
haemoglobin
285
what does HCT stand for
haematocrit
286
what does TRBC stand for
total red blood cell
287
what does TWBC stand for
total white blood cell
288
what does MCV stand for
red cell mean corpuscular volume
289
what does MCH stand for
mean corpuscular haemoglobin
290
what does MCHC stand for
mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
291
what does RDW stand for
red cell distribution width
292
what is PCV and what does it tell you
packed cell volume which is the % of the total blood volume which is made up of RBC's. it can give you hydration status, degree of anemia and blood loss in an animal
293
what equipment is needed for a PCV
ETDA tube (pink/red tube)
centrifuge set to 10000 RPM for 5 mins
294
how to use a ETDA tube
gently invert the blood within the tube to mix the sample. place your microhaematocrit tube into the blood and allow the tube to fill to 3/4. once the tube is 3/4 full, place your index finger over the top of the tube to prevent back flow of blood. seal the haematocrit tube using plastocine sealant
295
once spun down how many layers will you see In the blood sample
3
296
what are the layers in the blood tube once centrifuged
plasma
Buffy coat
RBC
297
what is the PCV range for a dog
37-55%
298
what is the PCV range for a cat
24-45%
299
what does an increase in PCV indicate
dehydration due to reduced plasma levels
300
what does a decrease in PCV indicate
anaemia or haemorrhage due to fewer RBCs
301
can PCV be breed specific?
yes
302
what is biochemistry
Biochemistry is the study of chemical processes in and around living organisms, and is a sub-discipline of both chemistry and biology. It can be divided into three fields: structural biology, enzymology, and metabolism.
303
what colour tube does EDTA cap have
pink
304
what does sodium citrate cap have
dark purple
305
what does lithium heparin cap have
orange
306
what does sodium fluoride/ potassium oxide cap have
yellow
307
what ways can you measure biochemistry parameters
in house biochemistry analyser vet test
external lab
commercial test strips- dipstick
hand held analyser
308
what is a biochem pre-anaesthetic profile
used to admit their pets for clinical procedure which includes parameters such as urea, creatinine, ALT, ALKP, glucose, total protein
309
what is blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Blood urea nitrogen(BUN) is a waste product formed by the liver and excreted by the kidneys as a result of protein metabolism
Good indicator of both liver and kidney function
310
what is the normal range for blood urea nitrogen for a dog
2.5-9.6mmol/L
311
what is the normal range for blood urea nitrogen for a cat
5.7-12.9mmol/L
312
why would there be increased levels of urea
Infection or necrosis
High protein diet
Chronic heart failure.
With chronic heart failure there is poor renal perfusion so less urea is taken to the kidneys so there is a greater amount in the blood.
Urethral obstruction and rupture of the bladder
Renal failure
Dehydration- causes apparent raised urea levels
Other systemic and metabolic conditions
Corticosteroid therapy -steroids
313
what would cause decreased levels of Urea
low protein diet
anabolic steroids
liver failure
portosystemic shunts
314
what is portosystemic shunts
portosystemic shunt can be used to refer to any pathology where blood from the splanchnic venous circulation is shunted to an alternate venous drainage pathway without passing through the hepatic sinusoids. - blood doesn’t pass through the hepatic circulation which means urea is not taken up by the blood for excretion by the kidneys.
315
what is creatinine
a waste product in the blood formed from creatine, which is found is skeletal muscle. it comes from muscle wear and tear.
316
what does the quantity of creatinine depend on
depends on diet and muscle mass
317
how does creatinine diffuse
out of muscle and into bodily fluids including blood. when muscle cells are damaged.
318
how is creatinine filtered
filtered through the glomeruli in the kidney and eliminated in urine, so determines the kidney function
319
what is the range for creatinine for dogs
44-159umol/L
320
what is the range for creatinine for cats
71-212umol/L
321
what causes an increase creatinine
Muscle disorders in small animals caused by exertional hyperthermia
Hypothyroidism
Heart disease
Selenium/vitamin E deficiencies
Trauma to muscles
322
what is ALT ( alanine aminotransferase
an enzyme
323
what is the normal range for aLT for a dog
10-125IU/L
324
what is the normal range for a cat
12-130IU/L
325
what causes an increase in ALT
liver disease
,uncle damage
feline hyperthyroidism
326
what is ALKP/ALP
alkaline phosphatase
a liver enzyme
327
what is the normal range for ALKP for dogs
0-80IU/L
328
what is the normal range for ALKP for cats
15-96IU/L
329
is ALKP higher in young animals or old animals?
young animal because large quantities are found in bone (Osteoblasts), so because young animals are still growing, the levels will be higher.
330
what is glucose
cell energy source
331
what Is the normal range of glucose for a dog and cats- important
3.3-6mmol/L
332
what are glucose levels an indication of
carbohydrate metabolism and endocrine pancreatic function
333
wha can cause an elevated signs of glucose
diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, corticosteroid therapy, stress
pancreatitis
post feeding samples
334
what can cause a decreased levels of glucose
hepatic insufficiency
hypoadrenocorticism
neoplasia
malabsorption
starvation
insulin treatment
335
what are the normal ranges for TP for a dog
54-71g/L
336
what are the normal ranges of TP for a cat
54-78g/L
337
what causes an increased levels of TP
dehydration, chronic and immune- mediated disease, lactation, infection and neoplasia
338
what causes an decrease in TP
renal disease, malnutrition, malabsorption, haemorrhage, hepatic and pancreatic insufficiency
339
what does blood lactate measure
the amount of lactic acid or lactate in the blood
340
what are the normal ranges of blood lactate for cats and dogs
less than 2.5mmol/L
341
what causes an increase in lactate levels
hypoxia
reduced circulation
342
what are the electrolytes
sodium, potassium, chloride, phosphorus
343
what is albumin
a protein in the blood
344
what is the normal range of albumin in dogs
25-40g/L
345
what is the normal range of albumin in cats
25-40g/L
346
why is albumin caused
caused of depressed levels of chronic liver disease, ascites, tissue oedema, heart failure and renal failure
347
what is amylase
water soluble enzyme secreted by the pancreas
348
what is the normal range for amylase for cats and dogs
400-2000units/L
349
what is the normal range of calcium in dogs
2-3mmol/L
350
what is the normal range of calcium in cats
1.8-3mmol/L
351
what causes elevated levels of calcium
dehydration, neoplasia, hyperparathyroidism, renal disease
352
what causes a decreased level of calcium
hypoparathyroidism, eclampsia, pregnancy, acute pancreatitis
353
what is the normal range for cholesterol in dogs
2.5-8mmol/L
354
what is the normal range for cholesterol in cats
2-6.5mmol/L
355
what causes an increased level of cholesterol
diabetes mellitus hypothyroidism, hyperadrenocorticism, liver disease, renal disease
356
what causes a decreased level of cholesterol
maldigestion, malabsoprtion, sever hepatic insufficiency
357
what is the normal range for phosphorus in dogs
0.8-1.6mmol/L
358
what is the normal range for phosphorus in cats
1.3-2.6mmol/L
359
what causes an increased level of phosphorus
underachieve parathyroid gland and kidney disease
360
what causes a decreased level of phosphorus
overactive parathyroid gland, malnutrition, malabsoprtion
361
what does PCV measure
% of rbc in blood and is used to assess anaemia/ haemorrhage or dehydration.
362
what does an increase of PCV indicate
dehydration as the plasma levels are reduced, but it may also mean endotoxic shock or splenic problems.
363
what does a decrease of PCV indicate
a decreased number of rbc’s and anaemia/haemorrhage.
364
what 2 colours of haemltocrit tubes can you get
red and blue
365
why do you use a red haematocrit tube
If you are taking blood from patient and putting straight into a tube it should be heparinized as it prevents clotting RED micro haematocrit tube
366
why would you use a blue haematocrit tube
If you are taking blood from an EDTA sample, it should be into a plain tube –BLUE micro haematocrit tube
367
what is the normal PCV range for dogs- important
37-55%
368
what is the normal PCV range for cats- important
24-45%
369
what is the speed for a PCV
10000 for 10mins
370
what is the purpose of a blood smear
The purpose of performing a blood smear is to examine the red and white blood cells. Their size, shape, colour.
371
how to use the diff-quick stain
Prepare a small pot of each solution – deep enough to dip a slide completely.
Dip the dried blood smear slide into solution A (Blue) for 5 x 1seconds. Then shake off the excess.
Repeat for solutions B (Red) and C (Purple)
Carefully rinse off the excess solution 3 with distilled water.
Air dry vertically.
372
what do you look at on the blood smear
RBC – look at their,
size
shape
colour
intracellular inclusions
May see the nucleus in very immature rbc
Some rbc have some intracellular material – reticulocytes (blue)
May see some intracellular parasites
Differential WBC count is the proportion of each of the different wbc per 100 wbcs seen
373
describe the characteristics of RBC
Nucleated red blood cells (NRBC)
The cytoplasm of these is pink. They also become smaller and are called;
Normoblasts
Here, the small nucleus is extruded and the cell is called;
Reticulocyte
A cell with a reticular structure (small pieces of blue staining within the cytoplasm). These cells have no nucleus and enter the blood stream.
374
what are the 3 forms of WBC
polymorphonucelur granulocytes
monocytes
lymphocytes
375
describe the characteristics of PMNL
These cells have a single lobular nucleus with a granular cytoplasm. By staining they can be divided into;
neutrophil
eosinophil
basophil
376
describe the characteristics of neutrophils
Found in the bloodstream at the acute stages of inflammation
They are 10-12 цm in diameter
The nucleus stains purple/violet
The cytoplasm is pale blue/grey
The granules are violet
377
describe the characteristics of eosinophils
Crucial part on killing endoparasites contain a toxic based protein
The granules stain orange/red
The shape of the granules varies with species.
The nucleus is bi-lobed or segmented
378
describe the characteristics of basophils
Release histamine in response to an
inflammatory response
Similar in size to neutrophils, or slightly larger
The nucleus is a kidney bean shape
The cytoplasm is a mass of deep purple granules (may obscure nucleus)
Granules contain histamine and heparin and they are released at the site of inflammation.
These cells are rarely seen in the normal animal – seen when chronic tissue damage or myeloid leukaemia
379
describe the characteristics of monocytes
These are large cells, 15-20 µm in diameter
They are involved in the repair of damaged blood vessels
They attach to the damaged area and plug the leak.
They are then involved in the clotting process to produce fibrin
380
describe the characteristics of lymphocytes
There are two types;
Small – nucleus is round (7 – 10 um)
stains deep purple
cytoplasm pale blue
The cell is filled mostly by the nucleus
This is the most common lymphocyte
Large – the nucleus stains lighter (12 – 20 um)
It also has a more light blue cytoplasm
Role – These cells have a protective role. They are associated with;
a. Antibody production
b. Recognition of foreign substances
c. Body itself – auto immune conditions
381
what are some abnormalities of RBC
size
shape
colour
inclusions
immaturity
382
what is the name given to large RBC
macrocytes
383
what is the name given to small RBC
microcyte
384
what is crenation
spiky appearance of a RBC.
seen in haemolytic anaemia
385
what is schistocyte
red blood cell fragments
386
what is spherocyte
spherical
387
what is rouleaux
normal shape but cells ae stacked to form chains
388
what is hypochromasia
pale in colour
389
what is polychromatic
larger bluer cells
390
what are example of cytology samples
hair
faecal
skin
lumps
abscess
lungs
heart
joint
nose
mouth
genitals
391
what to prep for a px for cytology samples
temperament
condition being investigated
prep of site
invasive procedure?
withhold food
drug treatments?
392
what is centesis
a needle within the body cavity or organ to collect fluid
393
what is the prep for cerebrospinal fluid
STRICT ASEPSIS during sampling –
Sterile gloves used for procedure
Clip hair
Disinfect skin
Use sterile consumable and equipment
Patient anaesthetised and placed in lateral recumbency
Head and neck are flexed and held in position
VS uses 20-22G spinal needle, into subarachnoid space
Fluid allowed to drip into collection tube(EDTA or plain tubes) (1ml per 5Kg BW)
VS removes need slowly
Adhesive dressing placed over point of insertion
394
what does polyuria mean
increased amount of urine
395
what does oliguria mean
decreased amount of urine
396
what does straguria mean
painful, slow, difficult urination
397
what does anuria mean
no production of urine
398
what does dysuria mean
difficulty urinating
399
why do we test urine
- test for hormones
- test for blood present
- test for glucose
- test for SG
- test for protein
- test for urinary crystals
- very easy
400
why is urine testing good
Non invasive
Simple and quick method to determine health status of patients- Can help us diagnose many conditions of the urinary system and conditions in other body systems.
Often a slight change on urinalysis can lead us to carry out more invasive tests- ie. Bloods, ultrasound, radiography
Conditions that may cause abnormal urine production
Feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)
Diabetes mellitus
Renal disease/failure
Dehydration
Bladder rupture
401
what is the normal output for dogs and cats
1-2ml/kg/hr
or
24-48ml/lg/day
402
what equipment is needed do collect a sample
- sample/ collection clean pot
- cleanable item
- if owners asked to collect urine sample- recommend PPE
- feline / canine
- lead
- favourite urination area/ good smelling area/ privacy, quiet area for feline pxs
- steady hand
- needle and syringe
- clippers and skin prep for needle extraction , ultrasound gel
- catheter and serile lube or suture to maintain in place
403
what time should you collect urine and why
morning
it will be more concentrated and examine in an hour of collection
404
what are the methods of urine collection
free flow
manual expression of the bladder
urethral catheter
cystocentesis
405
explain free flow
When urine is collected during normal micturition (urination) the best sample to collect is mid-flow because first flow often contains skin cells and debris from other parts of the urogenital system which may contaminate the sample. If possible, vulva or prepuce should be cleaned to avoid bacterial contamination
406
explain manual expression
Done by veterinary surgeon or nurse, gently and steadily palpating the bladder. Patient normally in lateral recumbency. Should never be used in patients with suspected urethra obstruction. Vulva and prepuce should be cleaned before procedure starts.
407
explain urethral catheter
This method will provide a more sterile sample involves placing a polypropylene or rubber catheter within the bladder via the urethra. Variety of different catheters available for sex and species. A sterile method should be used to for the procedure, sterile catheter and gloves used.
408
explain cystocentesis
This involves passing a sterile needle (22-20g 1-1.5inch) through the abdominal wall into the bladder. Strict asepsis must be adhered to (patient must be clipped and the area cleaned with a skin detergent and surgical spirit.) It is a relatively quick method of obtaining a sterile sample. The patient -rarely needs anaesthetised or sedated as they tolerate this quite well. There must be sufficient urine in the bladder for this to be effective, but it can result in blood contamination of the sample.
409
how do you store urine
Morning urine sample ideal
Once a sample has been obtained ideally should be examined within 60minutes.
If a sample is left at room temperature for an extended period cells, casts may degenerate, crystals dissolve or precipate, and some chemical levels within the urine reduce(glucose, bilirubin & ketones), bacteria multiply, increased pH due to bacterial breakdown of urea to ammonia.
Store urine sample in fridge until ready to be tested or sent to lab
Bring urine sample to room temperature before testing.
410
how do you preserve urine samples
refrigerate urine sample - recommended for up to 24hrs post collection
boric acid- 0.1-0.2%. this holds the urine sample steady for 48-96hrs post collection.
411
what are some things you might want to analyse in an urinalysis
pH
SG
proteins, nitrates, ketones
blood
bilirubin
mucus
urobilinogen
glucose
yeast/ fungus
bacterial cells
412
what are some physical characteristics of urine
odour
turbidity
colour
SG
413
what does a pear drop smelling urine indicating
diabetes mellitus
414
what does a foul odour of urine indicate
excess protein
415
what does viscid urine indicate (sticky)
inflammation in the urinary tract
416
what does each colour of urine indicate
Clear urine – usually dilute and indicates poldipsia/polyuria
Dark yellow/orange/brown urine – usually more concentrated and indicates dehydration.
Green/yellow. If, on shaking, there is a greenish foam on the surface this indicates biliverdin (oxidation of bilirubin)
Brown/red/black urine – indicates haematuria or certain drugs have been used.
Blue/green urine .Some drugs alter the colour of urine as does beetroot.
417
why will urine go cloudy when left alone
due to the microorganisms decomposing urea to ammonia which causes a rise in pH so phosphate is precipitated
418
what may abnormal turbidity be due to
RBC
crystals or casts
epithelial cells
bacteria
yeast
fungi
pus- WBC
phosphate precipitation
prostate or vaginal secretions
419
what is SG
indication of the weight compared to distilled water
420
what does SG depend on
number and molecular weight of solutes dissolved in the urine
421
what is the normal SG for a dog
1.015-1.045
422
what is the normal SG for the cat
1.035-1.060
423
what is SG an estimation of
concentrating ability of the kidney
424
what may cause a decrease of SG
polydipsia
chronic renal failure
diabetes insipidus
IV fluid therapy
pyometra
corticosteroid treatment
425
what may cause an increase in SG
dehydration
acute renal failure
diabetes mellitus
shock
crystals
haemorrhage
426
what are 2 ways to measure SG
dip stick
refractometer
427
what are the characteristics of measuring SG with a refractometer
used to measure conc. of protein in serum and the change in the refractive index of a fluid due to substances dissolved in it
more concentrated the fluid, higher the SG, the greater the refractive index.
428
what is glucose in the urine called
glucosuria
429
why may increased levels of glucose in the urine occur
stress
excitement
hyperthyroidism
diabetes mellitus
cushings
after high doses of cortisol
after saline infusions
430
what is haematuria
blood in urine
431
what is bilirubin
presence of jaundice and bilirubin in the urine
432
what do ketones show
an abnormal and excessive breakdown of fat
433
what is protein in the urine called
proteinuria
434
what is urobilinogen
bilirubin that has been broken down by intestinal bacteria
435
should bile salts be present in urine
no
436
what is pruritis
itchy skin
437
what tests are run for skin
gross examination- visual (flea dirt)
microscopy- parasites
staining and microscopy- yeasts
culture and sensitivity - pustuls
histology- neoplasia
438
how to collect skin samples
collection of coat brushings
tape collection techniques
collection of plucked hair
superficial/ deep skin scrape techniques
squash, smear or swabbing techniques
biopsy
439
what equipment is needed for skin and hair collection
PPE
brush, comb, toothbrush
tape
forceps
paper
biopsy ouch
swabs liquid paraffin
microscope slides
scalpel blades
440
explain the coat brushing technique
Using a small brush or toothbrush, brush the coat in small areas at a time in one direction. Tap the brush onto a Petri dish, or onto a microscope slide with liquid paraffin and a cover slip, and examine under the microscope. The animal may be allowed to stand over a large piece of paper and the coat brushings poured off or the flea dirt test performed directly on the paper.
The flea dirt test involves dampening the debris brushed out of the coat. In the case of flea faeces being present, the paper will stain a reddish colour as the ingested blood in the flea faeces dissolves in the water.
441
explain the tape technique
The animal’s hair is either parted or lightly clipped to expose the skin underneath. A length of sticky tape is then gently pressed down onto the skin and hair. When looking for ectoparasites, the tape is merely stuck directly onto the microscope slide and examined – this technique is extremely useful in diagnosing Cheyletiella infestations in rabbits.
To investigate the presence of yeast infections of the skin, the tape impression is submitted to a staining technique which will illustrate the yeast. For such investigations Scotch tape is recommended and Diff-Quick is a rapid and easy to use stain.
The yeast commonly investigated in practice using this technique is called Malassezia pachydermatitis which causes a greasy and often pruritic skin infection.
442
explain the plucked hair technique
Using tweezers or forceps, individual hairs are plucked and submitted for examination.
It is important that the hair root is plucked out.
If there are lesions present, then the hair should be taken from the edge of a lesion.
This technique is used in examination for a fungal infection of the skin and hair, generally ringworm
infection.
443
explain the process of skin scraping
Involves using a scalpel blade to scrape the surface of the skin. The depth of the scrapping will depend on the parasite in question but it should result in capillary ooze. Scrapings should be placed onto liquid paraffin or 10% potassium hydroxide. The scrapings can be placed onto a microscope slide for examination under the microscope. The microscope should be viewed immediately
444
what does the examination of faeces provide
The examination of faeces provides information on the health of the gastrointestinal tract and how well it is functioning.
445
what are the collection methods for faeces collection
direct from ground
direct from rectum
446
what equipment Is needed for faeces collection
PPE
collection pot
scoop
paper towel
poo bags
447
how many grams of faeces should be collected
5g
448
when should the sample be examined
within 2 hrs or stored in fridge
449
what do you look for in faeces samples
undigested food
ingested materials that shouldn't be there
life stage of parasites
450
how do you examine faeces
gross examination- look, smell, consistency
microscope examination - direct smears
concentration method- floatations
451
what should you observe in faeces examination
colour
smell
consistency
fatty or mucous
identifiable objects
parasitic evidence
452
what does black poo indicate
bleeding from SI
453
what does red poo indicate
bleeding from LI
454
what does yellow poo indicate
malsboprtion of nutrients
455
what does white poo indicate
increased fat in diet or eating bone
456
what does fatty or mucoid
exocrine pancreatic insufficiency or colitis
457
how do you take a direct smear of faeces
1. Take a microscope slide and place a drop of saline in the middle.
2. Add an equal volume of faeces.
3. Add stain; a. Lugols iodine - starch shows blue/black
b. Methylene Blue - shows undigested meat fibres
c. Sudan IV - shows fat globules - red
4. Mix well -make a thin smear and add a cover slip.
5. Low power look for worm eggs
6. High power look for protozoa
458
what is the conc. method
used to concentrate parasitic material in faeces
used by flotation or sediment
459
what does flotation rely on
relies on weight of certain debris and the use of liquids wit different SG
460
what is the method of faecal flotation
Standard flotation
1. Mix faeces and solution thoroughly (3 – 4g in 50ml of water)
2. Put mixture through a fine sieve
3. Put the filtrate in a test tube and leave for 5 minutes.
4. Pour off the supernatant then add the flotation solution.
5. Fill a test tube to the top - with a meniscus on top.
6. Place a cover slip on top and leave for 10 – 20 minutes.
7. Lift cover slip off vertically and place it on a slide.
8. Look under low power x 25
Centrifugal flotation
More commonly used than standard
Spin the tubes at 1000 – 1500 rpm for 3-5 minutes
The top fluid meniscus is examined.
461
what is faecal sedimentation
this allows parasitic eggs, oocysts and other parasitic material to sink to the bottom of a liquid usually being water
462
what is the method of faecal sedimentation
Method
1. Mix 2g of faeces with tap water and then strain
2. Half fill a centrifuge tube with the filtrate
3. Spin at 1500 rpm for 5 minutes
4. Pour off the supernatant
5. Put some sediment, using a Pasteur pipette onto a slide and use a cover slip.
6. Lugols Iodine can be mixed with the sediment before examination under low power
The above method concentrates the eggs by centrifugation.
The disadvantage is that it can be difficult to see the eggs in all the faecal debris.
463
what is the modified McMaster technique
this determines the no. of eggs per g of faeces
464
where is occupy blood seen
ulcers
neoplasia
parasitism
465
what is a parasite
an organism that is dependent both physically and metabolically to another ( the host). they exploit the host for one or multiple life cycles to ensure development and survival
Multicellular ie worms and arthropods
Single-celled ie protozoa
In some cases two or more parasites can effect one host ie fleas and tape worm
This is known as poly or hyperpasrasistism
Hosts in these cases are known as co-infected hosts
466
what are ecto-parasites
external parasites
feed on hosts: blood, skin, hair, feathers
joined legs
invertebrates
hard external skeleton
most are arthropods - fleas, lice and flies
body divided into head, thorax and abdomen with 3 main pairs of legs
most are wingless
arachnida- ticks and mites
head, thorax, and abdomen fused. wingless. larvae- 3 pairs, adult 4 legs
467
what are endoparasites
internal parasites
live inside a host
live in organs, gut and tissue
468
what are obligatory parasites
require a host to complete life cycle
may use more than one host to do this
patasites affecting one host for the duration, direct life cycle such as hook worms
indirect lifecycle = use of multiple hosts to complete cycle in tick
intermediate or secondary hosts are exploited for short periods
final or primary hosts are whir parasites are able to mature and reproduce
469
what are facultative parasites
able to live freely
can complete their life cycle without a host
only entering a host under certain conditions
there are opportunistic and produce infection
470
what is the RVN responsibility re parasites
advise owners and public on preventative measures and treatment options
client
staff
hygiene
identification of parasites- treat and prescribe
suitable knowledge for protection of yourselves and colleagues.
understand the CS of potential zoonotic conditions.
informing clients about potential parasitics zoonosis risk and advise on suitable precautions
471
what do you look for in faecal examinations
signs of undigested food or ingested materials
parasites- particular life stages- eggs, oocysts, larvae, segments, adults
blood
472
how do you examine faecal samples
gross examination- oberservations
microscope examination- direct smears
concentration methods
473
what is the latin name for tapeworms
cestodes
474
what is the latin name for roundworms
nematodes
475
what are examples of roundworms
Ascarids:
Toxocara canis (Dogs) & Toxocara cati (cats)
Toxascaris leonina (both)
Hookworms:
Uncinaria stenocephala
Lungworm
Angiostrongylus vasorum
Whipworm
Trihuris vulpis
Folarioides
Dirofilaria imitis
476
what are examples of tapeworms
Dipylidium caninum
Echinococcus granulosus
Taenia spp
477
what are the legal requirements for packing instruments
reulations in place to protect personnel
postal workers
transportation staff
lab staff
ensure sample arrives in a safe condition
478
what components should the packaging have
primary receptacle containing the specimen/ sample
a secondary container or receptacle
outer packaging with suitable padding or sturdy protective material for sending
479
where should packages be sampled
clean environment
480
how should packages be sent
post samples first class 24hr delivery. dont post at weekend
481
what should be included in lab paperwork for samples
submission forms
px details
sample details
area of sample
who collected sample
what sample Is for- EDTA
482
importance of recording and reporting results
recording results on animals clinical record
update promptly
communicate with vet surgeon
results need to be reviewed by vet surgeon for clinical diagnosis and treatment plan
on request of the vet surgeon results can be reported to clients
