Disease Process & Terminology & Cancer/Neoplasms Flashcards
(179 cards)
1
Q
define PATHOLOGY
A
objective description of traits, causes, & effects of abnormal conditions that threaten homeostasis
2
Q
define SYNDROME
A
defined collection of signs and sx
3
Q
define PATHOGENESIS
A
development of disease in stages
4
Q
how long defines an acute disease
A
less than 6 months
5
Q
aka: systemic health
A
internal equilibrium
6
Q
risk factors may be useful for prevention but does not necessarily predict ___ of disease
A
occurence
7
Q
list examples of predisposing factors to disease
A
age, gender, lifestyle, environment, heredity, immunodeficiency
8
Q
list examples of environment predisposition factors
A
pollution, poor living conditions, excessive noise, chronic psychological stress, geographic location
9
Q
define CROSS-REACTIVE PROTEIN (CRP)
A
blood test marker to detect inflammatory disorders
10
Q
list factors of inflammation intensity
A
cause, area of body, physical condition of person
11
Q
list factors of inflammation intensity
A
cause, area of body, physical condition of person
12
Q
what type of response is inflammation
A
nonspecific
13
Q
list some conditions that cause inflammation
A
infection w/pathogens, toxins, physical trauma, ischemia, necrosis
14
Q
what kind of response is acute inflammation
A
exudative
15
Q
describe purpose of acute inflammation
A
wall off/destroy/digest bacteria and dead/foreign tissue & allow fluid leakage that stimulate WBC phagocytes and antibody response
16
Q
what conditions can inhibit normal inflammatory response
A
immune disorders, chronic illness, certain medications (esp long-term steroid therapy)
17
Q
what are the cardinal signs of local infection
A
redness, swelling, heat, pain, fever, pus, enlarged lymph glands, & red streaks
18
Q
what are the 2 ways pathogens cause disease in body
A
- invasion & destruction of tissue
- intoxicate/produce poisonous substances
19
Q
what are some ways disease can be transmitted
A
- direct/indirect physical contact
- inhalation
- drops
- ingestion of contaminated food/water
- inoculation via insect/animal
20
Q
what are the body’s natural defenses
A
- chemical & mechanical barriers
- inflammatory response
- immune response
21
Q
aggressive skin & soft tissue infections, abscesses & cellulitis, fatal pneumonia, bone infections, and septicemia can be caused by
A
MRSA
22
Q
why is MRSA so dangerous
A
resistant to many antibiotics
23
Q
what ist he leading cause of surgical wound infections
A
MRSA
24
Q
what does MRSA stand for
A
Methicillin-Resistant Strains of Staphylococcus Aureus
25
what is the reservoir for Escherichia coli (E. coli)
colon and manure
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what infection is caused by E. coli
mild to severe enteritis
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what is the reservoir for staphylococcus aureus
skin, hair, anterior nares
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wound infection, pneumonia, food poisoning, and cellulitis are caused by
staphylococcus aureus
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strep throat, rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, and impetigo are caused by
streptococcus (hemolytic group A)
30
what is the reservoir of streptococcus (hemolytic group A)
oropharynx, skin, perianal area
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what is the reservoir of Streptococcus (hemolytic group B)
adult genitalia
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UTIs, wound infection, and endometritis are caused by
streptococcus (hemolytic group B)
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what are the reservoirs for Clostridium difficile (C. Difficile)
contaminated surfaces/spores transferred on unclean hands of others
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serious intestinal conditions like colitis are caused by
C. difficile
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what is the reservoir of mycobacterium tuberculosis
lungs
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what condition is caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis
TB
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what are the reservoirs for Neisseria gonorrhoeae
genitourinary tract, rectum, mouth, eye
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gonorrhea, pelvic inflammatory disease, infectious arthritis, and conjunctivitis are caused by
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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reservoirs for rickettsia rickettsii is
wood tick
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rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by
rickettsiae rickettsii
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reservoirs for staphylococcus epidermidis pseudomonas aeruginosa are
skin, water, soil
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wound infection, bacteremia, pneumonia, UTI, and meningitis are caused by
staphylococcus epidermidis pseudomonas aeruginosa
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the reservoirs for hepaitis A is
feces, blood, and urine
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the reservoirs for hepatitis B is
feces, blood, all body fluids & excretions
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the reservoirs for hepatitis C is
blood and bodily fluids
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chronic liver disease is caused by
hepC virus
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the reservoir for herpes simplex is
lesions of mouth & skin, blood, and excretions
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cold sores, aseptic meningitis, and STDs are caused by
herpes simplex
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the reservoirs for human immunodeficiency virus are
blood, semen, vaginal secretions, saliva, tears, urine, breast milk
50
HIV causes
AIDS
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reservoirs for hantavirus are
deer mouse urine, feces, and saliva
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URI, LRI, adult respiratory distress syndrome are caused by
hantavirus
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reservoirs for ebola hemorrhagic fever are
contaminated blood/bodily fluids and fruit bats
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hemorrhagic fever, vascular permeability, shock, death, potential bioterrorism threat are caused by
hemorrhagic fever
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the reservoir for west nile virus is
mosquitos
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fever, rash, hepatitis, and encephalitis are caused by
west nile virus
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the reservoirs for aspergillus organisms are
soil and dust
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aspergillosis and allergic bronchopulmonary are caused by
aspergillus organisms
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reservoirs for candida albicans are
mouth, skin, colon, and genital tract
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thrush and dermatitis are caused by
candida albicans
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the reservoir for plasmodium falciparum are caused by
mosquitos
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malaria is caused by
plasmodium falciparum
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why is Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) dangerous
only few antibiotics can fight it and can cause many types of infectins
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why is carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) dangerous
high levels of resistance to last resort antibiotics and fatal
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how many pairs of autosomes are there
22
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what is the remaining pair of chromosomes that are not autosomes called
sex chromosomes
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define KARYOTYPE
ordered arrangement of photographs of full chromosome set
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genetic diseases are caused by what conditions
- abnormality/mutation of code in single gene
- several abnormal genes
- abnormal presence/absence of entire chromosome
- alteration in structure of chromsome
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give examples of mutagens
chemicals, radiation, viruses
70
what are the main modes of inheritance for genetic diseases
- autosomal dominant
- autosomal recessive
- x-linked/sex-linked recessive
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define AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
mode of genetic inheritance where mutant phenotype is seen even if normal gene is present in other chromsome
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define AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE
mode of genetic inheritance where both genes need to be mutated for disease to occur
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give an example of autosomal dominant conditions
marfan syndrome & huntington disease
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give an example of autosomal recessive conditions
cystic fibrosis & phenylketonuria
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define CANCER
group of diseases characterized by uncontrollable cell proliferation
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define NEOPLASMS
relentlessly growing mass of abnormal cells that proliferate at expense of healthy organism
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list the main general types of cancer
- carcinoma
- sarcoma
- lymphoma
- leukemia
- melanoma
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define CARCINOMA
cancer of epithelial cells
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define SARCOMA
CANCER OF SUPPORTIVE TISSUES OF BODY
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define LYMPHOMA
cancer of lymph nodes & tissues of immune system
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define LEUKEMIA
cancer of blood cell precursors
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define MELANOMA
cancer of melanin-producing cells
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- list characteristics of benign tumors
- develop slowly
- remain encapsulated
- resemble tissue of origin
- rarely recur after surgical removal
- no tissue damage, not prone to hemorrhage
- may be smooth & freely movable
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list characteristics of malignant tumors
- rapid growth & invade via infiltration
- abnormal appearance
- metastasize
- ulceration/necrosis
- prone to hemorrhage
- irregular & less movable
- can reoccur
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define MYXOMA
benign tumor of embryonic fibrous tissue
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define MYXOSARCOMA
malignant tumor of embryonic fibrous tissue
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define FIBROMA
benign tumor of fibrous tissue
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define FIBROSARCOMA
malignant tumor of fibrous tissue
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define LIPOMA
benign tumor of adipose tissue
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define LIPOSARCOMA
malignant tumor of adipose tissue
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define CHONDROSARCOMA
malignant tumor of cartilage
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define OSTEOMA
benign tumor of bone
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define OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA
malignant tumor of bone
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define PAPILLOMA
benign tumor of skin & mucous membrane
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define SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
malignant tumor of skin and mucous membrane
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define NEVUS
benign tumor of melanocytes
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define MALIGNANT MELANOMA
malignant tumor of pigmented cells
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define ENDOTHELIOMA
endothelium
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define HEMANGIOMA
benign tumor of blood vessels
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what are names for malignant tumors of blood vessels
- hemangioendothelioma
- hemangiosarcoma
- Kaposi sarcoma
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define LYMPHANGIOMA
benign tumor of lymph vessel
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what are names for malignant tumors of lymph vessels
- lymphangiosarcoma
- lymphangioendothelioma
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what are names for malignant bone marrow tumors
- multiple myeloma
- ewing sarcoma
- leukmia
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what are names for malignant lymphoid tissue tumors
- malignant lymphoma
- lymphosarcoma
- reticulum cell sarcoma
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define LEIOMYOMA
benign tumor of smooth muscle
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define LEIOMYOSARCOMA
malignant tumor of smooth muscle
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define RHABDOMYOMA
benign tumor of striated muscle
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define RHABDOMYOSARCOMA
malignant tumor of striated muscle
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define NEUROGENIC SARCOMA
malignant tumor of nerve sheaths
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what are the names of benign tumors of nerve fibers and sheaths
- neuroma
- neurinoma
- neurilemmoma
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define NEUROFIBROMA
benign tumor of nerve fibers
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define NEUROFIBROSARCOMA
malignant tumor of nerve fibers
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define GANGLIONERUOMA
benign tumor of ganglion cells
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define NEUROBALSTOMA
malignant cancer of ganglion cells
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define GLIOMA
benign tumor of glial cells
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define GLIOBASTOMA
malignant tumor of glial cells
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define MENINGIOMA
benign tumor of meninges
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define MALIGNANT MENINGIOMA
malignant tumor of meninges
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define DERMOID CYST
benign tumor of gonads
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what are names for malignant tumors of gonads
- embryonal carcinoma
- embryonal sarcoma
- teratocarcinoma
121
list primary prevention guidelines for cancer
- rich diet (limit red & processed meats)
- no active/passive exposure to cigarette smoke
- limit exposure to sunlight & alcohol
- avoid excessive exposure to radiation & radon
- avoid carcinogens
- increase physical activity
- maintain healthy weight
- protect against STDs
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what is the death cancer statistic in US
1 out of every 4 deaths in US is cancer related
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what does early cancer detection include
physical exam, medical history, labs
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define CANCER STAGE
reflection of tumor size & extent of tumor spread
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majority of cancers use which system for staging
tumor-node-metastasis (TNM)
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TNM classifies based on what areas
- size/extent of primary tumor
- extent of regional lymph node involvement by tumor
- number of distant metastases
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how many stages are described by the TNM system
4 stages
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what is the most frequently reported survival period for cancer
5 years
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what does "overall 5 year survival" regarding cancer reflect?
all ppl regardless of stage w/cancer who are still alive or reflect 5-year survival rate for ppl in various stages of cancer
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what factors impact cancer prognosis
- age
- serum concentration of tumor markers
- time between diagnosis & treatment
- grade of tumor
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how is tumor grade developed
microscopic evaluation of degree of differentiation of tumor/biopsy specimen
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define WELL-DIFFERENTIATED LOW-GRADE tumors
cells retain features of cells derived from
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define POORLY DIFFERENTIATED HIGH-GRADE TUMORS
cells have abnormal appearance w/greater number of mitoses and associated w/poor survival
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define GLEASON GRADE
grading system for prostate cancer
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how does gleason's grade work?
two predominant patterns for prostate cancer scored from 1 to 5 & scores summed to give gleason score from 2-10 correlating w/disease extent and prognosis
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what do tx options for cancer include
- localized therapy (surgery & radiation)
- systemic modalities (chemotherapy, hormonal therapy, immunotherapy)
- neoadjuvant therapy
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what is the purpose of paliative surgery
relieve s/s of tumor like obstruction
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list classic side effects of chemotherapy
alopecia, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, anemia, bruising, infertility
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give examples of hormone dependent cancers
breast and prostate
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purpose of immunotherapy?
stimulate body's own immune system to fight cancer
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what does immunotherapy include
cancer vaccines & infusion of cellular products (T cells, NK cells, monoclonal antibodies)
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what are 3 ways monoclonal antibodies can have an anti-cancer effect
- trigger immune response
- give lethal dose of radiation
- release deadly chemical inside cell
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list monoclonal antibodies approved by FDA
- trastuzumab (Herceptin)
- rituximab (Rituxan)
- almentuzumab (Campath)
- iplimumab (Yervoy)
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what are the types of immune disorders
hypersensitivity, autoimmune, & immunodeficiency
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define AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE
inappropriate/excessive response of immune becoming self-destructive
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define IMMUNODEFICIENCY DISORDER
depressed/absent immune response caused by primary/secondary factors
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what is the major cause of death & young adults
physical trauma
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define IMMUNOSENESCENCE
gradual deterioration of functions of immune system
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what should be screened regularly in annual physicals for aging adults
- blood cholesterol
- rectal exam
- EKG
- PSA serum blood test
- BP check
- pap smear
- mammogram
- urinalysis
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list common concerns of the aging population
- substance abuse
- overmedication
- loss of mental acuity
- depression
- nutritional problems
151
define MENTAL DISORDER
clinically significant behavioral/psychological syndromes associated w/psychic pain/distress/function impairement
152
list words used to describe pain
dull, aching, burning, cramping, throbbing, shooting, stabbing, stinging, frightening, sickening, tiring, discomforting, intense, unbearable, mild, excruciating, vicious
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the words "dull and aching" generally describe pain from what
overuse of musculoskeletal system
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"burning" pain along a nerve route is an indication of what
peripheral nerve insult
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what ist he word "cramping" used to describe
abdominal/visceral pain
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what does "throbbing" describe
head pin/pain felt along blood vessel
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describe the stages on the numerical pain scale
- 1-3: mild
- 4-5: moderate
- 6-10: severe/bad as can be imagined
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pain receptors respond to which 3 stimuli
- temperature extremes
- mechanical damage
- dissolved chemicals
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what chemicals do pain receptors respond to
- potassium
- acids
- histamines
- acetylcholine
- bradykinin
- prostaglandins
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what is the most widely used analgesic in the world
aspirin
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what is the single greatest avoidable cause of disease and death
smoking tobacco & exposure to secondhand smoke
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how much exercise should adults do a week
- 150 min (2.5 hrs)/week of moderate activity
- 75 min (1.25 hrs)/week of vigorous activity
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vaccines for adults include
- Tdap
- flu
- pneumococcal
- hep A & B
- MMR
- varicella
- HPV
- Gardasil
- Shingrix
- vaccines for travel/special recommendations
164
who should get the pneumococcal vaccine
adults 65 yrs and older
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how often should ppl get the tetanus-diphtheria vaccine
every 10 years
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how many doses is hep B vaccine versus the hep A vaccine
hep B: 3 doses
hep A: 2 doses
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who should get the meningococcal vaccine
college freshmen living in dorms
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who should get the HPV vaccine
all unvaccinated men and women up until 26 yrs
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who should get the Gardasil vaccine
young men
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who should get the shingrix vaccine
adults 60 and older unless contraindicated
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who should get the Tdap vaccine
adults 19-64 yrs & certain adults >65 yrs
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define OSTEOPATHY
emphasis of body's natural processes for healing by realigning body structure
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what is the most widely accepted alternative medicine
osteopathy
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define REFLEXOLOGY
massage gen feet & hands causing therapeutic effect on organ/system represented in certain zone
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give examples of alternative medicine
- osteopathy
- reflexology
- aromatherapy
- herbs
- acupuncture & acupressure
- shiatsu
- magnetic
- hypnosis
- rolfing
- tai chi
- ayurveda
- iridology
- polarity
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define ACUPUNCTURE
use needles to adjust body's energy
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define SHIATSU
japanese therapy putting pressure to acupoints
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define REIKI
transfer of healing energy to pt
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